Chapters 6-8

The study of the properties and effects of medications on the body is called:

pharmacology.

The function of a drug or the particular action of a drug on an organism is called:

mechanism of action.

Which of the following is NOT a physiologic effect of the sympathetic nervous system?

Decreased heart rate

A form of solid drug that is stored in a gelatin shell filled with liquid or powder is called a:

capsule.

An agonistic drug is defined as one that:

interacts with receptor sites to stimulate a response.

Which of the following is NOT a form of liquid drug?

Capsule

Which of the following medications is a suspension?

Activated charcoal

How is nitroglycerin usually given?

Sublingual

Which of the following medications is administered in gel form?

Oral glucose

What is an enteral drug?

Any drug that is administered along any portion of the GI tract.

After receiving an order from medical control to administer a medication, you should first:

repeat the order back to medical control, word for word.

What is the term used to describe the absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion of a drug?

Pharmacokinetic

A predictable, yet adverse response to a drug, is called a/an:

side effect.

Which of the following is the FASTEST route of medication administration?

Intravenous

The removal of particles from a solution by allowing the liquid portion to pass through a membrane or other partial barrier is called:

filtration.

The subcutaneous route of drug administration is commonly used for which of the following medications?

Insulin and epinephrine

What might happen if a drug is given to a patient with liver disease?

Toxic blood levels of the drug

Factors that alter a patient's response to a drug include:

body mass and genetic factors.

A 78-year-old female takes six medications every day, each one for a different condition. What is this an example of?

Polypharmacy

Which DEA classification is given to a drug that has no accepted medical uses and a high abuse and dependence potential?

Schedule I

As an EMT-I certified at the 1985 level, which of the following medications would you be allowed to administer to a patient?

Fifty percent dextrose

The MOST common contraindication for any medication is:

hypersensitivity.

All of the following are general steps in administering a medication, EXCEPT:

confirming the patient's date of birth.

Medications that the EMT-I is authorized to administer are ultimately determined by his or her:

medical director.

A liquid mixture of one or more substances that cannot be separated by filtering or allowing the mixture to stand is called a/an:

solution.

The original chemical name of a drug, which is not capitalized, and is suggested by the drug's first manufacturer is called the:

generic name.

Which of the following statements regarding over-the-counter (OTmedications is correct?

They do not require a prescription.

Medications that fight or antagonize the effects of the sympathetic nervous system are referred to as being:

sympatholytic.

Drugs that attach to a receptor to inhibit or block a response are called:

antagonists.

A mixture of two liquids that are not mutually soluble is called a/an:

emulsion.

Which of the following medications could cause a potentially fatal interaction if given within 24 hours of Viagra, Cialis, or Levitra?

Nitroglycerin

Which of the following methods of drug administration involves the parenteral route?

Intravenous

Subcutaneous injections deliver the medication:

between the skin and the muscle.

Who regulates the selling and prescribing of controlled substances, such as narcotics?

Drug Enforcement Administration

What is the mechanism of aspirin when given to a patient with a possible myocardial infarction?

Decreases platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction

You are treating a 55-year-old male with chest pain. As you are applying oxygen, he tells you that he has a bleeding ulcer. Which of the following medications that would routinely be given in this situation is contraindicated?

Aspirin

What is the appropriate dose and concentration of epinephrine for an adult patient in cardiac arrest?

1.0 mg of 1:10,000

Epinephrine is classified as a/an:

sympathomimetic.

Which of the following signs indicate narcotic-induced CNS depression and would indicate the administration of naloxone?

Hypoventilation

Side effects of epinephrine include all of the following, EXCEPT:

bradycardia.

You administer 0.4 mg of nitroglycerin to your 55-year-old patient with chest pain. Which of the following side effects should you be MOST observant for?

Hypotension

Substances that become charged particles when they disassociate in water are called:

electrolytes.

Which of the following electrolytes determines whether or not the body is acidotic or alkalotic?

Bicarbonate

Compounds or charges concentrated on one side of a cell membrane will move across it to an area of lower concentration to maintain balance on both sides of the cell wall. This process is called:

diffusion.

Osmosis is defined as the:

diffusion of water across a semipermeable membrane.

A solution that has a greater concentration of sodium than does the cell is referred to as being:

hypertonic.

An isotonic solution is one that causes:

no change in the shape of the cell.

A 70-year-old man presents with generalized weakness and dizziness. His blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg when he is sitting, 96/56 mm Hg when he is standing. His heart rate is 120 beats/min and his skin is flushed and dry. What is the MOST likely cause of t

Dehydration

You are transporting an elderly man to the hospital because of complications associated with his congestive heart failure. Approximately 20 minutes after starting an IV of normal saline on the patient, he begins to complain of shortness of breath. You aus

Check the flow rate of the IV line.

Which of the following is NOT a crystalloid?

Whole blood

The most commonly carried IV solutions in the prehospital setting are:

isotonic crystalloids.

A microdrip administration set features a small, needle-like orifice inside the drip chamber and delivers:

60 gtts/mL.

When attaching an administration set to a bag of IV fluid and priming the IV tubing, you should ensure that the drip chamber is:

one half full.

When selecting the most appropriate site for IV cannulation, you should avoid veins that:

cross or lie over joints.

You have attempted to cannulate a vein in a patient's hand; however, shortly after inserting the IV catheter, the vein infiltrates. You should:

look for a vein that is proximal to the infiltrated vein.

A 60-year-old man is in cardiac arrest. As first responders are performing CPR, your partner is managing the patient's airway. After preparing your IV set, you should FIRST attempt to cannulate the:

antecubital vein.

Which of the following IV catheters would deliver the largest volume of fluid?

1 �" 14-gauge catheter

Which of the following techniques is MOST appropriate when cannulating a vein?

Apply traction to the vein and insert the needle with the bevel side up at a 45� angle.

The purpose of a constricting band when starting an IV is to:

increase venous pressure at the puncture site.

After removing the stylet from the IV catheter, you should next:

dispose of the needle in the appropriate container.

A 66-year-old male with congestive heart failure presents with pulmonary edema and difficulty breathing. His blood pressure is 180/90 mm Hg and his pulse rate is 110 beats/min and irregular. When starting an IV, which of the following, if available, would

Saline or heparin lock

When inserting an IV into the external jugular vein, you should:

insert the catheter with the tip pointing toward the shoulder.

Medical control has ordered you to start an IV on a dehydrated patient and administer normal saline at a rate of 200 mL/hr. Using macrodrip (10 gtts/mL) tubing and an 18-gauge catheter, how many drops per minute will you set the flow rate at?

33

Before you can calculate an IV drip rate, you must know all of the following information, EXCEPT:

amount of fluid to deliver.

Minimum documentation following IV therapy includes all of the following, EXCEPT:

the rate the fluid is running.

What is the MOST appropriate management for a patient with circulatory overload due to excessive IV fluid administration?

Oxygen, head elevated, medical control notified

The MOST significant complication associated with IV therapy in geriatric patients is:

massive hematoma.

When choosing an IV site on an elderly patient, you should:

know that varicose veins allow minimal circulation.

An ion that has an overall positive charge is called a/an:

cation.

Which of the following electrolytes is essential for the distribution of water throughout the body?

Sodium

Filtration, a type of diffusion, is commonly used to clean the blood via the:

kidneys.

A solution that results in water flowing into a cell, causing it to burst, is referred to as being:

hypotonic.

An example of intravascular fluid is:

plasma.

When the body is deficient in glucose, a feedback system responds by creating glucose. This process is an example of:

homeostasis.

When administering a crystalloid solution to a patient with severe blood loss, it is important to remember that:

crystalloid IV solutions do not have the ability to carry oxygen.

What is the difference between a crystalloid and a colloid solution?

Crystalloids do not contain large protein molecules.

The MOST appropriate administration set to use for a patient who requires rapid fluid replacement is one that delivers 1 mL of IV fluid per:

10 drops.

A stable patient requires an IV line in the event that medication therapy is needed. When selecting the appropriate vein, you should first attempt to cannulate the:

vein on the hand.

Sclerosis of a vein is caused by:

frequent cannulation.

After starting an IV on a patient in shock, the EMT-I accidentally gets stuck with the IV needle. This is referred to as a/an:

contaminated stick.

While starting an IV on a patient, you see bright red blood quickly traveling up the IV tubing. You should:

remove the catheter and apply direct pressure.

During the IV procedure, when is it MOST appropriate to apply the constricting band?

Before you cleanse the venipuncture site.

When discontinuing an IV line, you should FIRST:

shut off the flow from the IV with the roller clamp.

You have inserted an IV catheter into a vein in a patient's hand and have secured the IV line appropriately. You assess the flow of the IV and note that it is not flowing. You should FIRST:

ensure that the constricting band is not still in place.

Which of the following is a systemic complication associated with IV therapy?

Air embolus

Which of the following complications of IV therapy are you LEAST likely to encounter in the prehospital setting?

Phlebitis

You are attempting to start an IV in a vein on the back of your patient's hand. As you insert the catheter, the patient complains of sudden, severe shooting pain followed by numbness in the extremity. You should:

remove the catheter and choose another site.

The MOST effective way to prevent catheter shear when starting an IV is to:

never rethread the needle into the catheter.

Which of the following is the smallest unit of weight?

Microgram

A 42-year-old man was splashed in the eye by a corrosive substance. Medical control orders you to irrigate the patient's eye with 2 liters of sterile saline. How many milliliters is this?

2,000

There is 0.5 mg/10 mL of epinephrine in an auto-injector. How many milligrams (mg) would you deliver if you administered 5 milliliters (mL)?

0.25

The term applied to the practice of preventing contamination of the patient when performing an invasive procedure is called:

medical asepsis.

Which of the following formulas is correct for converting a patient's weight in pounds to his or her weight in kilograms?

Divide the patient's weight in pounds by 2 and subtract 10%.

What is the approximate weight in kilograms of a 155 lb patient?

70 kg

One milliliter (mL) is equal to:

1 cubic centimeter.

How many grams are present in 25 mL of 50% dextrose (D50)?

12.5 g

If you have an epinephrine concentration of 0.1 mg/mL, how many milligrams would be present in 5 mL?

0.5 mg

Other than oxygen, prior to administering any medication to a patient, you must take BSI precautions and then:

perform a careful assessment of the patient.

As an EMT-I, the MOST commonly inhaled medication you will administer is:

oxygen.

Which of the following medication routes is considered a percutaneous route?

Intramuscular

Which of the following routes is the quickest for getting medication into the central circulation?

Intravenous

A breakable glass container that is designed to carry a single medication dose is called a/an:

ampule.

Which of the following steps for drawing medication from a vial is NOT necessary when drawing medication from an ampule?

Injecting air into the container before withdrawing the drug.

When administering a medication via the intramuscular route, you should:

stretch the skin over the area and insert the needle at a 90� angle.

Following insertion of a needle into a patient's skin to administer an intramuscular injection, you pull back on the plunger and note the presence of blood in the syringe. You should:

remove the needle and apply pressure to the site.

Unlike IM or SC injections, intravenously administered drugs rapidly affect the body because:

they bypass most barriers to drug absorption.

The term "bolus" is defined as:

administering a drug in one mass of volume.

After inserting the needle into the injection port of an IV line, but before administering the medication, you should:

pinch off the tubing proximal to the injection port.

When administering a medication via the sublingual route, you should:

instruct the patient not to chew or swallow the medication.