What is the neutral plane?
A. Equilibrium between a fire's fuel supply and air supply
B. Heat is being produced and dispersed at equal rates
C. The point in fire development at which it is neither growing or decaying
D. The interface between the hot and c
D. The interface between the hot and cool gas layers in a compartment
Pg. 244
How do Halon-replacement agents extinguish fire?
A. Cooling the fuel below its ignition temperature
B. Smothering the flames with a g as that will not support combustion
C. Inhibiting the chemical chain reaction
D. Creating a vapor seal
C. Inhibiting the chemical chain reaction
Pg. 234
heat of compression is an example of which type of heat energy?
A. mechanical
B. Organic
C. Physical
D. Kinetic
A. Mechanical
Pg. 219
On the Celsius scale, at what temperature does water begin to freeze?
A. 0
B. 32
C. 100
D. 212
A. 0
Pg. 217
Fuel in the combustion process is the ____________.
A. Oxidizing agent
B. Catalyst
C. Enzyme
D. Reducing agent
D. Reducing agent
Pg. 223
How do dry chemical agents extinguish fires?
A. They reduce oxygen supply
B. They disrupt the chemical chain reaction
C. They absorb heat energy
D. They absorb free radicals
B. They disrupt the chemical chain reaction
Pg. 234
Extinguishing fire with an inert gas is an example of which method of extinguishment?
A. Reducing temperature
B. Neutralizing the catalyst
C. Chemical flame inhibition
D. Oxygen exclusion
D. Oxygen exclusion
Pg. 251
What is the amount of heat required to raise one pound of water one degree Fahrenheit called?
A. Joule
B. Calorie
C. BTU
D. Therm
C. BTU
Pg. 210
Liquids with a specific gravity of less than one will ____________ water.
A. Float on
B. React with
C. Mix with
D. Sink in
A. Float on
Pg. 226
What are materials that are not themselves combustible but support combustion?
A. Oxidizers
B. Catalysts
C. Enzymes
D. Inhibitors
A. Oxidizers
Pg. 231
All of the following are methods of extinguishing fire EXCEPT ONE. CHOOSE THE EXCEPTION.
A. Neutralizing the catalyst
B. Reducing temperature
C. Chemical flame inhibition
D. Oxygen exclusion
A. Neutralizing the Catalyst
Pg. 250
Which item is considered personal protective clothing (PPC) ?
A. Personal alert safety system
B. Flashlight
C. Passport device
D. Hearing protection
D. Hearing protection
Pg. 261
An SCBA regulator performs which one of these functions?
A. Emit an audible alarm when tank pressure drops below a preset level
B. Reduces air pressure from the cylinder to slightly above ambient pressure
C. Exhausts exhaled air into the atmosphere
D. Adm
B. Reduces air pressure from the cylinder to slightly above ambient pressure
Pg. 291
An SCBA cylinder should be replaced if pressure is less than _______________% of its rated maximum pressure.
A. 75
B. 80
C. 90
D. 100
C. 90
Pg. 311
Which is part of the controlled breathing technique for conserving SCBA air?
A. Briefly inhale twice before exhaling
B. Forcefully exhale through the mouth
C. Breathe through pursed lips
D. Inhale by mouth, exhale by nose
B. Forcefully exhale through the mouth
Pg. 315
Which is a defining characteristic of proximity firefighting?
A. Periods of complete flame engulfment
B. Exposure to hazardous material vapors and splashes
C. Exposure to high radiant, conductive or convective heat
D. Working in close proximity to flaming
C. Exposure to high radiant, conductive or convective heat
Pg. 261
Which is considered a supplemental or secondary form of eye protection?
A. Helmet-mounted face shield
B. Safety goggles
C. SCBA mask
D. Safety glasses
A. Helmet-mounted face shield
Pg. 265
What is the term for the group of respirators that supply air from a source other than the ambient atmosphere?
A. Closed circuit
B. Open circuit
C. Supplied air
D. Atmosphere supplying
D. Atmosphere supplying
Pg. 287
Firefighters are ______________ as likely as the general public to develop leukemia.
A. Equally
B. Twice
C. Three times
D. Four times
C. Three times
Pg. 260
Where is an FBARS located?
A. Below-grade industrial complex
B. Stationary filling facility
C. Mobile filling apparatus
D. High-rise
D. High-rise
Pg. 307
All of the following are approved methods of maintaining contact between team members in an IDLH environment EXCEPT ONE. CHOOSE THE EXCEPTION.
A. Radio
B. Voice
C. Physical
D. Visual
A. Radio
Pg. 313
An open-circuit SCBA uses _________________.
A. Filtered, purified ambient air
B. Compressed oxygen
C. Compressed air
D. Recycled, conditioned air
C. Compressed air
Pg. 289
Which structural firefighting coat/trouser component is specifically required by NFPA standards?
A. Cargo pockets
B. Outer shell
C. Absorbent liner
D. Vapor seal
B. Outer shell
Pg. 266
Regulations require hydrostatic testing of steel and aluminum SCBA cylinders __________________.
A. Annually
B. Every other year
C. Once every three years
D. Once every five years
D. Once every five years
Pg. 307
Which face piece fit test relies on the wearer to detect the test agent?
A. standard
B. Qualitative
C. Basic
D. Quantitative
B. Qualitative
Pg. 292
A fully charged SCBA cylinder rated for 60 minutes contains _______________ of air.
A. 55 ft (1555 L)
B. 66 ft (1870 L)
C. 75 ft (2125 L)
D. 87 ft (2460 L)
D. 87 ft (2460 L)
Pg. 291
Current standards for wild land protective clothing are found in NFPA _______________.
A. 1901
B. 1906
C. 1950
D. 1977
D. 1977
Pg. 270
In general, which sign or symptoms of carbon monoxide poisoning is the earliest to occur?
A. Increased respiratory rate
B. Fatigue
C. Headache
D. Dizziness
C. Headache
Pg. 285
For which situation is an APR appropriate?
A. Initial actions at a hazmat spill
B. Hazmat decontamination
C. Oxygen-enriched atmosphere
D. Body recover operations
D. Body recovery operations
Pg. 294
In general, which signs or symptoms of hydrogen cyanide poisoning is the earliest to occur?
A. Blue face and extremities
B. Tremors
C. Bright red skin
D. Dilated pupils
C. Bright red skin
Pg. 286
In general, which sign or symptom of hypoxia is the earliest to occur?
A. Increased respiratory rate
B. Fatigue
C. Headache
D. Dizziness
A. Increased respiratory rate
Pg. 282
A specific code is enacted as law by____________
A. General election
B. A particular jurisdiction
C. State legislature
D. Federal Legislation
B. A particular jurisdiction
Pg. 36
What is the average number of fire service injuries per year?
A. 40,000
B. 60,000
C. 80,000
D. 100,000
C. 80,000
Pg. 15
According to the NFPA, which of the following is a Firefighter I duty?
A. Vehicle extrication
B. Completing incident reports
C. Turning off building utilities
D. Performing annual hose tests
C. Turning off building utilities
Pg. 28
Which term best matches the definition "doing the right thing even though you don't have to"?
A. Morality
B. Character
C. Integrity
D. Pride
C. Integrity
Pg. 19
Which is the primary staff function?
A. Service to external customers
B. Finance/administration
C. Support of line units
D. Delivery of emergency services
C. Support of line units
Pg. 24
What was produced by the Firefighter Life Safety Summit of March, 2004?
A. The Everyone Goes Home program\
B. American Burning Revisited
C. The Back To Basics program
D. The Firefighter Safety Stand Down
A. The Everyone Goes Home program
Pg. 16
Which event most directly led to the use of steam-powered pumping apparatus?
A. World War I
B. Creation of organized fire companies
C. The Great Chicago Fire
D. The Industrial Revolution
D. The Industrial Revolution
Pg. 11
A _______________ provides detailed, specific steps to take in performing a particular task.
A. Policy
B. Procedure
C. Manual of operations
D. Regulation
B. Procedure
Pg. 36
What is the term for breaking down a large job into smaller, more manageable tasks?
A. Unity of command
B. Division of labor
C. Span of control
D. Chain of command
B. Division of labor
Pg. 33
What is the ideal number of subordinates reporting to a single supervisor?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
C. 5
Pg. 33
An organizational structure that forms a pyramid is ________________.
A. Collaborative
B. Centralized
C. Scalar
D. Vertical
C. Scalar
Pg. 22
Rules, regulations and policies are an essential component of ______________________.
A. Counseling
B. Span of control
C. Discipline
D. Chain of command
C. Discipline
Pg. 35
Which fire resulted in the development of NFPA 101 (Life Safety Code) ?
A. Ringling Brothers and Barnum and Bailey Circus Fire
B. Second Great Fire of New York City
C. Triangle Shirtwaist Fire
D. MGM Grand Hotel Fire
C. Triangle Shirtwaist Fire
Pg. 12
Requirements for panic hardware resulted from which major fire?
A. Iroquois Theatre Fire
B. Our Lady of the Angels School Fire
C. Cocoanut Grove Nightclub Fire
D. Triangle Shirtwaist Fire
A. Iroquois Theatre Fire
Pg. 12
Which is the primary line function?
A. supervision/administration
B. Delivery of emergency services
C. Support of emergency responders
D. Support of internal customers
B. Delivery of emergency services
Pg. 24
Who was a key figure in the formation of the Union Volunteer Fire Company?
A. John Hancock
B. Joel Cox
C. Benjamin Franklin
D. Elias Howe
C. Benjamin Franklin
Pg. 11
what is the basic unit of fire fighting operations?
A. Company
B. Squad
C. Group
D. Division
A. Company
Pg. 25
What is the term for a firefighter who receives payment for each call he/she responds to?
A. Paid on call
B. Volunteer
C. Per Diem
D. Resident volunteer
A. Paid on call
Pg. 23
Which statement best describes a policy?
A. A standard for the performance of specific tasks
B. A benchmark for measuring performance
C. The basis of an Incident Action Plan (IAP)
D. A framework for decision-making
D. A framework for decision-making.
Pg. 35
Which type of company specializes in wild-land firefighting and structure protection in the wild-land/urban interface?
A. Engine
B. Truck
C. Rescue
D. Brush
D. Brush
Pg. 26
Which is one of the five basic causes of fire apparatus collisions?
A. Lack of driving skill and experience
B. Environmental conditions
C. Mechanical failure
D. Intoxicated drivers
A. Lack of driving skill and experience
Pg. 66
Which item meets the DOT requirements for visibility for personnel working a vehicle accident?
A. Turnouts with reflective strips
B. Any PPE with reflective strips
C. High-visibility safety vests
D. All of the above
C. High-visibility safety vests
Pg. 80
As a rule of thumb, the collapse zone of a building is ________________.
A. Equal to the width of the building
B. Equal to the 11/2 times the building's height
C. Equal to the longest dimension of the building
D. 200 feet (60 m) in all directions
B. Equal to the 11/2 times the building's height
Pg. 85
What is the second most common cause of firefighter deaths?
A. Exposure to products of combustion
B. Overexertion
C. Burns
D. Motor vehicle accident
D. Motor vehicle accident
Pg. 66
Which is one of the Everyone Goes Home Life Safety Initiatives?
A. Develop and implement nationally recognized medical and physical fitness standards
B. Promote mandatory participation in firefighter fitness and wellness programs
C. Fight fire aggressivel
A. Develop and implement nationally recognized medical and physical fitness standards
Pg. 61
A passport system provides accountability for personnel who are _________________.
A. Assigned to the incident
B. In staging
C. Inside the incident perimeter
D. Operating inside the hot zone
D. Operating inside the hot zone
Pg. 86
What is the distance a vehicle travels from the moment the brakes are applied until it comes to a stop?
A. Mechanical braking distance
B. Braking distance
C. Effective stopping distance
D. Net stopping distance
B. Braking distance
Pg. 70
When riding in a moving apparatus, which activity is permissible?
A. Standing with the use of a safety strap
B. Dressing en route to a call
C. Tailboard riding with a safety strap
D. Use of hearing protection by the driver
D. use of hearing protection by the driver
Pg. 72
The distance a vehicle travels from the moment its driver perceives the need to stop until it comes to a complete stop is the _____________________.
A. mechanical braking distance
B. Total stopping distance
C. Effective braking distance
D. Net stopping di
B. Total stopping distance
Pg. 70
All fire department use a ________________ to track personnel working at an incident.
A. Personnel accountability system
B. Situation status report
C. Unit log
D. Passport system
A. Personnel accountability system
Pg. 85
What is the term for a long-term, recurring health issue?
A. Acute
B. Continuous
C. Chronic
D. Somatic
C. Chronic
Pg. 49
Where do the majority of firefighter injuries occur?
A. In response vehicles
B. At the fire-ground
C. At non-fire emergencies
D. In or around the firehouse
B. At the fire-ground
Pg. 46
the majority of firefighter deaths are due to _____________.
A. Exposure to products of combustion
B. Stress and overexertion
C. Vehicle accident
D. Non-vehicular trauma
B. Stress and overexertion
Pg. 46
According to the Phoenix Fire Department risk management plan, responders will risk their lives __________ to save property that is not savable.
A. Not at all
B. A little
C. A lot
D. To any extent
A. Not at all
Pg. 62
Approximately how many firefighter injuries occurred in 2010
A. 35,000
B. 58,000
C. 72,000
D. 95,000
C. 72,000
Pg. 46
Which factor most undermines the effectiveness of a health and safety program?
A. Unreceptive firefighters
B. Resistance from organized labor groups
C. Failure to consistently practice what the program teaches
D. "Macho" attitudes
C. Failure to consistently practice what the program teaches
Pg. 64
The purpose of which program is to provide counseling for firefighters involved in particularly difficult incidents, such as a child fatality?
A. Incident recovery consultation
B. Employee assistance program
C. Wellness
D. Critical incident stress managem
D. Critical incident stress management
Pg. 59
Federal OSHA regulations apply primarily to which one of these groups?
A. All non-private sector firefighters
B. Federal firefighters
C. All firefighters
D. Local and state firefighters
B. Federal firefighters
Pg. 60
What is the term for any atmospheric condition that poses an imminent threat to life or health?
A. Toxic inhalation hazard
B. Immediately Dangerous to Life and Health
C. Toxic atmosphere
D. Controlled entry zone
B. Immediately Dangerous to life and Health
Pg. 50
According to the Phoenix Fire Department risk management plan, responders will risk their lives ___________________ to save lives that are savable.
A. Not at all
B. A little
C. A lot
D. To any extent
C. A lot
Pg. 62
Equipment that is labeled as intrinsically safe ____________.
A. Is safe for use around water
B. Contains or produces no toxic substances
C. Is safe for use in a flammable atmosphere
D. Is double insulated
C. Is safe for use in a flammable atmosphere
Pg. 104
What type of phone is designed for use by the hearing impaired?
A. Display phone
B. Text phone
C. Digital phone
D. Video phone
B. Text phone
Pg. 96
What are tactical channels useful for?
A. Dispatch of resources
B. Providing an alternate dispatch channel
C. Direct communication between on-scene units
D. Interagency coordination
C. Direct communication between on-scene units
Pg. 108
what is the term for handheld radios carried by individual fire fighters?
A. Walkie-talkies
B. Portable radios
C. Mobile radios
D. Pocket radios
B. Portable radios
Pg. 104
Approximately what percentage of the US has access to Enhanced 9-1-1 systems via landline telephone?
A. 60
B. 71
C. 84
D. 96
D. 96
Pg. 98
The majority of internal communications are __________.
A. Verbal
B. Radio
C. Written
D. Interpersonal
B. Radio
Pg. 103
Use of clear text in radio communication is mandated by ____________.
A. National Incident Management System (NIMS)
B. Federal Communications Commission (FCC)
C. Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA)
D. National Fire Protection Agency (NFPA)
A. National Incident Management System (NIMS)
Pg. 109
Which development has caused ten codes to be used less by fire departments?
A. NFPA standardization of radio terminology
B. The need for compliance with the National Incident Management System (NIMS)
C. Use of wireless phones
D. Easing of FCC restrictions
B. The need for compliance with the National Incident Management Systems (NIMS)
Pg. 109
What does the A stand for in the ABCs of good communications?
A. Articulate
B. Acknowledge
C. Accurate
D. Audible
C. Accurate
Pg. 114
Which device will receive a voice or alphanumeric message when specific signals are transmitted over a specific radio frequency?
A. Radio alarm box
B. Pager
C. Line terminal with alarm
D. Telephony cable device
B. Pager
Pg. 102
The radio communication model begins with ______________.
A. The medium
B. The sender
C. Information
D. Initiation
B. The sender
Pg. 112
what does the C stand for in the ABCs of good communications?
A. Concise
B. Correct
C. Clear
D. Control
A. Concise
Pg. 114
What is the most commonly used form of public alerting system?
A. Radio
B. Telephone
C. Pager
D. Siren
B. Telephone
Pg. 98
In the radio communication model, the reaction of the receiver to what is being communicated is ___________.
A. Feedback
B. Acknowledgement
C. Verification
D. Closure
A. Feedback
Pg. 112
Which is an example of communications interference?
A. Device
B. Medium
C. Semantics
D. Experience
C. Semantics
Pg. 113
What is the term for a radio system that transmits and receives on different frequencies?
A. Repeater
B. talk-around
C. Duplex
D. Binary
C. Duplex
Pg. 106-107
Which statement about radio alarm boxes is correct?
A. They can report only the location from which the alarm is sent
B. They are activated by signals from heat or smoke detectors
C. They use an alarm telegraph signal sent via hard wire
D. They may be bat
D. They may be battery or solar powered
Pg. 99
Which is correct radio procedure?
A. Hold the radio 2-3 inches (50-75mm) from your mouth
B. Transmit all available information
C. Provide a brief justification for any requests for resources
D. The receiver should repeat the message back to the sender
D. The receiver should repeat the message back to the sender.
Pg. 112-113
Which radio system makes the most efficient use of an assigned frequency or band?
A. 800 MHz
B. Digital
C. FM
D. UHF
B. Digital
Pg. 106
Which system is commonly used to notify volunteer personnel of an emergency?
A. Pager
B. Remote station alarms
C. Secure phone line
D. Vocal alarm
A. Pager
Pg. 102
What are the vertical members in the framework of a wall?
A. Joists
B. Studs
C. Rafters
D. Beams
B. Studs
Pg. 148
As a general rule, at what temperature can structural steel be expected to fail?
A. 750 F (400 C)
B. 1000 F (540 C)
C. 1250 F (675 C)
D. 1500 F (815 C)
B. 1000 F (540 C)
Pg. 137
A door consisting of an interior framework to which paneling is glued is a (n) ______________ door.
A. Ledge
B. Lightweight
C. Interior
D. Hollow core
D. Hollow core
Pg. 182
Which agency establishes standards for the construction of manufactured homes?
A. US Dept. of Housing and Urban Development (HUD)
B. International Code Council (ICC)
C. American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM)
D. National Fire Protection Associat
A. US Dept. of Housing and Urban Development (HUD)
Pg. 149
What is the term for a second roof constructed over an existing roof?
A. Rain roof
B. Suspended membrane
C. Top skin
D. Weather deck
A. Rain roof
Pg. 172
During which period was wrought iron used in building construction?
A. Early 1800s
B. Late 1800s
C. early 1900s
D. Late 1900s
A. Early 1800s
Pg. 135
Which material is commonly used to improve the fire resistance of steel and wood structural members?
A. Lightweight concrete
B. Fiberglass
C. Gypsum
D. Expanded urethane
C. Gypsum
pg. 139
Which is the part of a pitched roof that extends beyond the outside wall?
A. soffit
B. Stem
C. Eave
D. Purlin
C. Eave
Pg. 162
Which material is prone to spalling when heated?
A. Steel
B. Wood
C. Masonry
D. Gypsum
C. Masonry
Pg. 135
What is the term for the transparent part of a window?
A. Glazing
B. Glass
C. Lens
D. Pane
A. Glazing
Pg. 187
Which is a distinguishing characteristic of a smoke-proof stair enclosure?
A. Fire-rated construction
B. Standpipe system
C. Ventilation system
D. Occupancy type
C. Ventilation system
Pg. 177
Which is the part of an exterior wall that extends above the roof?
A. Sleeper
B. Stem
C. Cantilever
D. Parapet
D. Parapet
Pg. 162
A load-bearing wall is one that __________.
A. Supports structural weight
B. Has a fire-resistance rating
C. Passes uninterrupted through a partition
D. Is designed to limit spread of fire gases
A. Supports structural weight
Pg. 147
An educational occupancy is one where ____ or more people gather for educational purposes.
A. 6
B. 10
C. 12
D. 14
A. 6
Pg. 154
Synthetic wood consists primarily of recycled ___________.
A. Milk bottles
B. Tires
C. Paper
D. Waste Oil
A. Milk bottles
Pg. 142
Type IV construction is also known as _____________.
A. Wood frame
B. Ordinary
C. Heavy timber
D. Noncombustible/limited
C. Heavy timber
Pg. 146
Which is one of the three basic roof designs?
A. Truss
B. Peaked
C. Shed
D. Pitched
D. Pitched
Pg. 161
Which is a disadvantage of heavy timber construction?
A. Susceptible to collapse
B. Difficult to ventilate
C. Difficult to breach for rescue or emergency egress
D. Structural elements contributing to fire intensity
D. Structural elements contributing to fire intensity
Pg. 147
What are the horizontal structural members that support floors or ceilings?
A. Joists
B. Studs
C. Rafters
D. Beams
A. Joists
Pg. 159
The upper member of a truss is arched and the lower member is straight. This is a (n) ____________ truss.
A. Lightweight
B. Engineered
C. Open web
D. Bowstring
D. Bowstring
Pg. 193
What is heat?
A. Temperature increasing resulting in fuel decomposition
B. Kinetic energy in the form of vibrating molecules
C. The energy which produces oxidation
D. A product of pyrolysis
B. Kinetic energy in the form of vibrating molecules
Pg. 208
On the Fahrenheit scale, at what temperature does water begin to freeze?
A. 0
B. 32
C. 100
D. 212
B. 32
Pg. 217
What does the term thermal layering refer to?
A. Mushrooming of gases within a structure
B. Elimination of temperature differentials within a closed compartment
C. Tendency of gases to form layers according to temperature
D. "Stack effect" within a high-r
C. Tendency of gases to form layers according to temperature.
Pg. 244
Which gas is a common product of combustion?
A. Anhydrous ammonia
B. Acrolein
C. Hydrogen sulfide
D. Formaldehyde
D. Formaldehyde
Pg. 215
Of the items listed below, which is the best indicator of impending flashover?
A. Lowering of the hot gas layer
B. Little or no visible flame
C. Appearance of ceiling jets
D. White smoke
A. Lowering of the hot gas layer
Pg. 248
Which material has the widest flammable range?
A. Propane
B. Carbon monoxide
C. Gasoline
D. Methane
B. Carbon monoxide
Pg. 233
A bearing overheats in a motor causing ignition of nearby combustibles. This is an example of ignition by _______________ heat energy.
A. Compressive
B. Physical
C. Electromagnetic
D. Mechanical
D. Mechanical
Pg. 219
Which property tells you if a liquid will float on water?
A. Fluid buoyancy
B. Specific gravity
C. Vapor density
D. Relative Density
B. Specific gravity
Pg. 226
What is the transfer of heat by movement of a fluid?
A. Pyrolysis
B. Radiation
C. Vaporization
D. Convection
D. Convection
Pg. 221
Electrical devices that are intrinsically safe ________________.
A. Will not ignite an explosive atmosphere
B. Are safe for use in wet environments
C. Will interrupt electrical flow if a ground fault occurs
D. Do not produce an electromagnetic field
A. Will not ignite an explosive atmosphere
Pg. 483
What is a disadvantage of an inverter compared to other power sources?
A. Noisy operation
B. High fuel consumption
C. Limited output
D. Weight and bulk
C. Limited output
Pg. 481
All of the following statements about generators are correct EXCEPT ONE. CHOOSE THE EXCEPTION.
A. Hearing protection is required when working around generators
B. Both portable and vehicle-mounted generators can have 110 and/or 220 volt capacities
C. An i
C. An inverter is preferable to a generator for most applications
Pg. 480
Which statement about vehicle-mounted generators is correct?
A. They convert vehicle alternator output to AC
B. Exhaust fumes produced by the system can add contamination
C. They run more quietly than other power sources
D. A power take-off system is requ
B. Exhaust fumes produced by the system can add contamination to the scene
Pg. 480
The primary purpose of a ground fault circuit interrupter is to prevent __________________.
A. Electrical overload
B. Electrical shock
C. Electrical surge
D. Explosive atmosphere ignition
B. Electrical shock
Pg. 484
Which device is a portable electrical power source?
A. Generator
B. Alternator
C. Inverter
D. Transformer
A. Generator
Pg. 480
Lighting equipment is divided into which two categories?
A. AC and DC
B. Fixed and vehicle mounted
C. Portable and fixed
D. High-output and low-output
C. Portable and fixed
Pg. 481
What is an inverter?
A. Lightweight portable generator
B. Vehicle mounted DC to AC step-up transformer
C. Vehicle mounted generator
D. AC to DC plug-in adapter
B. Vehicle mounted DC to AC step-up transformer
Pg. 481
Portable light output is ____________ watts.
A. 200-500
B. 200-400
C. 300-700
D. 300-1000
D. 300-1000
Pg. 481
Which statement about a power take-off (PTO) is correct?
A. It draws power from the apparatus electrical system
B. It can be removed from the vehicle for portable use
C. It is driven by a separate engine
D. It is driven by the vehicle transmission
D. It is driven by the vehicle transmission
Pg. 480
What is a halyard?
A. A guide for the fly section
B. A rope or cable used to hoist the fly section
C. A metal rod tying the two beams together
D. A metal hook at the end of a roof ladder
B. A rope or cable used to hoist the fly section
Pg. 657
The actual length of an extension ladder _______________ the designated length.
A. Must be equal to
B. May be up to 3 inches (75 mm) less than
C. May be up to 6 inches (150 mm) less than
D. May be up to 12 inches (300 mm) less than
C. May be up to 6 inches (150 mm) less than
Pg. 669
The tip of the ladder should be placed just below the windowsill when it is to be used for _________________.
A. Ventilation
B. Rescue
C. Operation of hose streams
D. Access into the building
B. Rescue
Pg. 668
Which type of ladder should be deployed with the fly toward the building?
A. Wood
B. Metal
C. Fiberglass
D. All types
A. Wood
Pg. 679
Extension ladders 35 feet (11 meters) or longer should be raised by a minimum of _____________ people.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
B. 3
Pg. 681
Which is a good choice for ladder placement?
A. At a building corner
B. In front of the primary building access
C. Against a parapet
D. On soft ground
A. At a building corner
Pg. 676-677
What is the maximum reach of a ladder with a designated length of 35 feet (10.7 m) ?
A. 32 feet (9.75 m)
B. 33 feet (10 m)
C. 34 feet (10.4 m)
D. 35 feet (10.7 m)
C. 34 feet (10.4 m)
Pg. 669
In the one-firefighter low-shoulder carry, where is the upper beam of the ladder?
A. Grasped in by hands
B. Alongside and above the head
C. Resting on the shoulder
D. Tucked under the arm
C. Resting on the shoulder
Pg. 672
What is the widest section of an extension ladder?
A. Butt
B. Bed
C. Foot
D. Anchor
B. Bed
Pg. 655
Standards require fire service ladders to be tested ____________.
A. Weekly
B. Monthly
C. Semiannually
D. Annually
D. Annually
Pg. 665
The two-firefighter arm's length on-edge carry is best suited for ______________ ladders.
A. Extension
B. Lightweight
C. Folding
D. Straight
B. Lightweight
Pg. 674
How should a ladder be positioned when used for access through a wide window?
A. The tip of the ladder should be placed just below the windowsill
B. the ladder should extend one rung above the windowsill
C. Resting on the windowsill with two to three rung
C. Resting on the windowsill with two to three rungs above the sill
Pg. 676
All ladders conforming to NFPA requirements for fire service applications must _________________.
A. Be constructed of non-combustible material
B. Have a heat sensor
C. Have a certification label
D. Be constructed of metal
C. Have a certification label
Pg. 659
What is the term for the procedure of standing at the base of a ladder and pulling or pressing the ladder against the building?
A. Heeling
B. Securing
C. Locking-in
D. Anchoring
A. Heeling
Pg. 684-685
Standards require that a pumper must be equipped with which ladder?
A. Combination
B. Single with roof hooks
C. Single
D. Straight
B. Single with roof hooks
Pg. 661
Which is an advantage of fiberglass ladders?
A. Light weight
B. Electrically non-conductive
C. Good flame resistance
D. Not prone to sudden failure
B. Electrically non-conductive
Pg. 658
Which ladder length is best for a second story window?
A. 16 to 20 feet (4.9 to 6 m)
B. 20 to 24 feet (6 to 7.5 m)
C. 20 to 28 feet (6 to 8.5 m)
D. 28 to 35 feet (8.5 to 10.7 m)
C. 20 to 28 feet (6 to 8.5 m)
Pg. 668
What is the end of a ground ladder that is placed in contact with the ground?
A. Shoe
B. Foot
C. Butt
D. Toe
C. Butt
Pg. 657
A typical rough measurement from the floor to the windowsill of a commercial building is ______________.
A. 2.5 feet (0.75 m)
B. 3 feet (1 m)
C. 3.5 feet (1.1 m)
D. 4 feet (1.2 m)
D. 4 feet (1.2 m)
Pg. 668
When four firefighter are carrying a ladder, who gives the commands?
A. Firefighter at the tip, on the left side
B. Firefighter at the tip, on the right side
C. Firefighter at the butt, on the left side
D. Firefighter at the butt, on the right side
D. Firefighter at the butt, on the right side
Pg. 675
Which is the acronym for factors affecting hydrant flow rate?
A. FANG
B. SLIP
C. DROP
D. FLOP
B. SLIP
Pg. 796
NFPA standards require that water tenders be designed to dump the tank at a rate of at least _____________.
A. 500 GPM (1900 L/min)
B. 750 GPM (2850 L/min)
C. 1000 GPM (3800 L/min)
D. 1250 GPM (4750 L/min)
C. 1000 GPM (3800 L/min)
Pg. 802
In a water shuttle operation, what does a vacuum mobile water supply apparatus eliminate the need for?
A. Portable tanks
B. A fill site pumper
C. A relay pumper
D. Hard suction Hose
B. A fill site pumper
Pg. 803
What is the term for the 4" (100 mm) outlet on a fire hydrant?
A. Auxiliary
B. Main
C. Pumper outlet nozzle
D. Primary
C. Pumper outlet nozzle
Pg. 795
Which water system uses pumps to move water from the supply to the treatment and distribution system?
A. Primary system
B. Direct pump system
C. Mechanical feed system
D. Pressurized system
B. Direct pump system
Pg. 787
Minimum diameter for water lines in residential areas is __________________.
A. 6 inches (15 cm)
B. 7 inches (18 cm)
C. 8 inches (20 cm)
D. 9 inches (23 cm)
A. 6 inches (15 cm)
Pg. 789
To close a dry barrel hydrant, you should rotate the main valve until _______________.
A. The stem will no longer turn, then counter-rotate it one-quarter turn
B. The unthreaded part of the operating stem is visible
C. Water flows from the drain hole
D. T
A. The stem will no longer turn, then counter-rotate it one-quarter turn
Pg. 798
The part of a water supply system that receives water under pressure and delivers it throughout the service area is known as ___________________.
A. Feeder system
B. Primary service grid
C. Circulating feed system
D. Distribution system
D. Distribution system
Pg. 789
How can you reduce the tendency of kinking in a soft sleeve intake hose?
A. Remove all twists from the hose
B. Put a half twist in the hose
C. Put one full twist in the hose
D. Put two full twists in the hose
D. Put two full twists in the hose
Pg. 807
Raising water from a static water supply to a pump that is above the water supply is known as ______________.
A. Suction
B. Lifting
C. Wellling
D. Drafting
D. Drafting
Pg. 799
Which type of pressure is created when a water supply is at a greater height than the point of discharge?
A. Head
B. Back
C. Flow
D. Static
A. Head
Pg. 787
What does a flowmeter indicate?
A. The position of a valve
B. Pressure in the line
C. Volume of water being consumed
D. Direction of flow
C. Volume of water being consumed
Pg. 792
What is the most common cause of water hammer?
A. Excessive discharge pressure
B. Failure to maintain adequate residual pressure
C. Closing a valve too quickly
D. Fire pump cavitation
C. Closing a valve too quickly
Pg. 798
A water shuttle operation is recommended when the distance from the water source to the incident scene exceeds _______________.
A. 1/4 mile (0.4 km)
B. 1/2 mile (0.8 km)
C. 3/4 mile (1.2 km)
D. 1 mile (1.6 km)
B. 1/2 mile (0.8 km)
Pg. 801
Which part of a water distribution system consists of intermediate capacity pipes that create a grid?
A. Intermediate feeders
B. Service Lines
C. Distributors
D. Secondary feeders
D. Secondary feeders
Pg. 789
To cut off a section of a water system for maintenance or repair is the functions on a (n)
A. Isolation valve
B. Distribution manifold
C. Primary distribution station
D. Service area manifold
A. Isolation valve
Pg. 791
Dry barrel hydrants are designed specifically for use ________________.
A. In commercial districts
B. In freezing climates
C. In industrial fire protection systems
D. Service area manifold
B. In freezing climates
Pg. 795
Which statement about a combination water supply system is correct?
A. A single water supply system provides for domestic, industrial and fire protection needs
B. Water pressure is provided by gravity and the use of pumps
C. Water is supplied by both surf
B. water pressure is provided by gravity and the use of pumps
Pg. 788
What is the function of a water distribution system?
A. Distribute water from the supply to the various pumping stations
B. Receive water from the source and deliver it throughout the service area
C. Distribute water from the main to various locations in
B. Receive water from the source and deliver it throughout the service area
Pg. 789
By NFPA standard, what is the flow rate for a hydrant with a green bonnet?
A. Less than 500 GPM ( Less than 1900 L/min)
B. 500 to 1000 GPM (1900 to 3780 L/min)
C. 1000 to 1500 GPM (3785 to 5675 L/min)
D. 1500 or more GPM (5680 L/min or more)
C. 1000 to 1500 GPM (3785 to 5675 L/min)
Pg. 796
Which one of these measures is recommended to help prevent organic damage to fire hose?
A. Make sure hose is slightly damp before putting into storage
B. Replace wet hose on the apparatus with dry hose
C. For hose stored on apparatus, remove, inspect, swe
B. Replace wet hose on the apparatus with dry hose
Pg. 828-829
Fire hose couplings are commonly constructed of which material?
A. Stainless steel
B. Bronze
C. Cast iron
D. Aluminum alloy
D. Aluminum alloy
Pg. 820
Which device is specifically designed to divide a single hose line into two or more lines?
A. Wye
B. Siamese
C. Four-way
D. Splitter
A. Wye
Pg. 837
What does the reverse horseshoe finish provide?
A. One or two attack lines reconnected to the supply line
B. An unconnected short length for hookup to a hydrant or four-way valve
C. Loosely flaked hose for the purpose of making a hydrant connection
D. Wor
A. One or two attack lines reconnected to the supply line
Pg. 850
What is the function of a hydrant valve?
A. To provide access to water at a midpoint along a long supply line
B. To allow the addition of a second supply line to a single hydrant port without interrupting water flow
C. To allow a second engine to boost pr
C. To allow a second engine to boost pressure in a supply line already in use by another engine
Pg. 838, 839
When advancing a triple layer load pre-connect _________________.
A. Place the nozzle and the first their over the shoulder and walk away from the apparatus
B. The hose is carried on the shoulder and pays off from the top
C. Half the load is shouldered; t
A. Place the nozzle and the first tier over the shoulder and walk away from the apparatus.
Pg. 861
What should be done when advancing a hose line into a structure?
A. Position the nozzle operator and the backup firefighter on opposite sides of the hose
B. Bleed air from the line before entering the fire area
C. Begin with the nozzle spray patter set wi
B. Bleed air from the line before entering the fire area
Pg. 862
Which is one of the two most commonly used coupling types?
A. Non-threaded
B. Two-piece
C. Quarter turn
D. Standard
A. Non-threaded
Pg. 821
Which type of valve is typically attached to a hydrant to control flow?
A. Butterfly
B. Gate
C. Clapper
D. Ball
B. Gate
Pg. 836
A short fold or reverse bend in hose in order to prevent a coupling from flipping over in a hose bed is a ________________.
A. Dutchman
B. Turn
C. Reverse
D. Bight
A. Dutchman
Pg. 852
Supply hose is laid from the water source to the scene in a ______________ lay.
A. Standard
B. Supply
C. Forward
D. Reverse
C. Forward
Pg. 856
Which characteristic of a coupling renders it unsuitable for fire service use?
A. Extruded manufacturing process
B. Brass material
C. Manufactured by casting
D. Use of recessed lugs
C. Manufactured by casting
Pg. 821
All of the following are methods by which hose clamps work EXCEPT ONE. CHOOSE THE EXCEPTION.
A. Screw-down
B. Hydraulic
C. Ratchet
D. Press-down
C. Ratchet
Pg. 841
What does the formation of an aluminum oxide layer on an alloy coupling indicate?
A. Exposure to high heat
B. Normal corrosion
C. Significant corrosive damage
D. Metal fatigue
B. Normal corrosion
Pg. 830
Which type of valve is typically used on large diameter pump intakes?
A. Butterfly
B. Gate
C. Clapper
D. Ball
A. Butterfly
Pg. 836
Once the standpipe connection is completed, where should extra hose be laid out?
A. Up the stairwell toward the floor above the fire
B. Back and forth on the landing
C. down the stairwell toward the floor below the fire floor
D. Hung over the handrail and
A. up the stairwell toward the floor above the fire
Pg. 864
Which tool is specifically designed to protect fire hose from vehicle traffic?
A. Chafing block
B. Hose bridge
C. Spanner
D. Hose jacket
B. Hose bridge
Pg. 842
What is the common term for the main fire hose storage area on an apparatus?
A. Compartment
B. Cabinet
C. Crib
D. Bed
D. Bed
Pg. 846
Which type of hose damage results from vehicular traffic, excessive pressure, and contact with rough edges?
A. Physical
B. Abrasive
C. Contact
D. Mechanical
D. Mechanical
Pg. 825-826
Which hose roll is made by starting at the end of the hose with the male coupling and rolling the hose all the way to the other end?
A. Hose
B. Straight
C. Single
D. Forward
B. Straight
Pg. 844
What is the maximum recommended flow from a hardline?
A. 150 GPM (1250 L/min)
B. 200 GPM (1300 L/min)
C. 250 GPM (1350 L/min)
D. 350 GPM (1500 L/min)
D. 350 GPM (1500 L/min)
Pg. 950
At a constant flow and pressure, as a fog nozzle pattern widens, the stream reach _____________.
A. Stays the same
B. Decreases
C. Increases
D. May either decrease or increase
B. Decreases
Pg. 955
What is an advantage of a low-pressure fog nozzle?
A. Greater surface area of the droplets
B. Higher stream density
C. Reduced stream velocity
D. Reduced nozzle reaction
D. Reduced nozzle reaction
Pg. 961
Most fog nozzles are designed to operate at a nozzle pressure of _____________.
A. 50 psi (200 kPa)
B. 75 psi (515 kPa)
C. 80 psi (550 kPa)
D. 100 psi (690 kPa)
D. 100 psi (690 kPa)
Pg. 955
Which one of these measures will increase friction loss?
A. Minimizing use of appliances and adapters
B. Eliminating sharp bends in hose
C. Minimizing the length of lines
D. Increasing the velocity of the water in the hose
D. Increasing the velocity of the water in the hose
Pg. 948
Unlike other nozzles, a manually adjustable fog nozzle permits the nozzle operator to select _____________.
A. Rate of discharge
B. Nozzle pressure
C. Discharge pattern
D. Discharge pressure
A. Rate of discharge
Pg. 961
Which statement about broken streams is correct?
A. They absorb less heat per gallon discharged than a solid stream
B. They absorb more heat than a fog stream of equal volume
C. They are especially useful for basement and attic fires
D. They are suitable
C. They are especially useful for basement and attic fires
Pg. 955
The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of a specified mass of a material by one degree is the definition of ______________.
A. Latent heat
B. Calorie
C. Specific heat
D. Heat release rate
C. Specific heat
Pg. 944
When vaporized, a given volume of water will expand to _______________ times its original volume.
A. 280
B. 760
C. 1700
D. 3200
C. 1700
Pg. 944
The most efficient and effective use of water is achieved by matching the critical flow rate with the _____________ .
A. Heat release rate
B. Required fire flow
C. Latent heat of vaporization
D. Specific heat
A. Heat release rate
Pg. 951
Which nozzle control valve adjusts the stream pattern as well as controlling the flow?
A. Ball
B. Rotary
C. Baffle
D. Slide
B. Rotary
Pg. 963
What is the term for the effect on pressure as water is forced through hose, appliances, and fittings?
A. Flow pressure
B. Residual pressure
C. Friction loss
D. Nozzle pressure
C. Friction loss
Pg. 947
Maximum nozzle pressure for a master stream is ______.
A. 50 psi
B. 60 psi
C. 80 psi
D. 100 psi
D. 100 psi
Pg. 951
A low volume stream discharges a maximum of _________.
A. 40 GPM
B. 50 GPM
C. 60 GPM
D. 70 GPM
A. 40 GPM
Pg. 950
What is a disadvantage of a fog stream?
A. They are less versatile
B. They flow lower volumes
C. The hose is more prone to kinking
D. They are more likely to disrupt thermal layering
D. They are more likely to disrupt thermal layering
Pg. 955
The rate of vaporization of water is increased the most by increasing the ___________ of the water.
A. Volume
B. Pressure
C. Aeration
D. Surface area
D. Surface area
Pg. 946
As a nozzle is elevated above the pump, pressure at that nozzle ____________.
A. Decreases
B. Increases
C. Aeration
D. Surface area
A. Decreases
Pg. 948
How can water happen be prevented?
A. Do not allow residual pressure to drop below 20 psi
B. Do not draft from municipal water supply systems
C. Always use an automatic pressure regulating device
D. Open and close all valves slowly
D. Open and close all valves slowly
Pg. 949
What is NFPA terminology for a fog nozzle?
A. Mist
B. Spray
C. Broken
D. Fog
B. Spray
Pg. 957
Recommended nozzle pressure for a hand-held solid stream is ____________.
A. 40 psi
B. 50 psi
C. 70 psi
D. 80 psi
B. 50 psi
Pg. 954
A fire set by someone who knows that the fire should not be set is classified as ___________ .
A. Malicious
B. Incendiary
C. Vandalism
D. Arson
B. Incendiary
Pg. 1154
Where does the search for the area of origin typically begin?
A. Outside the structure
B. Lowest burned area
C. Area of deepest char
D. Near the most likely heat source
A. Outside the structure
Pg. 1146
When should debris be moved
A. As soon the fire is extinguished
B. When needed to clear the area for investigation
C. After photos are taken
D. After the investigator has collected evidence
D. After the investigator has collected evidence
Pg. 1164
Which component of the fire tetrahedron usually provides the best indicators of fire cause
A. Fuel
B. Oxidizing agent
C. Heat source
D. Chemical chain reaction
C. Heat source
Pg. 1155
Once critical evidence has been identified and protected, what should happen next?
A. Fire crews may leave the scene
B. The property may be turned over to the owners
C. Thorough overhaul work may be completed
D. Evidence may be discarded
C. Thorough overhaul work may be completed
Pg. 1162
Which is most likely to be found in the area of origin of a ground cover fire?
A. Deep charring
B. White ash
C. Unburned fuel
D. Blackened canopy
C. Unburned fuel
Pg. 1150
When should debris in the area of origin be moved?
A. Once the atmosphere has been tested and found safe
B. Not until receiving orders to do so
C. At the completion of salvage operations
D. At the earliest feasible time
B. Not until receiving the orders to do so
Pg. 1146
What is the sequence of events that brings the first ignited fuel into contact with the ignition source?
A. Proximate cause
B. Chain of causation
C. Fire cause
D. Sequence of ignition
C. Fire cause
Pg. 1146
Which finding suggests involvement of a flammable liquid?
A. Multiple points of origin
B. Several rekindles in the same area
C. Heavy charring in the area of origin
D. Pool-shaped burn patter on the floor
D. Pool-shaped burn pattern on the floor
Pg. 1148-1149
When should overhaul operations begin?
A. Upon completion of salvage operations
B. When authorized by the IC or investigator
C. After evidence has been located and collected
D. After determination of cause and origin
B. When authorized by the IC or investigator
Pg. 1162
All of these circumstances are suspicious findings EXCEPT ONE. CHOOSE THE EXCEPTION.
A. Forced entry made prior to fire department arrival
B. Unusual odors
C. Multiple points of origin
D. House and contents well-kept and in good condition
D. House and contents well-kept and in good condition
Pg. 1156
what is the most important responsibility of firefighters in fire investigation?
A. Collection of evidence
B. Preservation of evidence
C. Determination of cause
D. Observation of suspicious circumstances
B. Preservation of evidence
Pg. 1145
Which one of these would be the LEAST suspicious finding?
A. Disabled fire and intrusion alarms
B. Relevant financial documents in possession of the beneficiary
C. Relative lack of furniture and other items in the structure
D. Unusual burn patterns
C. Relative lack of furniture and other items in the structure
Pg. 1159
What is the term for evidence that is not preserved by someone who has the responsibility to do so?
A. Spoliation
B. Invalidation
C. Contamination
D. Direption
A. Spoliation
Pg. 1164
What is the general location where the ignition source and the fuel come together for the first time?
A. Point of origin
B. Heel
C. Area of origin
D. Area of ignition
C. Area of origin
Pg. 1145