1. Which one of the following statements about action potentials (AP) is true?
a. Increasing intensity to suprathreshold levels will increase the magnitude of an AP
b. A longer rise time will decrease threshold potential, thus improving generation of APs
c. While an AP is occurring, no additional APs can occur in the same segment of the nerve
2. Which of the following statements is true?
a. Muscle contractions are produced when a motor nerve is stimulated; a tingling sensation is produced when a sensory nerve is stimulated
b. Placing an electrode near or over a motor point will be more painful
a. Muscle contractions are produced when a motor nerve is stimulated; a tingling sensation is produced when a sensory nerve is stimulated
3. Is it possible to stimulate only sensory fibers with a device that has a fixed pulse duration of 200 microseconds?
a. No
b. Yes, by using a low amplitude
c. Yes, by using a lower frequency (ex: < 30 pulses per second [pps])
d. Yes, by using a higher fr
b. Yes, by using a low amplitude
4. Which of the following is NOT documented for an electrical stimulation treatment using symmetric biphasic current?
a. Position of patient
b. The color of the electrode leads
c. Amplitude
d. Patient's response to treatment
b. The color of the electrode leads
5. When the nerve becomes gradually less responsive to stimulation, this is called
a. Accommodation
b. Propagation
c. Tolerance
d. Depolarization
a. accommodation
6. Biphasic PC is generally effective for all of the following EXCEPT
a. To control pain
b. To strengthen innervated muscles
c. To prevent muscle atrophy in denervated muscles
d. To decrease spasticity by stimulating either spastic muscles or their antago
c. To prevent muscle atrophy in denervated muscles
7. Which of the following changes to an electrical stimulation current will most effectively increase the number of APs generated?
a. Increasing the rise time
b. Increasing the ramp-up time
c. Decreasing the ramp-up time
d. Increasing the frequency
d. Increasing the frequency
8. The magnitude of the current or voltage is called
a. Amplitude
b. On time
c. Potential
d. Phase duration
a. amplitude
9. Changing the ramp-up time will
a. Change the frequency
b. Affect whether or not accommodation occurs
c. Affect when the series of pulses reaches peak amplitude
d. Affect what type of nerve fiber will be stimulated
c. Affect when the series of pulses reaches peak amplitude
10. What statement regarding rheobase is true?
a. It is two times the chronaxie
b. It is the maximum current amplitude required to elicit an action potential
c. It is the minimum current amplitude required to elicit an action potential
d. It is the minimu
c. It is the minimum current amplitude required to elicit an action potential
11. What current amplitude/duration combination would be best to stimulate sensory nerves?
a. High amplitude, short duration
b. Low amplitude, short duration
c. Low amplitude, long duration
d. High amplitude, long duration
b. Low amplitude, short duration
12. Which of the following statements about pulse duration is FALSE?
a. It is often used interchangeably with the term pulse width
b. It is usually measured in microseconds
c. It includes the time from the beginning of the first phase to the pulse to the
d. It includes the interpulse interval
13. What are the disadvantages of premodulated current compared with interferential current?
a. It doesn't use a lower current amplitude
b. It doesn't cover as large of an area
c. It doesn't control pain as well as interferential current
d. A and B only
d. A and B only
14. All of the following are contraindications for the use of electrical stimulation EXCEPT
a. Patients with a demand cardiac pacemaker
b. An open wound
c. Over a carotid sinus
d. Pregnancy
b. an open wound
15. When is an asymmetric biphasic current possibly more comfortable than a symmetric biphasic current?
a. Pain control
b. Contractions of larger muscles
c. Contractions of smaller muscles
d. Tissue repair
c. Contractions of smaller muscles
16. How could the pulse duration of a pulsed current be decreased without changing the frequency?
a. This is not possible with any type of current
b. The rise time must increase
c. This is only possible for a monophasic current
d. The interpulse interval
d. The interpulse interval must increase
17. If a patient cannot use conventional self-adhesive electrodes, what other types may be used?
a. Carbon rubber
b. Conductive garments
c. Blue gel electrodes
d. All of the above
d. all of the above
18. Which of the following is NOT true about the electrical potential in nerves?
a. At rest the outside of the cell is more negative than the inside
b. When a stimulus is applied sodium channels open and flood the inside of the cell with positive ions
c.
a. At rest the outside of the cell is more negative than the inside
19. Which of the following scenarios is LEAST likely to cause burns?
a. Electrical stimulation over insensate skin
b. One electrode falls off completely
c. Electrodes placed over bony prominences
d. Electrodes that are still in contact with skin but the e
b. One electrode falls off completely
20. To reduce the likelihood of adaptation, devices have been engineered to modulate (i.e., automatically vary during a treatment) all of the following characteristics EXCEPT
a. Amplitude
b. Type of waveform
c. Frequency
d. Pulse duration
b. type of waveform
1. If the muscle twitches, instead of producing a strong contraction, what parameter should you change?
a. Ramp-up time
b. Frequency
c. Pulse duration
d. On time
b. frequency
2. Russian protocol is a __ type of waveform and was originally used for __.
a. Pulse current; muscle strengthening
b. Medium frequency; muscle strengthening
c. Medium frequency; pain control
d. Direct current; tissue healing
b. Medium frequency; muscle strengthening
3. What type of waveform would NOT be recommended for contracting innervated muscles?
a. Russian
b. Biphasic pulse current
c. Direct current
d. All of the above can be used
c. direct current
4. When NMES is used for muscle strengthening, what is the initial recommended on:off ratio?
a. 1:2
b. 1:5
c. 1:15
d. 1:50
b. 1:5
5. Motor-level stimulation of muscles in spinal cord-injured individuals can achieve which of the following benefits?
a. Improved circulation
b. Locomotion
c. Respiration
d. Decreased muscle atrophy
e. All of the above
e. all of the above
6. According to the overload principle, what can be done to "overload" the muscle with an electrically stimulated contraction?
a. Increase the pulse duration
b. Increase the electrode size
c. Increase the current amplitude
d. All of the above
e. A and C o
d. all of the above
7. After having stimulated a muscle contraction with a 35 pps frequency current, which of the following pulse frequencies is most likely to increase the force of a second contraction?
a. 8 pps
b. 80 pps
c. 800 pps
d. 8000 pps
b. 80 pps
8. If a patient cannot tolerate a long pulse duration (e.g., 300 ?s) and you reduce the pulse duration, what other parameter would you most likely need to change to achieve the same contraction?
a. Increase the frequency
b. Decrease the frequency
c. Incre
c. increase the amplitude
9. With an electrically stimulated contraction, which motor units are recruited first?
a. Small-diameter nerve fibers
b. Type 1 muscle fibers
c. Slow-twitch muscle fibers
d. Fast-twitch muscle fibers
d. fast-twitch muscle fibers
10. All of the following are examples of using functional electrical stimulation (FES) in treatment EXCEPT
a. To stimulate ankle dorsiflexors during gait
b. To stimulate wrist extensors for a tenodesis grasp in a patient with a spinal cord injury
c. To su
d. To control pain in the hemiplegic shoulder
11. What type of current is recommended to contract denervated muscle?
a. Alternating current
b. Russian current
c. Direct current
d. Biphasic pulse current
c. Direct current
12. Which of the following statements about the difference between FES, NMES, and EMS is true?
a. FES requires the direct stimulation of denervated muscle
b. EMS involves a functional activity
c. NMES is applied to an innervated muscle
d. EMS uses pulse d
c. NMES is applied to an innervated muscle
13. Which of the following pulse durations would be the best choice for producing a muscle contraction?
a. 2 microseconds
b. 20 microseconds
c. 200 microseconds
d. 2 milliseconds
c. 200 microseconds
14. The minimum force required for strengthening healthy muscle is
a. 20% of MVIC
b. 50% of MVIC
c. 80% of MVIC
d. 100% of MVIC
b. 50% of MVIC
15. When a muscle tires after only a couple of contractions, what can you do to prevent this fatigue?
a. Decrease the amplitude
b. Decrease the frequency
c. Increase the pulse duration
d. Increase the on time
b. Decrease the frequency
16. Electrically stimulated muscle contractions may help which of the following?
a. Maintaining strength and bone density in astronauts
b. Patients with dysphagia
c. DVT prevention
d. Patients with cerebral palsy
e. All of the above
e. all of the above
17. When are electrically stimulated contractions MOST effective?
a. When the muscle has disuse atrophy
b. When the muscle is strong
c. When the muscle lacks endurance
d. When smooth contractions are needed
a. When the muscle has disuse atrophy
18. If a patient complains that a stimulated contraction is uncomfortable, which of the following parameters would you be most likely to change?
a. Decrease the pulse duration
b. Decrease the on time
c. Increase the ramp-down time
d. Decrease the frequenc
a. Decrease the pulse duration
19. Which of the following mechanisms does NOT underlie benefits of sensory-level electrical stimulation over agonist muscles in individuals following stroke?
a. Enhanced brain plasticity
b. Promotion of reciprocal inhibition of antagonist muscles
c. Dire
c. Direct stimulation of agonist motor neurons
20. Patients with which of the following conditions would NOT benefit from electrically stimulated contractions for strengthening?
a. Rheumatoid arthritis
b. Post-total knee arthroplasty
c. Patellofemoral syndrome
d. All of the above could benefit
d. All of the above could benefit
1. Which of the following electrode placements is most effective for pain control?
a. Over or around the area of pain
b. Over trigger points
c. Over acupuncture points
d. Proximal to the site of pain, along the pathway of the sensory nerves supplying the
e. None of these have been proven to be more effective than another
2. How is low-rate TENS thought to produce analgesia?
a. Stimulation of muscle contractions to promote the release of endogenous opioids
b. Stimulation of sensory fibers to block pain at the spinal cord
c. Activation of nociceptors to block pain
d. Stimul
a. Stimulation of muscle contractions to promote the release of endogenous opioids
3. When should low-rate TENS NOT be applied?
a. When pain levels are above 5/10
b. When inflammation is present
c. For chronic pain
d. None of the above
b. When inflammation is present
4. Which of the following parameter(s) is/are different for conventional TENS and acupuncture-like TENS?
a. Frequency
b. Pulse duration
c. Amplitude
d. All of the above
d. all of the above
5. Burst mode TENS is most like what other type of stimulation?
a. Interferential
b. Conventional TENS
c. Low-rate TENS
d. None of the above
c. low-rate TENS
6. What pulse duration is usually used for low-rate TENS?
a. 2 to 10 microseconds
b. 50 to 80 microseconds
c. 80 to 100 microseconds
d. 150 to 300 microseconds
d. 150 to 300 microseconds
7. For low-rate TENS, what should the amplitude of the current be?
a. Gentle tingling sensation
b. Maximally tolerated sensory stimulation
c. Sufficient to produce a visible muscle contraction
d. A and B only
c. Sufficient to produce a visible muscle contraction
8. When using conventional TENS for pain control, what is the appropriate on:off ratio?
a. 1:1
b. 1:2
c. 1:10
d. No off time should be used
d. no off time
9. When should conventional TENS be applied?
a. During exercise
b. While sleeping
c. Anytime the patient has pain
d. Every 8 hours
c. anytime patient has pain
10. You are treating a patient with acute neck pain who you have decided to treat with electrical stimulation for her pain. What settings would you use?
a. 100 microseconds, 10 pps, sensory level
b. 50 microseconds, 100 pps, sensory level
c. 80 microsecon
b. 50 microseconds, 100 pps, sensory level
11. Why are modulations used?
a. To delay tolerance
b. To reduce accommodation
c. To reduce perception of the stimulus
d. A and B only
d. A and B only
12. Which of the following statements about conventional TENS is incorrect?
a. It is also referred to as high-rate TENS
b. It utilizes short-duration pulses
c. It uses high frequency, biphasic pulses
d. The primary pain-modulating effects occur while stim
e. all of the above
13. In order to avoid accommodation, which of the following electrical stimulation parameters can be modulated?
a. Frequency
b. Pulse duration
c. Amplitude
d. All of the above can be modulated
d. all of the above
14. Acupuncture-like TENS uses what pulse frequency?
a. 1 to 2 pps
b. 2 to 10 pps
c. >60 pps
d. None of the above
b. 2 to 10 pps
15. Which of the following combinations of pulse duration and frequency settings are within the typical range for conventional TENS?
a. 250 microseconds, 100 pps
b. 100 microseconds, 10 pps
c. 80 microseconds, 20 pps
d. 80 microseconds, 100 pps
d. 80 microseconds, 100 pps
16. What type of nerve fibers transmit pain?
a. A-delta
b. A-beta
c. C-fibers
d. All of the above
e. A and C only
e. A and C only
17. If a patient reports being unable to feel a current with 100 pps frequency during a TENS treatment, which of the following changes is most likely to produce a sensation?
a. Increasing the current amplitude
b. Increasing the frequency to 150 pps
c. Dec
a. Increasing the current amplitude
18. How long should low-rate TENS be applied?
a. 10 to 20 minutes
b. 20 to 30 minutes
c. 2 to 3 hours
d. For as long as the patient has pain
b. 20 to 30 minutes
19. Which of the following is true about electroacupuncture?
a. It applies electrodes on acupuncture points
b. It involves applying an electrical stimulus via acupuncture needles inserted into the body through the skin at acupuncture points
c. It has been
E. all of the above
20. Electrical stimulation may control pain by
a. Stimulating the production and release of endorphins
b. Stimulating the production and release of enkephalins
c. Interrupting the pain-spasm-pain cycle
d. All of the above
d. all of the above
1. Which drugs can be delivered by iontophoresis?
a. Lidocaine
b. Dexamethasone
c. Naproxen
d. Fentanyl
e. All of the above
e. all of the above
2. Which cells are attracted by the anode, or positively charged pole, during electrical stimulation?
a. Macrophages and inactive neutrophils
b. Lymphocytes and fibroblasts
c. Activated neutrophils and epidermal cells
d. Platelets and mast cells
a. Macrophages and inactive neutrophils
3. How strong is the evidence for using electrical stimulation for treating pressure ulcers?
a. There are no randomized controlled trials of this intervention
b. One study supports this intervention, but all other studies have not shown any benefit
c. Sys
c. Systematic reviews support that electrical stimulation promotes pressure ulcer healing
4. Attracting or repelling charged entities is known as
a. Cathode
b. Depolarization
c. Anode
d. Galvanotaxis
d. Galvanotaxis
5. Which of the following would be appropriate dose for iontophoresis?
a. 0.5 mA for 80 minutes
b. 1 mA for 20 minutes
c. 2 mA for 60 minutes
d. 4 mA for 30 minutes
a. 0.5 mA for 80 minutes
6. At what stage of wound healing is negative polarity electrical stimulation most likely to be effective?
a. When you need to attract macrophages and epidermal cells
b. If there is necrosis without inflammation
c. When the wound is infected or inflamed
d
c. When the wound is infected or inflamed
7. When treating edema due to lack of muscle contraction, what waveform is preferred?
a. HVPC
b. Pulsed biphasic
c. DC
d. Interferential
b. Pulsed biphasic
8. Current literature suggests medications used with iontophoresis penetrate tissues to what depth?
a. Less than 1 mm
b. 3 to 20 mm
c. 3 to 20 cm
d. 30 to 50 mm
b. 3 to 20 mm
9. Untreated chronic wounds can lead to which of the following?
a. Osteomyelitis
b. Leg amputations
c. Hypoproteinemia
d. All of the above
d. all of the above
10. A patient is being treated with iontophoresis with the negative electrode directly over the site to be treated. Which medication would not be appropriate for this patient?
a. Dexamethasone
b. Acetate
c. Lidocaine
d. Iodine
c. lidocaine
11. Electrical stimulation for wounds is usually covered by Medicare in which of the following circumstances?
a. Stage 2 pressure ulcer not responding to standard care in 30 days
b. Stage 3 pressure ulcer not responding to standard care in 30 days
c. Stag
b. Stage 3 pressure ulcer not responding to standard care in 30 days
12. Which one of the following statements about iontophoresis is true?
a. The administration of medication via iontophoresis does not require a physician prescription
b. The polarity of the delivery electrode should be opposite to the active ion in the me
c. To deliver a drug by iontophoresis it must be water soluble and ionize in water
13. Your patient complains of pain and has swelling at the right lateral ankle after an inversion sprain yesterday. You have chosen the following electrical stimulation parameters for treatment: monophasic PC with a fixed pulse duration of 70 microseconds
b. Decrease pain and retard edema formation
14. If initially using a negative polarity active electrode, when would most authors recommend switching to positive polarity?
a. When it shows signs of inflammation
b. After 3 to 7 days
c. When wound healing plateaus
d. Either B or C
d. either b or c
15. What parameters would be appropriate for treating edema due to inflammation?
a. HVPC, negative polarity, 120 pps, 75 microseconds, sensory level, 20 to 30 minutes
b. HVPC, positive polarity, 120 pps, 75 microseconds, sensory level, 20 to 30 minutes
c.
a. HVPC, negative polarity, 120 pps, 75 microseconds, sensory level, 20 to 30 minutes
16. What parameters would be appropriate for treating edema due to immobilization?
a. 5 pps, 75 microseconds, 5 seconds on, 5 seconds off, sensory level, 20 to 30 minutes
b. 50 pps, 75 microseconds, 2 seconds on, 2 seconds off, motor level, 20 to 30 minut
c. 35 pps, 150 microseconds, 2 seconds on, 2 seconds off, motor level, 20 to 30 minutes
17. Electrical stimulation is thought to help to heal wounds by which of the following mechanisms?
a. Increase synthesis of DNA and fibroblasts
b. Attracting and repelling certain cells and ions
c. Increasing protein synthesis
d. Increasing circulation
e.
e. all of the above
18. What configuration of electrodes is most appropriate for wound healing?
a. Two 3" round electrodes surrounding the wound and one dispersive 3" round electrode several inches away from the wound site
b. One electrode inside the wound and another smalle
c. One electrode inside the wound and another larger electrode several inches away
19. The most commonly used and researched waveform to promote wound healing is
a. Pulsed biphasic
b. High volt pulsed current
c. Alternating current
d. Russian
b. high volt pulsed current
20. When applying electrical stimulation for wound healing, what additional precautions should be taken?
a. Use new electrodes for each application when applying directly into a wound
b. Use protective covers for machines and lead wires
c. Be cautious whe
d. all of the above
1. Which modality would be contraindicated following an acute/initial injury?
a. Cryotherapy
b. Nonimmersion hydrotherapy (neutral warmth)
c. Thermotherapy
d. Static compression
c. thermotherapy
2. Which physical agents transfer energy to a patient to produce an increase or decrease in tissue temperature?
a. Mechanical agents
b. Electromagnetic agents
c. Thermal agents
d. None of the above
c. thermal agents
3. Name the three phases of healing, in the order they occur
a. Inflammatory phase, proliferative phase, maturation phase
b. Proliferative phase, maturation phase, inflammatory phase
c. Proliferative phase, inflammatory phase, maturation phase
d. Inflamma
a. Inflammatory phase, proliferative phase, maturation phase
1. Which type of pain is believed to involve overactivation of the sympathetic nervous system?
a. Referred pain
b. Complex regional pain syndrome
c. Chronic pain
d. Acute pain
b. complex regional pain syndrome
5. Which of the following conditions are generally contraindications for the application of a physical agent?
a. Impaired sensation or mentation
b. Pregnancy
c. Implanted electronic device
d. All of the above
d. all of the above
6. Hydrotherapy can be categorized as which type of modality?
a. Mechanical
b. Electromagnetic
c. Thermal
d. A and C
d. A and C
1. The gold standard of evidence-based practice is
a. The systematic review
b. The case report
c. The meta-analysis
d. The randomized controlled trial
d. RCT
2. Which of the following is not a requirement for cost-effective use of physical agents?
a. Knowing when physical agents can be an effective component of treatment
b. Treating only individuals
c. Adjusting the plan of care according to the findings of re
b. treating only individual
3. Physical agents are generally used in rehabilitation
a. As the sole intervention
b. In conjunction with other interventions
c. When other interventions are ineffective
d. As part of all therapy sessions
b. in conjunction with other interventions
4. PICO is a mnemonic device useful for remembering the quality of
a. A research question: population, intervention, comparison, outcome
b. Billing practices: patient, intervention, compensation, outcome
c. Patient care interactions: patient, interaction,
a. A research question: population, intervention, comparison, outcome
5. Which rehabilitation approach views functioning and disability as a complex dynamic interaction between the health condition of the individual and the contextual factors of the environment, as well as personal factors?
a. The nagi model
b. The ICIDH mo
c. the ICF model
6. Which of the following professionals apply physical agents?
a. PTs
b. OTs
c. ATs
d. All of the above
d. all of the above
1. Which statement about histamine is false?
a. It is released primarily by mast cells
b. Attracts red blood cells to the damaged tissue area
i. Histamine attracts leukocytes (WBCs) to the damaged tissue area
c. Causes vasodilation and increased vascular
b. Attracts red blood cells to the damaged tissue area
i. Histamine attracts leukocytes (WBCs) to the damaged tissue area
2. All of the following statements about the healing capacity of cartilage are true EXCEPT
a. Cartilage has limited ability to heal because it lacks lymphatics, nerves, and blood vessels
b. Injuries to both cartilage and subchondral bone heal better than
c. Healed cartilage has a normal proteoglycan content and is at no greater risk of injury before the injury
3. All of the following statements are true about edema EXCEPT
a. Transudate is made up of predominantly dissolved electrolytes and water
b. Exudate has a higher specific gravity than transudate because it has a higher protein concentration
c. The clinica
c. The clinical manifestation of edema is known as ecchymosis
i. Ecchymosis is a discoloration of the skin resulting from bleeding underneath the skin; commonly referred to as a bruise. Edema is an accumulation of excess watery fluid in body tissues.
4. All of the following statements about scar tissue are true EXCEPT
a. Keloid scars extend beyond the original boundaries of the injury and invade surrounding tissue
b. Hypertrophic scars are raised and remain within the margin of the wound
c. The treatm
c. The treatment of keloid scars through surgery, medication, and irradiation is generally successful
5. Which statement is true regarding healing by primary intention?
a. The wound can heal without wound contraction
b. The wound must undergo the process of wound contraction
c. The use of skin grafts facilitates healing
d. There is a significant tissue lo
a. The wound can heal without wound contraction
6. Which of the following defines margination?
a. Neutrophils squeezing through junctions in the blood vessel walls
b. Neutrophils breaking away from the central column and adhering to the endothelium
c. Neutrophils accumulating in layers along the endoth
c. Neutrophils accumulating in layers along the endothelium of the blood vessel
7. All of the following are cardinal signs of inflammation EXCEPT
a. Heat
b. Redness
c. Atrophy
d. Swelling
c. atrophy
8. All of the following statements about collagen are true EXCEPT
a. Fibroblasts initially produce type 3 collagen in the proliferative phase
b. During the proliferatie phase the injured area has the greatest amount of collagen
c. Type 1 collagen is repla
c. Type 1 collagen is replaced by type 3 collagen
i. Type 3 collagen is produced first and is then replaced by type 1 collagen to form a more mature and stronger healed wound
9. During the vascular response, capillary permeability is increased because of all of the following EXCEPT
a. Hageman factor
b. Histamine
c. Bradykinin
d. Fibronectin
i. Facilitates adherence of immune cells to vessel walls, it does not alter vascular pe
d. Fibronectin
i. Facilitates adherence of immune cells to vessel walls, it does not alter vascular permeability
10. Which of the following is the correct order of the stages of fracture healing?
a. Induction, impaction, inflammation, soft callus, hard callus, remodeling
b. Impaction, inflammation, induction, soft callus, hard callus, remodeling
c. Impaction, induct
c. Impaction, induction, inflammation, soft callus, hard callus, remodeling
11. Which of the following is characteristic of a soft callus following bone fracture?
a. It is visible on x-ray film until it is reabsorbed and replaced by hard callus
b. It remains until bony fragments are united by fibrous or cartilaginous tissue
c. It
b. It remains until bony fragments are united by fibrous or cartilaginous tissue
12. Which of the following can result in edema?
a. Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure
b. Increased interstitial osmotic pressure
c. An overwhelmed lymphatic system
d. All of the above
d. all of the above
13. A diet deficient in which of the following may result in decreased collagen synthesis?
a. Protein
b. Zinc
c. Magnesium
d. All of the above
d. all of the above
14. Local factors that can affect the healing response include all of the following EXCEPT
a. Disease
b. Size of the injury
c. Infection
d. Application of physical agents
a. disease
15. All of the following statements about prostaglandins are true EXCEPT
a. They are produced by nearly every cell in the body
b. Their synthesis is inhibited by both nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and corticosteroids
c. They are released i
d. They are active only in the inflammatory stage of healing
i. Prostaglandins are active in both the early and late stages of healing
16. Which of the following differentiates epithelialization from wound contraction?
a. Epithelialization pulls the edges of the wound together, shrinking the defect
b. Epithelialization covers the wound surface superficially
i. By covering the wound surfa
b. Epithelialization covers the wound surface superficially
i. By covering the wound surface, epithelialization provides a barrier to fluid and electrolyte loss and decreases risk of infection. It does not, however, impart significant strength to the woun
17. Given the length of the scar maturation phase, treatment of scars is appropriate
a. For the first 4 months
b. For up to 6 months
c. For up to 12 months
d. For up to 24 months
d. for up to 24 months
18. When considering optimal tendon healing, which of the following treatments is most appropriate?
a. Maximal stretch of the tendon to prevent shortening
b. Immobilization of the tendon repair for 2 months to allow for optimal healing
c. Early gentle pas
c. Early gentle passive ROM to promote optimal orientation of the collagen fibrils
19. According to the "picture frame" theory, which of the following statements about wound closure is true?
a. Linear wounds with one narrow dimension heal more rapidly than square or circular wounds
b. Square or rectangular wounds heal more rapidly than
a. Linear wounds with one narrow dimension heal more rapidly than square or circular wounds
20. Which of the following is the sequence of events during the vascular response to tissue injury?
a. Migration, margination, pavementing, emigration
b. Margination, pavementing, migration, emigration
c. Emigration, migration, margination, pavementing
d.
a. Migration, margination, pavementing, emigration
1. Physical agents may be used to control pain by all of the following mechanisms EXCEPT
a. Moderating the release of inflammatory mediators.
b. Increasing opiopeptin levels.
c. Altering nerve conduction.
d. Completely blocking nociceptive transmission.
d. Completely blocking nociceptive transmission.
2. The pain transmitted by C fibers generally
a. Has a fast onset after the initial painful stimulus.
b. Is well localized.
c. Is rarely accompanied by autonomic responses such as sweating, increased heart rate, and increased blood pressure.
d. Is long la
d. is long lasting
3. Which tool is most appropriate for localizing the area and nature of a patient's symptoms?
a. Visual analog scale
b. Comparison with a predefined stimulus
c. Body diagram
d. Semantic differential scale
c. body diagram
4. Which of the following is least likely to cause nociceptor activation?
a. Displaced fracture
b. Post-surgical edema
c. Vibration associated with removing cast
d. Poorly insulated hot pack
c. Vibration associated with removing cast
5. Comprehensive pain management programs generally focus on
a. Eliminating the sensation of pain, increasing physical activity, and involving the patient's family.
b. Teaching the patient coping skills, increasing physical activity, and involving the pat
b. Teaching the patient coping skills, increasing physical activity, and involving the patient's family.
6. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) include all of the following EXCEPT
a. Aspirin
b. Ibuprofen
c. Acetaminophen
d. Naproxen sodium
c. acetaminophen
7. Inhibiting nociceptive signals at the spinal cord by nonnociceptive inputs is the mechanism behind which pain theory?
a. Endogenous opioid theory
b. Gate control theory
c. Central sensitization theory
d. Central biasing theory
b. gate control theory
8. All of the following types of pharmacological agents are used to control pain EXCEPT
a. Opiates
b. NSAIDs
c. Naloxone
d. Antidepressants
c. naloxone
9. When working with a patient who presents with chronic pain, the therapist should consider which of the following:
a. A multidisciplinary program to improve function and pain
b. Coaching the patient on breathing exercises to work through the pain experi
a. A multidisciplinary program to improve function and pain
10. Which tool is most appropriate for obtaining detailed quantifiable information about a patient's pain?
a. Visual analog scale
b. Comparison with a predefined stimulus
c. Body diagram
d. Semantic differential scale
d. semantic differential scale
11. How is peripheral neuropathic pain best identified?
a. Perceived as sharp, pricking, or tingling and is well localized
b. Usually is dull, heavy, or aching and is diffuse
c. Waxes and wanes and tends to be superficial
d. Burning, tingling, or shooting
d. burning, tingling, or shooting
12. Which of the following statements about nociceptors is/are true? 1. They are free nerve endings in almost all types of tissue. 2. They can be activated by mechanical, thermal, and/or chemical stimuli. 3. They can produce action potentials
a. 1 only
b.
d. 1,2,and 3
13. Which of the following statements is true?
a. Physical agents can be an effective component of the treatment of both acute and chronic pain.
b. Physical agents should only be used for treating acute pain.
c. Physical agents always increase the cost of
a. Physical agents can be an effective component of the treatment of both acute and chronic pain.
14. Which of the following is NOT a teaching of cognitive-behavioral therapy?
a. Perform activities more slowly.
b. Divert one's attention away from pain to focus on participation in life activities.
c. "Hurt does not necessarily equal harm."
d. Increase
d. Increase tolerance to exercise by rapidly breaking through the pain and quickly moving to higher levels of sustained exercise.
15. Elevated levels of substance P
a. Are associated with a reduced sensation of pain.
b. Are associated with an increased sensation of pain.
c. Cause an increase in heart rate.
d. Cause a decrease in heart rate.
b. Are associated with an increased sensation of pain.
16. Which of the following transmit the sensation of pain from the periphery to the spinal cord?
a. Small unmyelinated A-delta fibers and small unmyelinated C fibers
b. Small myelinated A-delta fibers and small unmyelinated C fibers
c. Large myelinated A-
b. Small myelinated A-delta fibers and small unmyelinated C fibers
17. Acute pain is generally
a. Less than 30 days' duration, relates to a specific injury, transmitted by C fibers.
b. Less than 30 days' duration, relates to a specific injury, transmitted by A-delta fibers.
c. 3-6 months' duration, pain has outlasted tis
b. Less than 30 days' duration, relates to a specific injury, transmitted by A-delta fibers.
18. Naloxone reverses the effects of
a. Substance P
b. Sympathetic nervous system activation.
c. Parasympathetic nervous system activation.
d. Opioids.
d. opiods
19. The transmission of pain at the spinal cord may be inhibited by increased activity of
a. A-delta nerves
b. C fibers
c. T nerves
d. A-beta nerves
d. A-beta nerves
20. Which tool is most appropriate for quickly estimating a patient's perceived progress or change in severity of symptoms over time?
a. Visual analog scale
b. Comparsion with a predefined stimulus
c. Body diagram
d. Semantic differential scale
a. VAS
1. To prevent overheating from a conductive agent during a thermotherapy session, therapists typically
a. Remove outer garments so that excess heat can be quickly dissipated.
b. Have the patient drink ice water during the session to counterbalance the eff
c. Remove any jewelry in contact with skin in the treatment area.
2. Which of the following modes of heat transfer does NOT require an intervening medium?
a. Radiation
b. Conduction
c. Convection
d. Evaporation
a. radiation
3. During conduction, heat is transferred from the material at the higher temperature to the material at the lower temperature as a result of
a. Absorption of cold energy as a sponge soaks up water.
b. Direct collision between molecules causing accelerati
b. Direct collision between molecules causing acceleration.
4. During conduction, heat is transferred
a. Only from the physical agent to the patient.
b. Until both the physical agent and the superficial tissues are of equal temperatures.
c. If both the physical agent and the superficial tissue are of equal tempera
b. Until both the physical agent and the superficial tissues are of equal temperatures.
5. All of the following statements about evaporation are true EXCEPT
a. Vapocoolant sprays are converted to vapor by the warmth of skin.
b. High humidity will decrease the effectiveness of sweating as a cooling mechanism.
c. The temperature of evaporation
c. The temperature of evaporation for sweat is below that of normal skin temperature.
6. All of the following are examples of heat transfer by convection EXCEPT
a. Whirlpool
b. Fluidotherapy
c. Ultrasound
d. Blood circulation
c. ultrasound
1. When applying IR radiation using an IR lamp, the therapist should do all of the following EXCEPT
a. Ensure that the part being treated does not move relative to its position to the lamp.
b. Ensure that both the patient and the therapist wear IR goggles
d. Cover the area to be treated with a towel.
2. All of the following effects can be achieved by applying cold to tissues EXCEPT
a. Immediate vasoconstriction.
b. Decreased blood viscosity
c. Increased pain threshold
d. Reduced edema
b. Decreased blood viscosity
3. When employing cryokinetics, which one of the following is the full and correct sequence of treatment?
a. Cold is applied before exercise for pain control.
b. Patient performs stretching or strengthening exercises for 3 to 5 minutes, then cold is appli
d. Cold is applied for 20 minutes or until the patient reports numbness, the patient performs stretching or strengthening for 3 to 5 minutes, and cold is reapplied until the patient reports numbness.
4. Cryotherapy most effectively controls edema caused by
a. Immobilization
b. Poor circulation
c. Acute inflammation
d. Chronic inflammation
c. acute inflammation
5. A patient being treated with cryotherapy is most likely to experience which of the following sequences of sensations?
a. Intense cold, aching, burning, analgesia
b. Intense cold, tingling, analgesia
c. Intense cold, burning, aching, analgesia
d. Intens
c. Intense cold, burning, aching, analgesia
6. Cryotherapy most effectively reduces spasticity
a. When applied for a few seconds
b. When applied for 5 to 10 minutes
c. When applied for 10 to 30 minutes
d. Only after 1 to 1.5 hours of exposure
c. when applied for 10-30 min
7. For maximum efficiency and safety when using hot packs, do all of the following EXCEPT
a. Maintain the hot pack in water temperatures of 113� to 122� F.
b. Maintain the hot pack in the appropriate water temperature for at least 30 minutes before treatm
a. Maintain the hot pack in water temperatures of 113� to 122� F.
8. Which of the following is a mechanism of pain control using thermotherapy?
a. Direct blockade of cutaneous pain receptors
b. Reduced blood flow to and inflammation of the painful area
c. Gating of the transmission of pain by activating cutaneous thermo
c. Gating of the transmission of pain by activating cutaneous thermoreceptors
9. Cryotherapy is most effective in slowing nerve impulses transmitted by
a. Unmyelinated nerve fibers.
b. Large nerve fibers.
c. C fibers.
d. A-delta fibers.
d. a-delta fibers
10. To produce the greatest increase in tissue extensibility, within safe ranges, tissue temperature should be elevated to
a. 101� to 103� F
b. 104� to 113� F
c. 110� to 120� F
d. 120� to 126� F
b. 104-113
11. Which of the following effects can be achieved by applying heat to tissues?
a. Vasodilation, increased collagen extensibility, decreased pain
b. Vasodilation, decreased collagen extensibility, decreased pain
c. Vasoconstriction, increased collagen ext
a. Vasodilation, increased collagen extensibility, decreased pain
12. Which of the following statements about the area of tissue heated by a superficial heat source is true?
a. Only the tissue coming into direct contact with the heat source will be warmed.
b. The tissue coming into direct contact with the heat source an
b. The tissue coming into direct contact with the heat source and tissue adjacent to it will be warmed, but heat will not penetrate to the level of deep muscles.
13. All of the following statements about treatment with infrared (IR) radiation are true EXCEPT
a. Sources of IR radiation include the sun, IR lamps, and low-intensity lasers.
b. The patient's report is used to determine if the appropriate amount of heat
d. Lighter skin will absorb more radiation than darker skin.
14. Heat has which of the following effects on muscle strength?
a. None
b. Increases muscle strength directly following the application of heat
c. Decreases muscle strength directly following the application of heat
d. Decreases muscle strength 1 to 3 hou
c. Decreases muscle strength directly following the application of heat
1. Which of the following increases the risk of burning with superficial thermotherapy?
a. A patient reports that he is not feeling sufficient warmth following the application of hot packs with eight towel layers, thus two are removed by the therapist.
b.
d. A,B, and C
16. In which of the following scenarios would the application of a controlled cold compression pump be MOST appropriate?
a. Muscle spasm of the upper trapezius
b. Following surgical repair of a proximal tibial fracture that is stable
c. Following a repair
b. Following surgical repair of a proximal tibial fracture that is stable
17. In which of the following cases is the application of an ice or cold pack LEAST desirable?
a. Acute inflammation following a ligamentous injury at the MCP joint of the thumb
b. Inflammation associated with carpal tunnel syndrome
c. Spasm of the extens
b. Inflammation associated with carpal tunnel syndrome
18. IR radiation lamps available to clinicians are
a. IR-A lamps with wavelengths between 780 and 1400 nm.
b. IR-B lamps with wavelengths between 1400 and 3000 nm.
c. IR-C lamps with wavelengths between 3000 and 1 nm
d. Both A and B
a. IR-A lamps with wavelengths between 780 and 1400 nm.
19. Which of the following treatment scenarios will prove MOST effective for increasing muscle length?
a. Waiting 15 minutes after the application of heat before stretching
b. The application of heat before and during stretching
c. The application of heat
b. The application of heat before and during stretching
20. In which of the following cases is superficial thermotherapy LEAST appropriate?
a. A pregnant female who is being treated for joint stiffness following a 5th metacarpal head fracture
b. A patient with stiffness in the elbow motion following a fall, wi
b. A patient with stiffness in the elbow motion following a fall, without associated
1. What are the ideal treatment parameters for using ultrasound before stretching shortened soft tissue?
a. 3 MHz, 0.5 to 1.0 W/cm�, pulsed 20%
b. 0.15 to 0.25 W/cm�, pulsed 20%
c. 1 to 2 W/cm�, continuous
d. 0.5 W/cm�, pulsed 20%
c. 1 to 2 W/cm�, continuous
2. The nonthermal effects of ultrasound are thought to be caused by
a. Stable cavitation, microstreaming, and acoustic streaming.
b. Unstable cavitation, microstreaming, and acoustic streaming.
c. Stable cavitation, microstreaming, and increased tissue ex
a. Stable cavitation, microstreaming, and acoustic streaming.
3. Which of the following statements about pulsed ultrasound is true?
a. It is focused more superficially.
b. It is focused more deeply.
c. It has more thermal effect.
d. It minimizes temperature increase.
i. Low-intensity pulsed ultrasound, which produce
d. It minimizes temperature increase.
i. Low-intensity pulsed ultrasound, which produces primarily nonthermal effects, facilitates tissue healing, modifies inflammation, and enhances transdermal drug delivery. The depth of the ultrasound is not affected b
4. For optimal effect, it is recommended that stretching be applied
a. Before heating by US and be discontinued within 4 minutes of starting US application
b. During heating by US and be maintained for 5 to 10 minutes after US application while the tissue
b. During heating by US and be maintained for 5 to 10 minutes after US application while the tissue is cooling
5. Attenuation of ultrasound is caused by all of the following EXCEPT
a. Refraction
b. Repulsion
c. Absorption
d. Reflection
b. repulsion
6. Which one of the following accurately describes the cause: effect relationship of ultrasound?
a. Increased frequency: increased depth of penetration
b. Increased frequency: decreased depth of penetration
c. Increased blood flow: greater temperature inc
b. Increased frequency: decreased depth of penetration
7. What are the ideal treatment parameters for using ultrasound to treat pain via stimulation of cutaneous thermal receptors?
a. 3 MHz, 0.5 to 1.0 W/cm�, pulsed 20%
b. 1 MHz, 0.15 to 0.25 W/cm�, pulsed 20%
c. 3 MHz, 0.5 W/cm�, continuous
d. 1 MHz, 2.0 to
c. 3 MHz, 0.5 W/cm�, continuous
8. All of the following are desired effects of ultrasound EXCEPT
a. Blood cell stasis
b. Increased cell membrane permeability
c. Mast cell degranulation
d. Increased collagen synthesis
a. blood cell stasis
9. What are the ideal treatment parameters for using ultrasound to treat pressure ulcers?
a. 3 MHz, 0.5 to 1.0 W/cm^2, pulsed 20%
b. 0.15 to 0.25 W/cm^2, pulsed 20%
c. 1 to 3 W/cm^2, continuous
d. 0.5 W/cm^2, continuous
a. 3 MHz, 0.5 to 1.0 W/cm^2, pulsed 20%
10. What is the most common adverse effect of ultrasound?
a. Damage to blood vessels
b. Burn
c. Infection
d. Unstable cavitation
b. burn
11. All of the following statements about phonophoresis are true EXCEPT
a. Hydrocortisone preparations tend to transmit ultrasound poorly
b. A therapist must know what other drugs a patient is taking before treating with phonophoresis
c. US enhances drug
c. US enhances drug delivery by exerting pressure on the drug, thus pushing the drug through the skin
12. When using ultrasound for its thermal effects, what is the range of tissue temperature you should try to achieve?
a. 35� to 38� C
b. 38� to 40� C
c. 40� to 45� C
d. 45� to 50� C
c. 40� to 45� C
13. Which of the following statements is true given the SAME ultrasound intensity in all cases?
a. 3 MHz frequency will penetrate deeper than 1 MHz and temperature elevation will be greater
b. 3 MHz frequency will penetrate deeper than 1 MHz although temp
d. 1 MHz frequency will penetrate deeper than 3 MHz although temperature elevation will be less.
14. What are the ideal treatment parameters for using ultrasound to modulate inflammation?
a. 3 MHz, 1.5 to 3.0 W/cm�, continuous
b. 0.15 to 0.25 W/cm�, pulsed 20%
c. 1 to 3 MHz, 0.5 to 1.00 W/cm�, pulsed 20%
d. 0.5 W/cm�, continuous
c. 1 to 3 MHz, 0.5 to 1.00 W/cm�, pulsed 20%
15. Regarding the use of ultrasound with children, which of the following statements is true?
a. Ultrasound should never be used on persons under 21 years of age.
b. Radiographic evaluation should be used to confirm epiphyseal closure before using ultraso
b. Radiographic evaluation should be used to confirm epiphyseal closure before using ultrasound with adolescents.
16. Regarding the use of ultrasound for fracture healing, which one of the following statements is true?
a. Ultrasound should not be applied over unhealed fractures.
b. Low-dose ultrasound can promote fracture healing.
c. Continuous ultrasound at high int
b. Low-dose ultrasound can promote fracture healing.
17. Which statement about how tissues are heated using ultrasound is true?
a. Heat is transferred by conduction via the transducer.
b. Heat is transferred by convection via the transducer.
c. Heat accumulates in tissues by conversion of kinetic energy.
d.
c. Heat accumulates in tissues by conversion of kinetic energy.
18. To penetrate deeper tissues using ultrasound
a. Use a lower frequency.
b. Use a lower intensity.
c. Use a pulsed setting.
d. Perform ultrasound under water.
a. use a lower frequency
19. The effective radiating area of the sound head is
a. Equal to the size of the sound head.
b. Always greater than the size of the sound head.
c. Always smaller than the size of the sound head.
d. Equal to the length of the near field of the ultrasound.
c. Always smaller than the size of the sound head.
20. Which of the following is the LEAST effective method for determining if continuous ultrasound is reaching therapeutic levels?
a. Have a baseline for desired outcome and measure following treatment
b. Check to be sure that the settings are on the appro
b. Check to be sure that the settings are on the appropriate frequency and at the highest intensity recommended for the tissue being treated
1. Using inductive coils, the magnetic field strength of diathermy:
a. Is determined by the tissue type
b. Decreases in relation to the distance from the tissue.
c. Does not affect the amount of heat generated
d. Does not affect induced eddy currents
b. Decreases in relation to the distance from the tissue.
2. PSWD increases microvascular perfusion:
a. Around the ulcer site in patients with diabetic ulcers
3. Which of the following statements about burns caused by diathermy is true?
a. Towels can be used to keep skin dry and reduce the risk of burns
4. Which of the following statements about use of diathermy for patients with obesity is true?
a. Diathermy should be used with caution because it may heat fat excessively and capacitive applicators should not be used
5. Most nonthermal PSWD treatments are usually applied:
a. For 30-60 min, once or twice daily
b. For 5 minutes, 2x/wk
c. Using parameters from high-quality large RCT
d. While the patient is under cardiac monitoring to achieve optimal safety
a. For 30-60 min, once or twice daily
6. Which of the following statements about PSWD is true?
a. PSWD is more effective than compression, immobilization, and medications in the control of pain and edema
b. Electronic devices tend to cause interference that is damaging to the diathermy applic
c. In special circumstances, PSWD may be applied cautiously if the patient has non looping metal implants
7. Capacitive plate diathermy:
a. Makes pt. Part of electric circuit
b. Heats using convection
a. Makes pt. Part of electric circuit
8. Which one of the following statements is true?:
a. Shortwave diathermy can form standing waves
b. Shortwave diathermy concentrates heat in tissues with high fluid content
c. Short wave diathermy is contraindicated over bony prominences
d. Shortwave dia
b. Shortwave diathermy concentrates heat in tissues with high fluid content
9. Comparing heating with shortwave diathermy using capacitive plates to heating with shortwave diathermy using inductive coils, which of the following is true?
a. Capacitive plates heat deeper tissues more effectively
b. Inductive coils heat deeper tissu
b. Inductive coils heat deeper tissues more effectively
10. The pattern of energy and heat distribution by both SWD and MWD:
a. Are difficult to predict
b. Are influenced by reflection
c. Are influenced by the tissue composition
d. All of the above
d. all of the above
11. The physiologic effects of increasing tissue temperature include:
a. Decreased pain tolerance
b. Vasoconstriction
c. Faster nerve conduction
d. Blocking enzymatic activity
c. faster nerve conduction
12. Which of the following statements about heating by diathermy is true?
a. Diathermy produces thermal effects in more superficial tissues
b. Even higher frequencies of diathermy are incapable of heating the skin
c. Capacitive plate application will conc
c. Capacitive plate application will concentrate in superficial tissues compared to inductive applicators
13. Pulsed SWD has been found to
a. Inhibit production of cellular growth factors
b. Reduce the presence of macrophages
c. Produce changes in myosin phosphorylation
d. All of the above
c. Produce changes in myosin phosphorylation
14. When applied at sufficient power to increase tissue temperature, what advantages does SWD have over other thermal agents?
a. It can heat a larger area than US
b. It heats deeper tissue than hot packs
c. It doesn't concentrate at the periosteum
d. All
d. all of the above
15. Which of the following factors is LEAST likely to place a patient at risk for burns when receiving SWD tx?
a. Obesity
b. Heavy perspiration
c. A cast
d. Looping metal implants
c. a cast
16. Which of the following is a potential benefit of continuous diathermy?
a. Deep heating
b. Tanning
c. Thickening of the stratum corneum
d. Increased swelling and pain
a. deep heating
17. Which of the following statements is true?
a. Microwave diathermy heats tissue by applying electrostatic forces to dielectric material
b. Microwave diathermy reaches deeper tissue than SWD
c. Microwave diathermy delivers energy using a magnetron
d. Mi
c. Microwave diathermy delivers energy using a magnetron
18. Which of the following requires that the therapist be in direct contact with the patient throughout the application of the treatment?
a. SWD
b. MD
c. Capacity plates
d. None of the above
d. none of the above
19. When treating a pregnant patient...
a. Diathermy is an appropriate therapy that is proven safe for fetal development
b. Diathermy is contraindicated due to concerns for affecting fetal development
c. Use only thermal level diathermy for optimal safety
b. Diathermy is contraindicated due to concerns for affecting fetal development
20. Which of the following statements about diathermy and the eyes is true?
a. Diathermy should never be used on or near the eyes
b. Opaque goggles should always be worn by the patient and therapist during diathermy use on any part of the body
c. The ther
a. Diathermy should never be used on or near the eyes
1. When or where is laser tx contraindicated?
a. Directly over the eyes
b. Within 4-6 mo after radiotherapy
c. In hemorrhaging regions
d. All of the above
d. all of the above
2. All of the following statements about the power of a laser are true EXCEPT
a. The power classifies lasers into class 1 through 4 according to international standards.
b. Lasers used in therapy have individual diode power rated at between 5 and 500 mW.
c. The laser power classes also apply to LEDs and SLDs.
3. For which of the following conditions is UV radiation most likely to be used today?
a. Arthritis
b. Cutaneous TB
c. Psoriasis
d. Open wounds
c. psoriasis
4. All of the following types of electromagnetic radiation are non ionizing and may be sued in rehab settings EXCEPT
a. Gamma rays
b. Microwaves
c. Short waves
d. Infrared radiation
a. gamma rays
5. All of the following increase tissue temperature EXCEPT ....
a. UV radiation
b. IR radiation
c. SWD
d. MD
a. UV radiation
6. Which of the following is NOT a concern when applying UV radiation?
a. Prior UV exposure
b. Medication use
c. Distance of the lamp from the patient
d. Heat tolerance
d. tolerance
7. For post-mastectomy lymphedema, studies have shown that laser therapy
a. Is ineffective
b. Is effective for reducing limb volume and pain and increasing ROM
c. Is less effective than self-instigated approaches
d. None of the above
b. Is effective for reducing limb volume and pain and increasing ROM
8. A patient has been treated with medication that has the side effect of photosensitizing his skin. The therapist should...
a. Avoid using UV therapy
b. Avoid all light and laser therapy on the skin
c. Check sensation in the tx area using hot and cold ob
a. avoid using UV therapy
9. Penetration is deepest for radiation with which of the following characteristics?
a. The highest intensity, longest wavelength, and highest frequency
b. The highest intensity, shortest wavelength, and lowest frequency
c. The highest intensity, longest
c. The highest intensity, longest wavelength, and lowest frequency
10. What are the characteristics of laser radiation?
a. Monochromatic, divergent, noncoherent
b. Directional, coherent, polychromatic
c. Monochromatic, directional, coherent
d. Divergent, coherent, polychromatic
c. Monochromatic, directional, coherent
11. Which of the following statements about the production of ATP are true?
a. It is primarily produced by macrophages in the cell.
b. ATP production is thought to be the primary contributor to many of the clinical benefits of laser and light therapy.
c.
b. ATP production is thought to be the primary contributor to many of the clinical benefits of laser and light therapy.
12. The use of hot lasers for surgery
a. began with ophthalmologists who used lasers to "weld" detached retinas back in place.
b. cauterizes while it cuts.
c. provides a narrow, sterile beam.
d. All of the above
d. all of the above
13. What is the power and class power range for most laser diodes used in therapy?
a. Less than 5 mW; class 3A
b. Less than 1 mW; class 2
c. Greater than 500; class 4
d. Between 5 and 500 mW; class 3B
d. Between 5 and 500 mW; class 3B
14. Which of the following statements about ultraviolet (UV) radiation is true
a. Heats by convection
b. Necessary for vit. D synthesis
c. Heats by conduction
d. Causes epidermal thinning
b. Necessary for vit. D synthesis
15. Which of the following are potential adverse effects to lasers and light therapy?
a. Transient tingling
b. Skin rash
c. Burning sensation
d. All of the above
d. all of the above
16. Laser therapy has been shown to modulate inflammation by
a. activating T and B cells, enhancing their ability to bind bacteria.
b. promoting mast cell degranulation.
c. stimulating various cells and mediators of healing.
d. All of the above
d. all of the above
17. What is the most important consideration when protecting the eyes during the use of laser tx?
a. Sunglasses provide enough eye protection.
b. Any opaque goggles are sufficient to protect the eyes.
c. Opaque goggles that are specific to the wavelength
c. Opaque goggles that are specific to the wavelength of the device used should be worn.
18. The intensity of any type of electromagnetic radiation that reaches the patient from a radiation source is proportional to...
a. the energy output from the source.
b. the inverse square of the distance of the source from the patient.
c. the cosine of
d. all of the above
19. Which of the following statements about the history of UV therapy are true?
a. Prehistoric man believed that cave dwelling drives out evil spirits from the sun.
b. Physicians of ancient Greece and Rome denounced sunbathing as harmful to the body.
c. S
c. Sunlight regained popularity after it was found to be effective against rickets and tuberculosis.
20. Power density is defined as:
a. the rate of energy flow.
b. proportional to the angle of incidence to the target surface.
c. measured in milliwatts per centimeter squared.
d. the amount of electricity generated by the laser per unit time.
c. measured in milliwatts per centimeter squared.
1. Which of the following is true:
a. Greater traction forces are needed to elongate soft tissues of the spine than to cause joint distraction.
b. Lower traction forces are needed to elongate soft tissues of the spine than to cause joint distraction.
c. T
b. Lower traction forces are needed to elongate soft tissues of the spine than to cause joint distraction.
2. Spinal traction is appropriate for all of the following EXCEPT...
a. to provide low-level distraction to the spine for pain control.
b. to increase the size of the neural foramen to reduce symptoms associated with spinal nerve root compression.
c. to p
c. to provide maintained traction to reduce paraspinal muscle spasm.
3. Which of the following is true...
a. Traction is a recommended treatment for patients with neurological deficits from spinal nerve root impingement.
b. Arm pain caused by cervical nerve root impingement can limit cervical lateral flexion and rotation t
d. a and b only
4. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of mechanical traction?
a. Time consuming to set up
b. Does not require the clinician to be with the patient throughout treatment
c. Mobilizes broad regions of the spine rather than individual segments
d. Be
b. Does not require the clinician to be with the patient throughout treatment
5. What is the suggested hold/ relax time for tx of a disc problem with intermittent traction?
a. Only static traction should be used in this scenario.
b. 15 seconds hold and 15 seconds relax
c. 60 seconds hold and 20 seconds relax
d. 5 seconds hold and 5
c. 60 seconds hold and 20 seconds relax
6. After the application of traction
a. the patient should immediately return to normal activities.
b. the patient should rest in bed for 2 to 3 days.
c. stabilization exercises should be discontinued.
d. the patient should be instructed in good posture a
d. the patient should be instructed in good posture and body mechanics.
7. A patient with severe pain who is receiving spinal traction for nerve root impingement experiences complete relief from pain. What should the therapist do next?
a. Document the exact setup so that another therapist will be able to reproduce the treatme
c. Document the outcome, examine the patient, and discontinue spinal traction.
8. In patients with tumor, RA, or prolonged systemic steroid use...
a. Traction can be used to improve orientation
b. Traction is the best tx for prevention of osteoporosis
c. Manual traction is more appropriate than mechanical traction
d. Traction remove
c. Manual traction is more appropriate than mechanical traction
9. Which of the following is an advantage of positional traction therapy?
a. It exerts a strong enough force to cause joint distraction, thereby relieving muscle spasm.
b. It can be used as part of home therapy when symptoms are severe and irritable.
c. I
b. It can be used as part of home therapy when symptoms are severe and irritable.
10. Clinical indications for the use of spinal traction include all of the following EXCEPT...
a. nerve root impingement.
b. paraspinal muscle spasm.
c. below-average height.
d. disc bulge.
c. below-average height.
11. In which of the following situations is traction generally ineffective?
a. Small lateral disc herniations
b. Large disc herniations that fill the spinal canal
c. Disc protrusion without calcification
d. Cervical disc-related symptoms
b. Large disc herniations that fill the spinal canal
12. Patient reports an increase of symptoms down the right arm with mechanical cervial traction. How should the therapist address this finding?
a. Decrease the traction force and continue treatment even if symptoms continue.
b. Discontinue the treatment.
b. Discontinue the treatment.
13. Patients with indications for lumbar traction who also have claustrophobia may benefit more from..
a. mechanical lumbar traction.
b. traction with greater use of pressure belts.
c. traction with greater force applied.
d. positional traction.
d. positional traction
114. When applying either constant traction or intermittent traction, the therapist typically does NOT need to document
a. area of the body where traction is applied.
b. maximum force.
c. relax time.
d. presence of clicks and other sounds during therapy.
d. presence of clicks and other sounds during therapy.
15. Traction application techniques recommended and available for current use include...
a. weighted mechanical traction, self-traction, electric traction.
b. inversion traction, weighted mechanical traction, self-traction.
c. inversion traction, auto-tra
a. weighted mechanical traction, self-traction, electric traction.
16. According to cyriax, traction decreases disc protrusions by...
a. decreasing intradiscal pressure to produce suction and pull displaced parts of the disc back toward the center.
b. increasing intradiscal pressure to push displaced parts of the disc ba
a. decreasing intradiscal pressure to produce suction and pull displaced parts of the disc back toward the center.
17. During traction...
a. positioning the lumbar spine in flexion localizes the force to the lower lumbar spine. Positioning the cervical spine in flexion localizes the force to the upper cervical area.
b. positioning the lumbar spine in flexion localizes
c. positioning the lumbar spine in flexion localizes the force to the upper lumbar and lower thoracic spine. Positioning the cervical spine in flexion localizes the force to the lower cervical area.
18. Which of the following parameters is most appropriate for cervical spinal traction to decrease muscle spasm when the patient is being treated for the first time?
a. 25% body weight, static traction, 5- to 10-minute treatment
b. 50% body weight, static
c. 5- to 7-kg force, 5-second hold and relax time, 5- to 10-minute treatment
19. Contraindications to the use of traction include all of the following EXCEPT
a. chronic injury or inflammation.
b. condition in which motion is contraindicated.
c. uncontrolled hypertension.
d. joint instability.
a. chronic injury or inflammation.
20. Before application of lumbar spinal traction, the patient should be instructed to prepare for the tx session by doing which of the following?
a. use the toilet to empty the bladder.
b. avoid eating heavily.
c. Try to avoid sneezing and coughing.
d. Al
d. All of the above instructions should be given to the patient.
1. DVT formation is most common in:
a. Very active patients after an endurance event
b. Immobilized patients after surgery
c. Patients with arterial insufficiency
d. Patients with lymphedema
b. Immobilized patients after surgery
2. Compression garments used to minimize hypertrophic scarring should provide approximately:
a. 5-10 mmHg of pressure
b. 20-30 mmHg of pressure
c. 30-50 mmHg of pressure
d. Greater than 200 mmHg of pressure
b. 20-30 mmHg of pressure
3. The functions of compression include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Control of peripheral edema
b. Prevent DVT formation
c. Shape limb after amputation
d. Facilitate the healing of ulcers caused by arterial insufficiency
d. Facilitate the healing of ulcers caused by arterial insufficiency
4. All of the following are risk factors for DVT formation EXCEPT:
a. Pregnancy
b. Varicose veins
c. Excessive exercise
d. Older age
c. excessive exercise
5. Which of the following is the correct sequence of lymphatic fluid flow in the UE?
a. From the veins to the lymphatic capillaries to the interstitial space to the subclavian veins back to the venous circulation
b. From the veins to the subclavian veins
c. From the veins to the interstitial space to the lymphatic capillaries to the subclavian veins back to the venous circulation
6. When should compression garments be replaced?
a. About every 6 mo
b. When there is a change in limb size
c. Both a and b
d. Neither A nor B because garments are highly flexible and can be adjusted to accommodate changes
c. both a and b
7. To modify scar formation, compression garments should be worn
a. All day but not a night when sleeping
b. For 6 to 9 hours a day
c. At night when sleeping but not during the day
d. 24 hrs/ day, except when bathing
d. 24 hrs/ day, except when bathing
8. For treatment of edema and venous stasis ulcers with intermittent compression pumps, inflation time is generally...
a. Greater than deflation time
b. Equal to deflation time
c. Less than deflation time
d. Dependent on the amount of edema
a. Greater than deflation time
9. Which of the following is a serious complication of a DVT formation
a. Pulmonary embolism
b. Death
c. Post-thrombotic syndrome
d. All of the above
a. all of the above
10. In the lymphatic vessels and the veins
a. forward fluid flow is propelled primarily by valves within the vessels and back flow of fluid is prevented by muscle contractions.
b. forward fluid flow is prevented primarily by muscle contractions and back f
d. forward fluid flow is propelled primarily by muscle contractions and back flow of fluid is prevented by valves within the vessels.
11. ID the correct combination:
a. High stretch bandage: High working pressure. High stretch bandage: Low resting pressure.
b. High stretch bandage: Low resting pressure. Low stretch bandage: High working pressure.
c. High stretch bandage: High resting pr
c. High stretch bandage: High resting pressure. Low stretch bandage: High working pressure.
12. Lymphedema from secondary causes include all of the following:
a. Milroy's disease
b. Obstruction by a tumor
c. Removal of lymph nodes
d. Obstruction by inflammation
a. Milroy's disease
13. Which of the following may result in edema?
a. Increased extravasation of fluid into the interstitial space
b. Reduced flow of venous blood
c. Reduced flow of lymph back toward the heart
d. All of the above
d. all of the above
14. When applying intermittent compression pumps to reduce or prevent edema, the therapist should do all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Cover open wounds with gauze or appropriate dressing
b. Measure and record BP
c. Measure and record limb circumference bef
d. Select a compression sleeve just sufficient to cover the edematous or involved section of the limb
15. Compression with less than 30 mmHg of force is recommended:
a. To prevent DVT formation in an ambulatory patient
b. To prevent fibrotic edema related to lymphedema
c. To promote healing of venous stasis ulcers
d. To prevent DVT formation in a bed-boun
d. To prevent DVT formation in a bed-bound patient
16. Lymphedema may be caused by any the following EXCEPT
a. Hypoproteinemia
b. Thrombophlebitis
c. Mechanical obstruction of the lymphatics
d. Abnormal distribution of the lymphatic vessels
b. Thrombophlebitis
17. Compression reduces edema by:
a. Increasing extravascular hydrostatic pressure and circulation
b. Decreasing osmotic pressure
c. Causing negative interstitial pressure, thus expanding the diameter of the lumen of veins
d. Improving valve closure in ve
a. Increasing extravascular hydrostatic pressure and circulation
18. Which is the appropriate ranking for efficacy in reducing edema?
a. Static compression > intermittent compression > sequential compression
b. Sequential compression > intermittent compression > static compression
c. static compression > sequential com
a. Static compression > intermittent compression > sequential compression
19. Compression facilitates the healing of venous stasis ulcers by:
a. Improved venous circulation
b. Reduced venous pooling and reflux
c. Improved tissue oxygenation
d. All of the above
d. all of the above
20. Under normal circumstances, the __ pushing fluid out of the veins is __ the __ keeping fluid in, resulting in a slight loss of fluid into the interstitial space.
a. osmotic pressure; slightly higher than; hydrostatic pressure
b. hydrostatic pressure;
d. hydrostatic pressure; higher; osmotic pressure
_ is the time from a command to stop a muscle contraction to the point when the myoelectrical activity returns to resting or baseline levels.
a. peak amplitude
b. contraction latency
c. return latency
d. hold capacity
c. return latency
All of the following statements about biofeedback are true EXCEPT
a. its benefits are based on the patient learning to change their physiological processes using clinical output data.
b. more than one session is often required.
c.it is not recommended tha
c. it is not recommended that adjunctive techniques be used concurrently.
EMG biofeedback for up training is contraindicated in which of the following situations?
a. acute fractures
b. severe muscle strain
c. people allergic to adhesives
d. a and b
e. all of the above
e. all of the above
Which of the following statements can be used as a general guideline for EMG?
a. EMG amplitude of muscle at rest is 2 �V; healthy muscle contractions 10 �V.
b. EMG amplitude of muscle at rest is 2 �V; healthy muscle contractions 25 �V.
c. EMG amplitude of
b. EMG amplitude of muscle at rest is 2 �V; healthy muscle contractions 25 �V.
What is a typical gain setting of an EMG unit?
a. 0.5 �V to 2 m �V
b. 1 �V to 2000 m �V
c. 10 �V to 20,000 m �V
d. none of the above
b. 1 �V to 2000 m �V
How long should you wait following an injury before beginning EMG biofeedback to facilitate muscle contraction?
a. 24 hours
b. 48 hours
c. 72 hours
d. 3 weeks
c. 72 hours
EMG biofeedback works to treat headaches and ease tension migraines by decreasing muscle tension in which muscle(s)?
a. pericranial
b. frontalis
c. upper trapezius
d. both a and c
e. all of the above
e. all of the above
EMG biofeedback to facilitate muscle contractions is generally contraindicated within the first __ weeks following surgery.
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8
c. 6
In their 2014 clinical practice guideline, the American College of Physicians recommended EMG as a first line intervention for the management of
a. fractured wrist
b. stress urinary incontinence
c. stroke
d. pressure ulcer
b. stress urinary incontinence
How does biofeedback differ from other physical modalities?
a. It does not rely on an exchange of energy to produce a physiological effect.
b. it does not cost as much
c. can be applied without a physician present
d. may require several treatments before
a. It does not rely on an exchange of energy to produce a physiological effect.
When used to encourage a muscle contraction, the EMG signal threshold should be set
a. at or above the predetermined maximum volitional EMG amplitude.
b. below the predetermined maximum volitional EMG amplitude.
c. always at 6 ?V.
d. between 0 and 8 ?V.
a. at or above the predetermined maximum volitional EMG amplitude.
To limit noise in the EMG signal, the clinician should
a. clean skin thoroughly before applying electrodes.
b. avoid reusing electrodes
c. apply a small amount of ultrasound gel between the electrode and skin.
d. secure the electrodes in place using tape.
e. all of the above
EMG biofeedback has been clinically proven to be an effective intervention for addressing impairments in patients with
a. hemiplegia
b. depression
c. arthritis
d. headache
e. a and d
e. a and d
Reduced inhibition of descending motor (excitatory) signals and increased excitation of cerebromotor cortex is likely to do which of the following?
a. Increase a muscle's ability to generate force
b. Increase muscle strength
c. Increase muscle hypertrophy
e. all of the above
Potential adverse effects of EMG biofeedback to facilitate muscle contractions include which of the following:
a. dyspnea
b. fatigue
c. DOMS
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
Using previous studies as your guide, what would be a reasonable treatment plan for a patient with severe headaches with EMG?
a. Two weekly 50-minute sessions for 8 weeks
b. One 3-hour session per week for 3 weeks
c. Five 90-minute sessions throughout the
a. Two weekly 50-minute sessions for 8 weeks
Surface EMG electrodes generally consist of
a. 2 chloride electrodes
b. two silver
c. three silver-silver chloride
d. none of the above
c. three silver-silver chloride
Which of the following can be used to provide direct biofeedback?
a. heart rate monitor
b. BP reader
c. superficial EMG
d. A and B
e. A, B, and C
d. A and B
As a clinician, when would it be appropriate to encourage your patients to "up train"?
a. following orthopedic surgery
b. In neurological conditions that affect muscle contractility
c. following childbirth
d. When trying to improve sport performance
e. al
e. all of the above
As a clinician, your goal for your patient is to increase myoelectrical activity during a volitional muscle contraction. What should you do?
a. Instruct the patient to try to reach or exceed the threshold.
b. Instruct the patient to decrease the amplitude
a. Instruct the patient to try to reach or exceed the threshold.