Modalities Practice Quizzes (Ch 2-5)

All of the following are cardinal signs of inflammation EXCEPT:
a. Heat
b. Redness of skin
c. Atrophy resulting from disuse
d. Swelling

Atrophy resulting from disuse

During the vascular response, capillary permeability is increased because of all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Hageman factor
b. Histamine
c. Bradykinin
d. Fibronectin

Fibronectin

All of the following attract leukocytes or release agents that attract leukocytes to injured tissue EXCEPT:
a. Prostaglandins
b. Platelet-derived growth factor
c. Histamine
d. Macrophages

Prostaglandins

During the cellular response of the inflammatory stage, all of the following are true EXCEPT:
a. Monocytes predominate in the early phases of inflammation because of their high concentration in blood
b. Basophils and mast cells release histamine, which co

Monocytes predominate in the early phases of inflammation because of their high concentration in blood

All of the following are true regarding Hageman factor EXCEPT:
a. It is a clotting factor
b. It causes increased vascular permeability
c. It causes vasodilation
d. It is activated when vessels are damaged

It causes vasodilation

All of the following are true regarding edema EXCEPT:
a. Transudate is made up of predominantly dissolved electrolytes and water
b. Exudate has a higher specific gravity than transudate because it has a higher protein concentration
c. The clinical manifes

The clinical manifestation of edema is known as ecchymosis

All of the following are true regarding prostaglandins EXCEPT:
a. They are produced by nearly every cell in the body
b. Their synthesis is inhibited by both NSAIDs and steroids
c. They are released in response to damage to the cell membrane
d. They are ac

They are active only in the inflammatory stage

All of the following are true regarding collagen EXCEPT:
a. Fibroblasts initially produce type III collagen in the proliferative phase
b. During the proliferative phase the injured area has the greatest amount of collagen
c. Type I collagen is replaced by

Type I collagen is replaced by type III collagen

Local factors that can affect the healing response include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Disease
b. Size of the injury
c. Infection
d. Application of physical agents

Disease

All of the following are true regarding the healing capacity of cartilage EXCEPT:
a. Cartilage has limited ability to heal because it lacks lymphatics, nerves, and blood vessels
b. Injuries to both cartilage and subchondral bone heal better than injuries

Healed cartilage has a normal proteolytic content and is at no greater risk of injury than before the injury

All of the following are true regarding ligament healing EXCEPT:
a. Injured mature repaired ligamentous tissue is 30% to 50% stronger than uninjured tissue
b. Capsular and extracapsular ligaments may have adequate repair potential, whereas intracapsular l

Injured mature repaired ligamentous tissue is 30% to 50% stronger than uninjured tissue

All of the following are true regarding scar tissue EXCEPT:
a. Keloid scars extend beyond the original boundaries of the injury and invade surrounding tissue
b. Hypertrophic scars are raised and remain within the margin of the wound
c. The treatment of ke

The treatment of keloid scars through surgery, medication, and irradiation is generally successful

All of the following are true regarding systemic factors of healing EXCEPT:
a. Wounds in children often heal faster than in adults
b. Corticosteroids accelerate all phases of healing
c. Circulatory compromise can inhibit healing caused by decreased oxygen

Corticosteroids accelerate all phases of healing

All of the following regarding trauma to muscle tissue are true EXCEPT:
a. Muscle fiber may die
b. New muscle fibers proliferate
c. A hematoma may develop
d. A calcified hematoma may develop if the muscle trauma is severe

New muscle fibers proliferate

During the inflammation phase of wound healing, a thin fibrin lattice is formed over the wound. All of the following are true regarding the fibrin lattice EXCEPT:
a. It is created by cross linkages of fibrin and fibronectin with collagen
b. It provides si

It provides significant tensile strength to the wound

All of the following describe chronic inflammation EXCEPT:
a. Follows poor or no resolution of the acute inflammatory process
b. Predominance of neutrophils over lymphocytes
c. Fibroblast proliferation
d. May be prolonged for months to years

Predominance of neutrophils over lymphocytes

Which of the following defines margination?
a. Neutrophils squeezing through junctions in the vessel walls
b. Neutrophils breaking away from the central column and adhering to the endothelium
c. Neutrophils accumulating in layers along the endothelium of

Neutrophils accumulating in layers along the endothelium of the vessel

Which of the following is the correct sequence of events during the vascular response?
a. Migration, margination, pavementing, emigration
b. Margination, pavementing, migration, emigration
c. Emigration, migration, margination, pavementing
d. Migration, m

Migration, margination, pavementing, emigration

Which of the following results in edema?
a. Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure
b. Increased interstitial osmotic pressure
c. An overwhelmed lymphatic system
d. All of the above

All of the above

Which of the following is correct regarding superficial wounds that are sutured?
a. They heal by primary intention
b. They heal by secondary intention
c. They heal by wound contraction
d. They are usually epithelialized within 12 hours

They heal by primary intention

Which of the following differentiates epithelialization from wound contraction?
a. Epithelialization pulls the edges of the wound together, shrinking the defect
b. Epithelialization covers the wound surface superficially
c. Epithelialization is caused by

Epithelialization covers the wound surface superficially

According to the "picture frame" theory, which of the following is true
regarding wound closure?
a. Linear wounds with one narrow dimension heal more rapidly than square or circular wounds
b. Square or rectangular wounds heal more rapidly than linear woun

Linear wounds with one narrow dimension heal more rapidly than square or circular wounds

Which of the following contributes to the red and swollen appearance of scar during the proliferative stage of wound healing?
a. Increase in vascularity
b. Increase in fluid
c. Innervation of the healing site
d. All of the above

All of the above

Which of the following causes pain during the inflammatory process?
a. Presence of edema
b. Vasoconstriction of damaged vessels
c. Irritation of pain receptors
d. All of the above

All of the above

Which of the following is characteristic of a soft callus following bone fracture?
a. It is visible on x-ray film until it is reabsorbed and replaced by hard callus
b. It remains until bony fragments are united by fibrous or cartilaginous tissue
c. Its fo

It remains until bony fragments are united by fibrous or cartilaginous tissue

Which of the following is LEAST likely to contribute to excessive collagen deposition?
a. Inflammation
b. Early introduction of slow active range of motion
c. Edema
d. Compromised vascular supply

Early introduction of slow active range of motion

When considering optimal tendon healing, which of the following treatments is most appropriate?
a. Maximal stretch of the tendon to prevent shortening
b. Immobilization of the tendon repair for 2 months to allow for optimal healing
c. Early gentle passive

Early gentle passive range of motion to promote optimal orientation of the collagen fibrils

Which of the following is the correct order of the stages of fracture healing?
a. Induction, impaction, inflammation, soft callus, hard callus, remodeling
b. Impaction, inflammation, induction, soft callus, hard callus, remodeling
c. Impaction, induction,

Impaction, induction, inflammation, soft callus, hard callus, remodeling

A diet deficient in which of the following may result in decreased collagen synthesis?
a. Protein
b. Zinc
c. Magnesium
d. All of the above

All of the above

Given the length of the scar maturation phase, treatment of scars is
appropriate:
a. For the first 4 months only
b. For up to 6 months only
c. For up to 12 months only
d. For up to 24 months

For up to 24 months

The acute inflammatory process usually lasts:
a. For up to 4 weeks
b. For up to 6 weeks
c. No more than 2 weeks
d. No more than 1 week

No more than 1 week

Features of chronic pain include:
I. Pain different from that associated with the initial injury
II. Substantial psychosocial changes
III. Belief that pain has an unidentifiable organic cause
a. I only
b. I and III only
c. II and III only
d. I, II and III

II and III only

Acute pain is generally:
a. Of less than 6 months' duration, poorly localized, mediated through rapidly conducting pathways
b. Of less than 6 months' duration, well localized, mediated through slowly conducting pathways
c. Of less than 6 months' duration,

Of less than 6 months' duration, well localized, mediated through slowly conducting pathways

A common pain referral pattern is from the diaphragm to:
a. The anterior chest wall
b. The lateral tip of either shoulder
c. The upper chest, left shoulder, jaw, and arm
d. The lumbosacral junction

The lateral tip of either shoulder

Which structure frequently refers pain to the right shoulder or the inferior angle of the right scapula?
a. Gallbladder
b. Spleen
c. Heart
d. Appendix

Gallbladder

When working with a patient who presents with chronic pain, the
therapist should consider which of the following:
a. Whether counseling would be beneficial
b. Coaching the patient on breathing exercises to work through the pain experienced during manual t

Whether counseling would be beneficial

Mrs. Jones presents to your clinic with complaints of left shoulder pain with activity. You find that her pain is aggravated by repetitive raising of her left arm but also by fast walking and by repetitive raising of her right arm. Which of the following

Inadequate blood flow to the heart

According to current pain theories all of the following are true
EXCEPT:
a. Nociceptors respond to a variety of noxious stimuli
b. The quality of pain depends upon the type of tissue from which the stimulus originates
c. Pain intensity depends on the rate

The intensity of pain is greater when the intensity of non-nociceptor stimulation is greater than the intensity of nociceptor stimulation

Which of the following transmit the sensation of pain from the periphery to the spinal cord?
a. Small unmyelinated A-delta fibers and small unmyelinated C fibers
b. Small myelinated A-delta fibers and small unmyelinated C fibers
c. Large myelinated A-delt

Small myelinated A-delta fibers and small unmyelinated C fibers

Nociceptors are found in:
a. All tissues except the nucleus pulposus and the inner part of the annulus fibrosus of the spinal discs
b. All tissues except the outer part of the annulus fibrosus of the spinal discs and the interspinous ligaments
c. Only the

All tissues except the nucleus pulposus and the inner part of the annulus fibrosus of the spinal discs

The pain transmitted by C fibers generally
a. Has a fast onset after the initial painful stimulus
b. Is well localized
c. Is rarely accompanied by autonomic responses such as sweating, increased heart rate and increased blood pressure
d. Is long lasting

Is long lasting

The transmission of pain at the spinal cord may be inhibited by increased activity of:
a. A-delta nerves
b. C fibers
c. T nerves
d. A-beta nerves

A-beta nerves

Which of the following is LEAST likely to cause nociceptor activation:
a. Displaced fracture
b. Post-surgical edema
c. Vibration associated with removing a cast
d. Poorly insulated hot pack

Vibration associated with removing a cast

All of the following are true regarding the anterospinothalamic tract EXCEPT:
a. It crosses midline in the spinal cord
b. It synapses with neurons in the hypothalamus and thalamus
c. It is associated with modulation of pain
d. It is associated with transm

It is associated with modulation of pain

Increased sympathetic nervous system activity may cause all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Decreased heart rate
b. Increased heart rate
c. Increased blood pressure
d. Increased sweating

Decreased heart rate

Complex regional pain syndrome (CRPS) includes all of the following signs or symptoms EXCEPT:
a. Hyperesthesia
b. Allodynia
c. Edema
d. Anesthesia

Anesthesia

CRPS (Complex Regional Pain Syndrome) has been called all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Sudeck's atrophy
b. Reflex sympathetic dystrophy
c. Post-traumatic stress disorder
d. Shoulder-hand syndrome

Post-traumatic stress disorder

Elevated levels of substance P:
a. Are associated with reduced sensation of pain
b. Are associated with increased sensation of pain
c. Cause an increase in heart rate
d. Cause a decrease in heart rate

Are associated with increased sensation of pain

Naloxone reverses the effects of:
a. Substance P
b. Sympathetic nervous system activation
c. Parasympathetic nervous system activation
d. Endorphins

Endorphins

All of the following are true regarding opiopeptins EXCEPT:
a. Opiopeptins are a group of opiate-like neurotransmitters
b. Opiopeptins control pain when they bind to opiate receptors in the nervous system
c. Opiopeptins bind with opiate binding sites in m

Opiopeptins bind with opiate binding sites in muscles

Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. aspirin
b. ibuprofen
c. acetaminophen
d. naproxen sodium

acetaminophen

Which tool is most appropriate for quickly estimating a patient's perceived progress or change in severity of symptoms over time?
a. Visual analog scale
b. Comparison with a predefined stimulus
c. Body diagram
d. Semantic differential scale

Visual analog scale

Which tool is most appropriate for obtaining detailed quantifiable information about a patient's pain?
a. Visual analog scale
b. Comparison with a predefined stimulus
c. Body diagram
d. Semantic differential scale

Semantic differential scale

Which tool is most appropriate for localizing the area and nature of a patient's symptoms?
a. Visual analog scale
b. Comparison with a predefined stimulus
c. Body diagram
d. Semantic differential scale

Body diagram

All of the following types of pharmacological agents are used to control pain EXCEPT:
a. Opiates
b. NSAIDs
c. Naloxone
d. Antidepressants

Naloxone

Physical agents may be used to control pain by all of the following mechanisms EXCEPT:
a. Moderating the release of inflammatory mediators
b. Increasing opiopeptin levels
c. Altering nerve conduction
d. Completely blocking nociceptive transmission

Completely blocking nociceptive transmission

Which of the following statements is true?
a. Physical agents can be an effective component of the treatment of both acute and chronic pain
b. Physical agents should only be used for treating acute pain
c. Physical agents always increase the cost of contr

Physical agents can be an effective component of the treatment of both acute and chronic pain

Multidisciplinary pain treatment programs generally focus on
a. Eliminating the sensation of pain, increasing physical activity and involving the patient's family
b. Teaching the patient coping skills, increasing physical activity and involving the patien

Teaching the patient coping skills, increasing physical activity and involving the patient's family

All of the following statements regarding muscle tone are true EXCEPT:
a. Physical agent modalities can affect both the neural and biomechanical components of muscle tone
b. Muscle tone is described as one's readiness to move or hold a position
c. Assessi

Assessing muscle tone requires that the patient actively resist manual stretch

Which of the following best defines muscle tone?
a. The rigidity of muscles when an individual is under stress
b. A muscle's passive resistance to stretch
c. The lack of tension in a muscle following a peripheral nerve lesion
d. A muscle's active resistan

A muscle's passive resistance to stretch

Which term describes a muscle that resists a quicker stretch more than a slower stretch?
a. Spasticity
b. Hyperreflexia
c. Hypotonia
d. Flaccidity

Spasticity

A therapist enters the dining room of the acute rehabilitation unit where her next patient is seated in a wheelchair. The therapist observes the patient from afar and notes that the patient is posturing her left upper extremity with the elbow in flexion,

The patient presents with abnormal muscle tone

Which term best describes a paralyzed muscle with no resistance to stretch?
a. Spastic
b. Hypertonic
c. Hypotonic
d. Flaccid

Flaccid

A therapist is attempting to place a child with cerebral palsy into a wheelchair. When the therapist attempts to position the child's feet onto the footrest by dorsiflexing the child's ankles, her ankle plantar flexors begin to shorten in multiple rhythmi

Pt. presents with clonus involving plantar flexors

The pendulum test measures which of the following characteristics of hypertonicity?
a. Ballismus
b. Tremor
c. Athetosis
d. Spasticity

Spasticity

When documenting muscle tone, noting the patient's position is LEAST relevant for which of the following?
a. Gravity
b. Electromyography (EMG) studies
c. Primitive reflexes
d. Replicating measurements of tone

Electromyography (EMG) studies

All of the following are advantages to using EMG for assessing muscle tone EXCEPT:
a. Sensitivity to low levels of muscle activity that may not be easily appreciated by palpation
b. Large muscle groups can be assessed simultaneously
c. Useful for biofeedb

Large muscle groups can be assessed simultaneously

For a client who has increased tone and pain in the back extensor muscles, which of the following is an appropriate way to assess muscle tone?
a. Ashworth scale
b. Using a dynamometer and varying speeds of stretch
c. Pendulum test
d. Palpation of the musc

Palpation of the muscle, observing movement

All of the following should occur for assessment of muscle tone EXCEPT:
a. Report testing position of the patient
b. Begin an assessment of muscle tone with a joint at end range
c. Handhold and instrument placement should be consistent
d. Include assessme

Begin an assessment of muscle tone with a joint at end range

Under which circumstance does a muscle have the greatest potential to generate force?
a. When a joint is at the end of its range, and actin and myosin are not overlapping
b. When a joint is at the end of its range, and actin and myosin are maximally overl

When a joint is in mid-range and actin and myosin are overlapping

Passive elements of muscle that contribute to muscle tone include which of the following?
a. Number of myosin-actin cross-bridges
b. Amount of calcium ions released from storage sites
c. Friction between connective tissues as they slide past one another
d

Friction between connective tissues as they slide past one another

Which of the following is true regarding the alpha motor neuron?
a. Provides the brain with information about muscle length
b. Transmits signals from the central nervous system (CNS) to muscles
c. It is also called the motor unit
d. Sensitizes the muscle

Transmits signals from the central nervous system (CNS) to muscles

The alpha motor neuron conducts electrochemical signals:
a. Via the movement of calcium and potassium ions in and out of the axon
b. From the synaptic boutons up through the axon and then to the dendrites
c. To their destination via neurotransmitter relea

At up to 70 to 80 m/sec in humans

Spinal input to alpha motor neurons includes:
a. Propriospinal pathways
b. Ia sensory neurons
c. Corticospinal tracts
d. Basal ganglia

Propriospinal pathways

Which receptor monitors tension and the force produced by muscle contraction via Ib sensory neurons?
a. Muscle spindle
b. Golgi tendon organ (GTO)
c. Anterior horn cell
d. Cutaneous receptor

Golgi tendon organ (GTO)

Which two states are likely to result in increased muscle tone?
a. Increased inhibitory input or increased excitatory input
b. Decreased inhibitory input or increased excitatory input
c. Decreased excitatory input or decreased inhibitory input
d. Decrease

Decreased inhibitory input or increased excitatory input

When alpha motor neurons are unable to transmit electrical impulses to an entire muscle, all of the following conditions exist EXCEPT:
a. Cross-bridging
b. Muscle paralysis
c. Flaccidity
d. Denervation

Cross-bridging

A patient with Parkinson's disease is likely to present with which of the following?
a. Flaccidity
b. Spasticity
c. Rigidity
d. Hypotonicity

Rigidity

A patient who has just had a stroke is likely to present with which of the following?
a. Initial flaccidity followed by spasticity
b. Initial spasticity followed by hypotonicity
c. Initial hypotonicity followed by rigidity
d. Initial fluctuations in tone

Initial flaccidity followed by spasticity

Clinically relevant consequences of decreased muscle tone include:
a. Shoulder subluxation
b. Contractures
c. Painful muscle spasms
d. Unintentional self-inflicted injuries

Shoulder subluxation

All of the following are likely to cause an increase in muscle tone EXCEPT:
a. Quick stretch
b. Unexpected noise
c. Light touch
d. Slow repetitive rocking

Slow repetitive rocking

Outcomes expected from the use of prolonged ice with someone who has hypertonia include:
a. Increased muscle tone
b. Alerting the body, preparing to respond
c. Increased nerve conduction velocity
d. Decreased muscle tone

Decreased muscle tone

Which of the following can cause low muscle tone by mechanisms other than alpha motor neuron damage?
a. Poliomyelitis
b. Guillain-Barr´┐Ż syndrome
c. Brachial plexus injury
d. Cerebral vascular accident

Cerebral vascular accident

Which statement regarding the consequences of hypertonicity is true?
a. Spasticity always prevents voluntary motor performance
b. Patients with hypertonicity always present with spasticity
c. Hypertonicity always interferes with function
d. Hypertonicity

Hypertonicity that interferes with function is always abnormal

A patient with a complete spinal cord injury is most likely to present with which pattern of muscle tone?
a. Hypertonicity only
b. Hypertonicity followed by hypotonicity
c. Hypotonicity only
d. Hypotonicity followed by hypertonicity

Hypotonicity followed by hypertonicity

The musculotendinous unit includes all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Ligament
b. Tendon
c. Muscle
d. Tendon's interface with bone

Ligament

All of the following are characteristics of a capsular pattern of motion restriction EXCEPT:
a. Associated with degenerative joint disease
b. Loss of motion is generally in one direction only
c. Caused by shortening of the capsule around a joint
d. Caused

Loss of motion is generally in one direction only

A patient presents with limitations in the left wrist that are in a non-capsular pattern. Therefore, it is most likely that:
a. The entire joint capsule is involved
b. The patient has had a derangement in the structure of the joint and does not have the e

The patient has had a derangement in the structure of the joint and does not have the entire capsule involved

All of the following are likely to limit passive joint range of motion EXCEPT:
a. Intraarticular effusion
b. Muscle weakness
c. Osteophytes
d. Contracture

Muscle weakness

All of the following are areas at risk for restrictions in nerve motion EXCEPT:
a. Tunnels through which a nerve passes
b. Locations along the nerve pathway where nerve branching occurs
c. Locations along the nerve pathway that include both motor and sens

Locations along the nerve pathway that include both motor and sensory fibers

Normal range of motion varies with all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Age
b. Hand dominance
c. Health status
d. Gender

Hand dominance

Which of the following could all result in a limitation of passive range of motion?
a. Muscle weakness, mechanical block, edema
b. Adhesion, edema, soft tissue shortening
c. Adhesion, hypotonia, soft tissue shortening
d. Muscle weakness, adhesion, soft ti

Adhesion, edema, soft tissue shortening

Which of the following motions would result in a soft end-feel at the end of the range of motion?
a. Knee flexion in a healthy knee
b. Elbow extension in a healthy elbow
c. Knee flexion with an effusion present
d. Shoulder internal rotation in a healthy s

Knee flexion in a healthy knee

Which of the following motions would result in a firm end-feel at the end of the range of motion if there were no pathology?
a. Knee flexion
b. Elbow extension
c. Cervical side bending
d. Shoulder internal rotation

Shoulder internal rotation

The accessory motions that accompany physiological knee extension are:
a. Posterior gliding of the tibia, anterior gliding of the femur
b. Posterior gliding of the tibia, posterior gliding of the femur
c. Anterior gliding of the tibia, posterior gliding o

Anterior gliding of the tibia, posterior gliding of the femur

All of the following are true regarding accessory joint motions EXCEPT:
a. They may be intraarticular
b. They may be extraarticular
c. They can be performed actively, separate from physiological joint motions
d. They can be passively isolated from physiol

They can be performed actively, separate from physiological joint motions

A ligamentous adhesion will limit motion in a direction that:
a. Compresses the associated joint
b. Stretches the ligament
c. Is unpredictable
d. Compresses or stretches the ligament

Stretches the ligament

An osteophyte on the anterior aspect of the trochlea on the humerus is likely to limit:
a. Active and passive elbow flexion
b. Active elbow flexion only
c. Active and passive elbow flexion and extension
d. Passive elbow flexion only

Active and passive elbow flexion

A tear in the biceps tendon is most likely to limit:
a. Active and passive elbow flexion
b. Active elbow extension and resisted elbow flexion
c. Active and resisted elbow extension
d. Active and resisted elbow flexion

Active and resisted elbow flexion

All of the following are true regarding normal passive range of motion EXCEPT:
a. It is always greater than active range of motion in a joint with a normal firm end-feel
b. It will be equal to active range of motion in a joint with a bony end-feel
c. It i

It is not dependent on accessory

During an active range of motion assessment, which of the following subjective complaints should be recorded by the therapist?
a. Presence of tingling
b. Presence of pain
c. Statements made by the patient regarding loss of functional ability
d. All of the

All of the above

Active range of motion evaluation provides the therapist with information about:
a. End-feel of joint
b. Joint integrity
c. Strength of the muscle(s)
d. Passive range of motion limits

Strength of the muscle(s)

When assessing joint range of motion, ideally, the therapist should do which of the following to determine if a range-of-motion limitation exists?
a. Identify the functional limitations of the patient
b. Compare with the patient's report of prior availabl

Compare with the unaffected contralateral side

All of the following are contraindications to testing passive range of motion and active range of motion EXCEPT:
a. Region of a dislocation
b. The presence of inflammation
c. The presence of myositis ossificans
d. Unhealed fracture

The presence of inflammation

Upon applying resistance during manual muscle testing, the patient has no pain and can generate full force. This is indicative of:
a. No pathology of contractile or nervous tissue
b. A minor structural lesion of the musculotendinous unit
c. A complete rup

No pathology of contractile or nervous tissue

Upon applying resistance during manual muscle testing, the patient experiences pain but can generate a normal amount of force. This is indicative of:
a. No pathology of contractile or nervous tissue
b. A minor structural lesion of the musculotendinous uni

A minor structural lesion of the musculotendinous unit

When both active range of motion and passive range of motion are normal but resisted testing is abnormal, this generally indicates:
a. A lesion of noncontractile tissue
b. A lesion of contractile tissue
c. A bony block
d. Poor effort by the subject

A lesion of contractile tissue

Elongation of soft tissue that remains after a splint is removed is an example of:
a. Creep
b. Stress relaxation
c. Plastic deformation
d. Ballistic stretch

Plastic deformation

Ballistic stretching is NOT recommended because it:
a. Requires the assistance of an individual proficient in the technique
b. Can be painful
c. May increase tissue tightness by activating the stretch reflex
d. May result in motor learning

May increase tissue tightness by activating the stretch reflex

What is the ideal force for stretching?
a. Low load and prolonged
b. High load and prolonged
c. Low load and brief
d. High load and brief

Low load and prolonged

Which is the appropriate treatment for optimal increase in soft tissue length with stretching?
a. Heat should be applied after stretching
b. Cold should be applied after stretching
c. Heat should be applied before stretching
d. Cold should be applied befo

Heat should be applied before stretching

Which of the following is true regarding the development of contractures?
a. Contractures generally only occur in contractile tissues
b. Contractures can result from prolonged serial casting
c. A practitioner can use the terms "soft tissue contracture" an

Contractures can result from prolonged serial casting

Intraarticular edema limits joint range of motion in all of the following ways EXCEPT:
a. By distending the joint capsule and limiting the amount ligaments can fold
b. By causing soft tissue approximation to occur earlier in the range of motion
c. In a ca

By causing soft tissue approximation to occur earlier in the range of motion

All of the following regarding adhesions are true EXCEPT:
a. They can develop with prolonged serial casting in the absence of trauma
b. Within a joint, adhesions can lead to articular cartilage degeneration
c. They frequently cause limitations in motion
d

They are less likely to occur between two different tissue types