What should be done after a self-closing door is forced?
a. return the door to the closed position
b. allow the mechanism to resume its normal operation
c. cut the actuation cable
d. chock the door in the open position
d. chock the door in the open position
How much damage is caused by forcing the locks on double-hung windows?
a. moderate
b. none
c. minor
d. extensive
d. extensive
Which action should fire fighters perform first before forcing a door?
a. gap the door
b. look for a glass panel in or adjacent to the door
c. sound the surrounding wall
d. check for the presence of a dead bolt
b. look for a glass panel in or adjacent to the door
How are jalousie windows normally opened and closed?
a. pulling the chain attached to the drum
b. sliding the sash within the frame
c. turning a small hand-crank
d. using a remote operated electric motor
c. turning a small hand-crank
Which type of glass is used in most sliding doors?
a. tempered
b. laminated
c. annealed
d. polycarbonate
a. tempered
Which of the following is a type of door frame?
a. jointed
b. stiled
c. stopped
d. dadoed
c. stopped
For forcible entry, who usually determines the point of entry and method to be used?
a. fire fighter
b. chief officer
c. company officer
d. incident commander
c. company officer
Which type of tool is a pick-head axe?
a. combination
b. cutting
c. prying
d. striking
b. cutting
Which type of cutting blade can be damaged by gasoline vapors?
a. carbide tip
b. plastic
c. wood
d. metal
d. metal
Which statement about outward-opening doors is correct?
a. these doors can be identified by their exposed stiles
b. the hinges of these doors are not accessible
c. these doors are designed to facilitate exit
d. these doors are typically found on residenti
c. these doors are designed to facilitate exit
Forcible entry tools are classified by type. What is one of those classifications?
a. striking
b. rotary
c. nondestructive
d. lever
a. striking
What is the minimum acceptable level of protective equipment when conducting forcible entry during fire suppression operations?
a. helmet, coat and gloves
b. helmet and eye protection
c. gloves and eye protection
d. full structural firefighting PPE
d. full structural firefighting PPE
A K tool is used in combination with _______.
a. vise grips
b. a strap wrench
c. a pick head axe
d. a pry bar
d. a pry bar
Which of the following is one of the four major categories of door locks?
a. cylindrical
b. tumbler
c. dead bold
d. recessed
a. cylindrical
Breaching of which type of wall is most likely to result in structural collapse?
a. sleeper
b. bearing
c. partition
d. exterior
b. bearing
What is one of the three types of wooden swinging doors?
a. tambour
b. panel
c. gibb
d. stopped
b. panel
Which type of door is typically used for entrance doors?
a. solid core
b. panel
c. hollow core
d. ledge
a. solid core
Which hazard should be of particular concern to fire fighters who are carrying long tools?
a. self-closing doors
b. tight turns in corridor
c. overhead wires
d. windows
c. overhead wires
Tempered glass is about ______ as strong as regular glass.
a. four times
b. half
c. twice
d. equally
a. four times
Which type of glass is normally used in automobile windshields?
a. annealed
b. laminated
c. tempered
d. reinforced
b. laminated
Which part of a door lock catches and holds the door frame?
a. striker
b. shackle
c. latch
d. mortise
c. latch
What is the term for a small opening in which a prying tool can be inserted?
a. purchase
b. anchor
c. maw
d. bite
d. bite
Which tool is designed for both cutting and prying?
a. pry axe
b. halligan
c. ram bar
d. bam bam
a. pry axe
What is the one of the two styles of wooden door frames?
a. rabbet
b. ledge
c. barn
d. finger joint
a. rabbet
Which type of window is made of overlapping sections of tempered glass in a metal frame?
a. jointed
b. jalousie
c. projected
d. casement
b. jalousie
What is the term for the transparent part of a window?
a. glass
b. glazing
c. light
d. lens
b. glazing
Which type of tool is used to apply an impact force directly on another tool or object?
a. lever
b. striking
c. impact
d. swinging
b. striking
What is the U-shaped part of a padlock that locks into the padlock body?
a. bow
b. latch
c. tongue
d. shackle
d. shackle
Which circular saw blade is susceptible to damage from gasoline vapors?
a. all blades
b. wood
c. polycarbonate
d. masonry
d. masonry
A chisel is classified as a ______ tool.
a. pushing/pulling
b. prying/spreading
c. cutting
d. striking
d. striking
What is an approved treatment to prevent rusting of bare metal tool surfaces?
a. paint
b. a light film of oil
c. cosmoline
d. a nonflammable rust inhibitor
b. a light film of oil
A specialized tool for tightening or loosening hose couplings is the ______ wrench.
a. spanner
b. ring
c. strap
d. hose
a. spanner
Which of the following is a common type of handsaw?
a. chop
b. coping
c. lanier
d. band
b. coping
What is a common use for a wooden wedge during overhaul?
a. stopping the flow of water from a sprinkler head
b. plugging a gas leak
c. pulling a meter
d. shoring unstable objects
a. stopping the flow of water from a sprinkler head
When should fire fighters begin to think about which tools they might need for a given call?
a. during the response
b. after size up
c. at the beginning of the shift
d. upon arrival at the scene
a. during the response
The use of a fan to blow clean air into a structure and force fire gases out is known as ______ ventilation.
a. positive pressure
b. mechanical
c. ejection
d. horizontal
a. positive pressure
Which tool has two retractable blades?
a. ceiling hook
b. plaster hook
c. a tool
d. shove knife
b. plaster hook
Which statement about painting hand tools is correct?
a. paint will evolve flammable vapors in a fire environment
b. rust-inhibiting paint should be applied to the nonworking surfaces of metal tools
c. paint will extend the life of wood handles
d. the use
d. the use of paint on tools can hide defects or damage
Which saw is designed for cutting curves into wood?
a. coping
b. fret
c. hacksaw
d. carpenter's handsaw
a. coping
Rotating tools are used to assemble parts that are connected by which means?
a. threaded fasteners
b. welds
c. nails
d. rivets
a. threaded fasteners
Which tool is most commonly used for debris removal?
a. hux
b. pike pole
c. shovel
d. pulaski
c. shovel
Which statement about the use of existing roof openings for vertical ventilation is correct?
a. no additional openings should be cut in a roof that has preexisting openings
b. existing roof openings are generally impractical to force open
c. existing roof
d. existing roof openings should be used whenever possible
Which tool is part of the basic set of interior fire fighting tools?
a. rotating tool
b. lever
c. fulcrum tool
d. prying tool
d. prying tool
A Roberts head is a type of _______.
a. cylinder head
b. axe head
c. screwdriver
d. maul
c. screwdriver
For which application would the use of a pick-head axe be incorrect?
a. puncturing a door
b. prying up boards
c. ventilating a roof
d. striking another tool
d. striking another tool
Which wrench has a closed end and is used to tighten nuts and bolts?
a. adjustable
b. spanner
c. box-end
d. pipe
c. box-end
Which tool is a hand powered hydraulic spreader tool?
a. spanner
b. rabbet
c. pivot
d. kelly
b. rabbet
Which mechanical device is needed to accomplish negative pressure ventilation?
a. draft curtain
b. fog stream
c. chainsaw
d. fan
d. fan
At a minimum, a dispatch message should include which item of information?
a. Type of emergency
b. Location of the reporting party
c. Assigned tactical radio frequency
d. Level of severity
a. type of emergency
Which of the following is a component of typical natural gas service?
a. A cylinder-mounted petcock
b. A pressure-reducing valve
c. A storage tank
d. A protective dome
b. A pressure-reducing valve
Which type of attack is typically used for a small fire in a room?
a. Offensive
b. Quick
c. Transitional
d. Combination
a. Offensive
The upper temperature limit in which people can survive is _____.
a. 212�F (100�C)
b. 318�
c. 270�F (132�C)
d. 350�F (176�C)
a. 212�F (100�C)
What is the term for the process of finding and completely extinguishing any remaining pockets of fire?
a. Salvage
b. Investigation
c. Mop-up
d. Overhaul
d. Overhaul
What do fire departments commonly use to manage incidents that require more resources than are immediately available?
a. A local incident management system
b. Mutual aid agreements
c. A regional emergency operations center
d. Isolation and withdrawal poli
b. Mutual aid agreements
The priorities of the basic five fire-ground objectives are ________.
a. Not separate but exclusive
b. Separate but not exclusive
c. Not separate and not exclusive
d. Separate and exclusive
c. not separate and not exclusive
It is of particular importance to control utilities prior to ________.
a. ventilating the roof
b. setting up positive-pressure ventilation
c. beginning salvage operations
d. opening walls
d. opening walls
What is one of the two basic categories of information on which size-up is based?
a. Projections
b. Probabilities
c. Risk
d. Estimates
b. Probabilities
Before opening doors or exiting the apparatus, fire fighters should always check for ________.
a. A patent face piece seal
b. Pump engagement
c. Smoke indicators
d. Traffic hazards
d. Traffic hazards
The incident commander outlines the steps needed to bring an incident under control in the ______.
a. Incident action plan
b. Report on conditions
c. Situation status report
d. Initial report
a. incident action plan
What is the first step in making plans to manage an emergency incident?
a. Perform size-up
b. Establish command
c. Transmit/receive the initial report
d. Establish personnel accountability
a. preform size-up
Who first developed RECEO tactical model?
a. Alan Brunacini
b. John Norman
c. Llyod Layman
d. James Smith
c. Lloyd Layman
Taking action without orders or regard to SOPs is known as _______.
a. Freelancing
b. Independent action
c. Improvisation
d. Initiative
a. Freelancing
What is a common indicator of hidden fire burning within a wall?
a. Blistering paint
b. Charring of gypsum board
c. Deformation
d. Crackling sounds
a. Blistering paint
As an incident progresses, what is an additional factor to be evaluated in the ongoing size-up?
a. Establishment of an overall goal for the incident
b. The effectiveness of the initial plan
c. Actions that can be safely accomplished
d. Additional resource
b. The effectiveness of the initial plan
Which location presents the most immediate life-safety hazard for an apartment fire?
a. The uppermost floor of the building
b. The apartments adjacent to the fire
c. The apartment directly above the fire
d. The apartment directly underneath the fire
c. The apartment directly above the fire
Fire fighters attack the fire with heavy streams from outside the fire building during a(n) _____ attack.
a. Perimeter
b. Offensive
c. Defensive
d. Indirect
c. Defensive
Which activity is acceptable while riding in a moving apparatus?
a. Briefly unbolting to don PPE on the way to a call
b. Tailboard riding with a safety strap
c. Use of hearing protection
d. Riding without a safety belt in a fully enclosed cab
c. Use of hearing protection
In a typical fire department rank structure, an assistant chief reports to the ______.
a. section chief
b. chief of the department
c. command staff
d. battalion chief
b. chief of the department
Which term can be defined as the set of guidelines that a department establishes for its fire fighters?
a. Unity of command
b. Span of control
c. Discipline
d. Training
c. discipline
In a typical fire department rank structure, an assistant chief reports to the ______.
a. section chief
b. chief of the department
c. command staff
d. battalion chief
b. Chief of the Department
Which of the following are developed to provide definitive guidelines for present and future actions?
a. Regulations
b. Standard operating procedures
c. Policies
D. After action reports
c. Policies
Which term can be defined as the set of guidelines that a department establishes for its fire fighters?
a. Unity of command
b. Span of control
c. Discipline
d. Training
c. Discipline
Truck companies are sometimes referred to as ______ companies.
a. rapid intervention
b. rescue
c. ladder
d.engine
c. Ladder
For whom should fire fighters consider that they work?
a. The tax paying citizens
b. Themselves
c. Their supervisors
d. Their team
a. the tax paying citizens
The number of people whom one person can supervise effectively is known as ______.
a. chain of command
b. division of labor
c. span of control
d. functional supervision
c. span of control
Which development led to the widespread use of the mechanized pumping apparatus?
a. Private insurance companies
b. Wagon mounted steam engines
c. Jacketed hose
d. Internal combustion engines
d. Internal combustion engines
In the fire service, the bugle has become a symbol of
_____.
a. authority
b. courage
c. fraternity
d. service
a. authority
Medical requirements for fire fighters are specified in which NFPA standard?
a. 1002
b. 1582
c. 1962
d. 904
b. 1582
Which type of company specializes in saving victims from fires, confined spaces, trenches, and high angle situations?
a. Rescue
b. Rapid Intervention
c. Truck
d. Engine
a. Rescue
NFPA standards are ________.
a. regulatory law
b. administrative law
c. consensus documents
d. model codes
c. consensus documents
Which rank is directly above a lieutenant in the fire service?
a. Division/group supervisor
b. Division chief
c. Captain
d. Battalion chief
c. Captain
What does the "S" stand for in "SOP"?
a. Standard
b. Sequential
c. Specific
d. Special
a. Standard
Where was the first fire insurance company formed in America?
a. New York, New York
b. Boston, Massachusetts
c. Charleston, South Carolina
d. Chicago, Illinois
c. Charleston, South Carolina
Training and performance qualifications for firefighters are specified in which NFPA standard?
a. 1021
b. 472
c. 1001
d. 1500
c. 1001
Which position specializes in reviewing plans for fire detection and suppression systems for functionality and code compliance?
a. Fire protection engineer
b. Fire prevention officer
c. Fire systems specialist
d. Fire marshal
a. Fire protection engineer
Who developed the first fire hydrant?
a. John Lofton
b. Ben Franklin
c. Hans Hautsch
d. George Smith
d. George Smith
The individual responsible for the overall management of an incident is the ______.
a. incident commander
b. company officer
c. commanding officer
d. operations chief
a. incident commander
The earliest known fire department was in _________.
a. ancient Rome
b. Germany
c. Greece
d. the Ottoman Empire
a. ancient Rome
Which type of company is responsible for securing a water source, deploying handlines, and putting water on the fire?
a. Pumper
b. Initial attack
c. Engine
d. Truck
c. Engine
Three out of four career fire fighters work in jurisdictions with a population of _________ or more.
a. 75,000
b. 25,000
c. 50,000
d. 100,000
b. 25,000
A fire fighter will most typically report directly to a person of which rank?
a. Battalion chief
b. Lieutenant
c. Unit leader
d. Section chief
b. Lieutenant
Organizing an incident by breaking down the overall strategy into a series of smaller tasks is an example of _____.
a. span of control
b. unity of command
c. division of labor
d. discipline
c. division of labor
Which national organization writes codes and standards for fire protection?
a. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
b. United States
c. Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA)
d. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA)
d. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA)
Which of the following is the organizational structure through which a department manages its routine and emergency operations?
a. Incident command system
b. Division of labor
c. Chain of command
d. Scalar structure
c. Chain of Command
Specific information on the actions to be taken to accomplish a certain task is provided by _______.
a. Policies
b. Rules and regulations
c. Standard operating procedures
d. Incident action plans
c. standard operating procedures
A fire fighter with specialized knowledge and training for high angle rescue, structural collapse, trench rescue, confined space, and similar operations is a _______.
a. Special operations technician
b. Fire Fighter II
c. Search and rescue technician
d. t
d. technical rescue technician
Which basic management principle says that each fire fighter should answer to only one supervisor?
a. Organizational accountability
b. Division of labor
c. Unity of command
d. Span of control
c. Unity of command
Which position servers as a liaison between the incident commander and the news media?
a. Public information officer
b. Liaison officer
c. Agency representative
d. Planning section chief
a. Public information officer
Which are the two levels of NFPA fire fighter certification?
a. A and B
b. Basic and Advanced
c. Junior and Senior
d. I and II
d. I and II
Which of the following was one of the major U.S. fires of 1871?
a. Great New Orleans fire
b. Great Fire of Pittsburgh
c. Great Chicago fire
d. Great Boston fire
c. Great Chicago fire
A fire fighter with specialized training for aircraft and airport related incidents is a(n) _______.
a. technical rescue technician
b. aircraft rescue fire fighter
c. hazardous material technician
d. aviation operations specialist
b. aircraft rescue fire fighter
The goal of ______ is to ensure that all members of the agency perform a given task in a uniform way.
a. The manual of operations
b. Policies
c. Standard operating procedures
d. Tactical objectives
b. Policies
The upper limit of span of control in a complex, dynamic situation is generally considered to be ___ to 1.
a. 5
b. 10
c. 20
d. 15
a. 5
Who is responsible for coordinating the activities of several fire companies in a defined geographic area such as a district?
a. Section chief
b. Captain
c. Battalion Chief
d. Assistant Chief
c. Battalion Chief
A fire fighter who is trained and certified in chemical identification, leak control and decontamination is a(n) ____.
a. Material technical specialist
b. Fire Fighter II
c. Spill management technician
d. Hazardous materials technician
d. hazardous material technician
Which type of company specializes in incidents involving spilled or leaking hazardous chemicals?
a. Hazardous material
b. Truck
c. Salvage
d. Engine
a. Hazardous material
Which of the following is one of the four basic management principles used by fire departments?
a. Division of labor
b. Common terminology
c. Delegation of authority
d. Management by objective
a. Division of labor
Approximately ____ percent of fire fighters in the United States are volunteers.
a. 34
b. 46
c. 55
d. 73
d. 73
Which style of leadership does the fire department use?
a. Paramilitary
b. Top centralized
c. Decentralized
d. Distributed
a. Paramilitary
What does the Golden Rule mean when applied to the fire service?
a. Treat everyone else as if they were a member of your family
b. Working as a team is essential to success
c. Stay humble and teachable, and be willing to teach others
d. Honor the job by w
a. Treat everyone else as if they were a member of your family
Which organization developed the Everybody Goes Home Program?
a. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
b. National Fallen Firefighters Foundation (NFFF)
c. International Association of Firefighters (IAFF)
d. National Fire Protection Associa
b. National Fallen Firefighters Foundation (NFFF)
When responding to domestic disputes or other scenes involving violence, fire fighters should ______.
a. attempt to mediate the dispute
b. wait for law enforcement to declare the scene safe
c. call for a critical incident stress debriefing team
d. remove
b. wait for law enforcement to declare the scene safe
Which of the following is a life threatening condition requiring immediate medical care?
a. Heat exhaustion
b. Heat stroke
c. Heat shock
d. None of the above
b. Heat stroke
Which part of the body should be used for a heavy lift?
a. The shoulder girdle
b. The abdomen
c. The legs
d. The waist
c. the legs
Approximately _____ fire fighters are killed in the line of duty each year in the United States.
a. 1000
b. 10
c. 100
d. 10,000
c. 100
What is the minimum number of fire fighters required to make up a firefighting team?
a. 4
b. 3
c. 2
d. 1
c. 2
It is estimated that one vehicle accident involving an emergency vehicle occurs for every ____ emergency responses.
a. 1000
b. 5000
c. 100
d. 10,000
a. 1000
What is a common sign or symptom of heat stroke?
a. Hot, dry skin
b. Cramping
c. Profuse sweating
d. Bradycardia
a. Hot, dry skin
Which of the following is one of the three methods by which team members working in hazardous area should maintain contact with one another at all times?
a. OTOH
b. Rope
c. Visual
d. Radio
C. Visual
Who has the authority to directly and immediately stop any activity on the fire ground that he or she judges to be unsafe?
a. Safety officer
b. Division/group supervisors
c. All personnel
d. Company officer
a. Safety Officer
In the United States, the number of fire fighter deaths that occurs during emergency operations is _____ the number that occur during nonemergency activates.
a. nearly five teams
b. about equal to
c. about twice
d. about half
b. about equal to
If one team member must exit a hazard area for any reason, what should the rest of the team do?
a. Defer to the team leader, who should decided based on the circumstances
b. Exit as the entire team together
c. Continue working on their assignment
d. Assig
b. Exit as the entire team together
The sole responsibility of a(n) ______ is to provide emergency assistance to crews working inside the hazardous area.
a. interior attack
b. rapid intervention crew
c. buddy system
d. rescue group
b. rapid intervention crew
Who should accompany a fire fighter sent to the rehabilitation area?
a. an EMT
b. No one; the affected fire fighter should go to rehab alone
c. The entire crew
d. One member of his or her crew
c. the entire crew
What is the term for acting without a superiors order or outside of department SOPs?
a. Independent action
b. Decentralized authority
c. Initiative
d. Freelancing
d. Freelancing
Which of the following is an essential element of safe emergency operations?
a. Initiative
b. Teamwork
c. Sacrifice
d. Integrity
b. Teamwork
Health and safety programs for the fire fighters are the subject of NFPA _____.
a. 1001
b. 1500
c. 1901
d. 1021
b. 1500
How soon after a traumatic call should a critical incident stress debriefing (CISD) be held?
a. As soon as possible
b. Within a week
c. Within 24 hours
d. Within 72 hours
a. as soon as possible
Which statement about downed electrical wires is correct?
a. Turnout boots and thick rubber glove will afford you sufficient protection.
b. A down power line may be safely pinned down under the tire of the apparatus.
c. Fire fighters should operation unde
c.Fire fighters should operate under the assumption that all downed utility lines are energized.
The majority of fire fighter injuries are ______.
a. Soft tissue injuries
b. Inhalation injuries
c. Burns
d. Strains and sprains
d. strains and sprains
What is the purpose of a personnel accountability system?
a. Track personnel and assignments on the emergency scene
b. Prevent freelancing
c. Brief newly arriving crews on the situation status
d. Ensure completion of tasks delegated to fire fighters
a. track personnel and assignments on the emergency scene
What is the relationship between habits developed in training and performance on the fire ground?
a. Habits formed in training necessarily become abbreviated and rushed on the fire ground.
b. Habits developed in training will continue on the fire ground.
b. habits developed in training will continue on the fire ground
Who is responsible for determining when removal of SCBA is permissible after a fire has been extinguished?
a. The company officer
b. Each individual is responsible for this decision
c. The incident commander
d. The safety officer
d. the safety officer
When is freelancing acceptable during emergency operations?
a. Prior to the establishment of an incident command structure
b. Whenever such action will result in a favorable outcome
c. In response to sudden changes in circumstances or conditions
d. Never
d. Never
If, during training, you observe an unsafe practice, what should you do?
a. Take immediate action to reduce the hazard
b. Bring it to the attention of the instructor or designated safety officer
c. Stay focused on your own assignment
d. Alert the members
b. ring it to the attention of the instructor or designed safety officer.
A primary goal of investigating each fire fighter accident or injury is to ________.
a. determine whether misfeasance occurred
b. assess civil liability exposure
c. determine how such an incident can be avoided in the future
d. establish patterns and tren
c. determine how such an incident can be avoided in the future
When is it acceptable to drive a fire apparatus over a downed power line?
a. In an emergency situation where there is no alternative approach
b. Only if it can be done in such a way that no two tires touch the downed line simultaneously
c. If the wire is
d. Never
Which of the following is one of the 16 Firefighter Life Safety Initiatives?
a. Promote mandatory participation in fire fighter fitness and wellness programs
b. Fight fire aggressively buy plan for safety first
c. Ensure that fire fighters have access to
c. Ensure that fire fighters have access to counseling and psychological support services
Approximately ____ percent of fire fighters who die in vehicle collisions are not wearing seat belts.
a. 10
b. 40
c. 50
d. 25
b. 40
Which of the following is one of the 16 Firefighter Life Safety Initiatives?
a. Ensure a mandatory rest period following full consumption of a single SCBA
b. Utilize technology whenever it can produce higher levels of safety and health
c. Develop and prom
b. Utilize technology wherever it can produce higher levels of safety and health
At an emergency scene, the safety officer reports directly to the _______.
a. Operations chief
b. Medical group supervisor
c. General staff
d. Incident commander
d. incident commander
Which statement best summarizes the types of incidents for which the incident command system (ICS) be should be implemented?
a. Incidents exceeding a single 0perational period
b. Incidents where the incident commander's span of control is exceeded
c. Inci
d. all emergency incidents
Fire fighters should drink _____ of water for every 5 to 10 minutes of physical exertion.
a. 12 to 15 oz (0.35 5o 0.45 L)
b. 16 to 20 oz (0.5 to 0.6 L)
c. 8 to 10 oz (0.2 to 0.3 L)
d. 2 to 4 oz (60 to 120 mL)
c. 8 to 10 oz. (.2 to .3 L)
What does the "buddy system" refer to?
a. The passport personnel accountability system
b. Two in, Two out
c. A team of two partners who maintain constant contact
d. The tradition of "No one left behind
c. A team of two partners who maintain constant contact
Fire fighters should spend a minimum of ____ minutes per day in physical fitness training.
a. 30
b. 15
c. 45
d. 60
d. 60
A fire department is required to have a _____ to track personnel and assignments at an emergency scene.
a. passport systems
b. situation status report
c. unit log
d. personnel accountability system
d. personnel accountability system
The majority of fire fighter deaths are caused by ______.
a. asphyxiation
b. heart attack or stroke
c. burns
d. trauma
b. heart attack or stroke
Which of the following must occur before self contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) is removed?
a. A personnel accountability report has been performed
b. All remaining fire has been extinguished
c. The atmosphere has been tested and found safe
d. Salvage
c. the atmosphere has been tested and found safe
Following notification of an emergency response, when should fire fighters don personal protective equipment (PPE)?
a. After the first arriving unit gives its report on conditions
b. Upon dismounting the apparatus at the scene
c. While on the apparatus, e
d. Prior to mounting the apparatus
Which term describes the small magnetic boards carried by company officers as part of a personnel accountability system?
a. Dog tags
b. Passports
c. Scoreboards
d. Unit rosters
b. Passports
Fire fighters responding to a dispatch in a emergency vehicles are exempt from _______.
a. only those exemptions specified by statute
b. traffic laws dealing with traffic signals and parking
c. most civil and criminal liability
d. standards of reasonable
a. only those exemptions specified by statute
At least one member of every interior firefighting team should be equipped with a ________.
a. a spare SCBA cylinder
b. guide rope
c. portable radio
d. thermal imager
c. portable radio
The majority of ground cover fires are extinguished with which item?
a. backfire
b. aircraft
c. backpack pump
d. CAFS
c. backpack pump
Which tool is a combination of hoe and rake?
a. forestry hoe
b. combination
c. Pulaski
d. McLeod
d. McLeod
What is a consequence of falling relative humidity?
a. falling burn index
b. increased lapse rate
c. decreased ignitability
d. decreased fuel moisture
d. decreased fuel moisture
What is the term for the capability of an apparatus to pump water while moving?
a. dual drive
b. auxiliary drive
c. power take off
d. pump and roll
d. pump and roll
Subsurface fuels are challenging to deal with because they are ______.
a. hard to locate
b. continuous
c. highly susceptible to changes in weather
d. readily ignitable
a. hard to locate
What is the term for a long, narrow extension of fire projecting out from the main body of a wildland fire?
a. spot
b. island
c. finger
d. run
c. finger
Why do compact fuels burn slowly?
a. they retain moisture
b. they are less continuous
c. they have less surface area
d. air cannot circulate as freely
d. air cannot circulate as freely
Which type of map details changes in elevation?
a. topographic
b. cartometric
c. planometric
d. orthographic
a. topographic
A safety zone should be large enough ______.
a. to fit apparatus as well as personnel
b. to be accessible by rotary-winged aircraft
c. to accommodate an entire division
d. that fire shelters are not needed to prevent injury
d. that fire shelters are not needed to prevent injury
Which NFPA standard covers wildland fire fighter professional qualifications?
a. 1051
b. 1021
c. 1041
d. 1031
a. 1051
What is the term for the burned area of a wildland fire?
a. body
b. black
c. heel
d. island
b. black
What does the "E" in LCES stand for?
a. Escape routes
b. Expect surprises
c. Establish accountability
d. Establish lookouts
a. Escape routes (Lookout, Communications, Escape route, Safety zone)
The most rapidly moving part of a wildland fire is the _____.
a. point
b. head
c. apex
d. foot
b. head
Which tool combines an axe with an adze?
a. council rake
b. McLeod
c. Brush hook
d. Pulaski
d. Pulaski
Which condition will generally result in lower relative humidity?
a. higher fuel moisture
b. increasing temperature
c. nighttime
d. precipitation
b. increasing temperature
What is another term for surface fuels?
a. litter
b. understory
c. ground
d. duff
c. ground
Wildland fuels that lie under the surface of the ground are _____ fuels.
a. substory
b. duff
c. understory
d. subsurface
d. subsurface
What is the most common type of wildland fire?
a. forest
b. brush
c. ground cover
d. crown
c. ground cover
What is slash?
a. partially decomposed organic matter
b. debris from logging or clearing operations
c. partially burned fuel
d. seasonal ground cover
b. debris from logging or clearing operations
Which term means areas where underdeveloped land with vegetative fuels is mixed with human-made structures?
a. greenbelt
b. rural-urban intermix
c. wild-urban interface
d. rural development zone
c. wild-urban interface
What is a characteristic of fine fuels?
a. resistance to rapid changes in fuel moisture
b. difficulty in extinguishing them
c. large surface area relative to volume
d. long burn duration
c. large surface area relative to volume
What is one of the 10 standard wildland firefighting order?
a. do not attempt to outrun a fire uphill
b. base all actions on current and expected fire behavior
c. focus on what is not burning, rather than what is burning
d. attack the flanks of the fire,
b. base all actions on current and expected fire behavior
10 Wildland Fire Order:
1. keep informed on the fire weather conditions & forecasts
2. know what you fire is doing at all times
3. base all actions on current and expected fire behavior
4. identify
Which fuel classification included large brush?
a. ground
b. heavy
c. moderate
d. median
b. heavy
Which extinguishing agent is best suited for use in wildland fire operations?
a. AFFF
b. carbon dioxide
c. compressed air foam
d. dry chemical
c. compressed air foam
What is the area between the fingers of a wildland fire?
a. joint
b. pocket
c. island
d. peninsula
b. pocket
What is another term for aerial fuels?
a. raised
b. canopy
c. ladder
d. elevated
b. canopy
What is dry lightning?
a. a lightning strike that does not cause a fire
b. lightning strike without rain
c. lightning that does not contact the ground
d. lightning occurring in otherwise fair weather
b. lightning strike without rain
Which factor has the greatest effect on the moisture content of fuels?
a. temperature
b. continuity
c. wind
d. relative humidity
d. relative humidity
Which federal government agency manages wildland incidents occurring on federal lands?
a. Occupational Health and Safety Administration
b. US Fire Administration
c. US Forest Service
f. Federal Emergency Management Agency
c. US Forest Service
Which of the following is a component of the wildland fire triangle?
a. fuel moisture
b. wind
c. heat
d. humidity
c. heat
The maximum diameter of a 1 hour fuel is ____.
a. 1 "
b. 1/2"
c. 1/4"
d. 3/4
c. 1/4
What is the term for the natural and human-made features of land?
a. geology
b. cartography
c. topography
d. geography
c. topography
What is usually the main type of fuel present in ground cover fires?
a. heavy
b. fine
c. light
d. course
b. fine
The unburned part of a wildand fire area is the ______.
a. clear
b. island
c. perimeter
d. green
d. green
What is the term for an area of unburned land surrounded by burned land?
a. pocket
b. heel
c. finger
d. island
d. island
Fuels that are in contact with each other are described as _____.
a. continuous
b. uninterrupted
c. compact
d. unbroken
a. continuous
The location near where a wildland fire began is the _______.
a. origin
b. heel
c. launch
d. source
b. heel
Which component of the fire triangle is in greatest abundance in a wildland fire?
a. heat
b. fuel
c. oxygen
d. reducing agent
c. oxygen
Aerial fuels are at least ____ above the ground.
a. 6ft
b. 10ft
c. 8ft
d. 4ft
a. 6ft
If a wildland or ground cover fire is too dangerous for a direct attack, which type of fire attack should be used?
a. pincer
b. flanking
c. head
d. indirect
d. indirect
The distance between fire fighters is a safety zone and the flames should be a minimum of ____ times the flame height.
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 2
b. 4
The smothering method of extinguishment is most frequently used in which wildland operation?
a. indirect attack
b. direct attack
c. overhaul
d. cold trailing
c. overhaul
Typical backpack pumps contain ______.
a. 4 to 8 gal
b. 8to 12 gal
c. 2 to 4 gal
d. 5 to 10 gal
a. 4 to 8 gal
What is one of the two primary methods of direct attack on a wildland fire?
a. aerial
b. backfire
c. pincer
d. frontal
c. pincer
Which fuel is most susceptible to changes in relative humidity?
a. compacted
b. grass
c. brush
d. aerial
b. grass
Which type of wildland fire attack is made on the fire's burning edge?
a. indirect
b. direct
c. frontal
d. offensive
b. direct
What is the ratio of water in air compared to the maximum amount of water vapor that air can hold at a given temperature?
a. saturation index
b. barometric pressure
c. moisture ratio
d. relative humidity
d. relative humidity
On which basis are wildland fuels classified?
a. weight
b. moisture content
c. diameter
d. composition
c. diameter
What is one of the three categories of wildland fire causes?
a. spontaneous
b. conditional
c. criminal
d. intentional
d. intentional
What is the last resort for a fire fighter in danger of being overrun by a wildland fire?
a. flee to the safety zone
b. deploy a fire shelter
c. take shelter in a vehicle cab
d. take shelter in a house
b. deploy a fire shelter
What is one of the 10 standard wildland firefighting orders?
a. avoid downhill fire line construction
b. establish & maintain chain of command & span of control
c. keep informed on weather conditions and forecasts
d. beware of unburned fuel between you an
c. keep informed on weather conditions and forecasts
Which type of respiratory protection is normally used in wildland firefighting?
a. SCBA
b. PAPR
c. Filter Mask
d. APR
c. Filter Mask
What is one of the three categories of wildland fire causes?
a. proximal
b. electrical
c. natural
d. mechanical
c. natural
Which NFPA standard covers protective clothing and equipment for wildland firefighting?
a. 1980
b. 1978
c. 1977
d. 1979
c. 1977
The NFPA defines wildland fires as unplanned and uncontrolled fire burning in _____ fuel.
a. natural
b. living
c. vegetative
d. organic
c. vegetative
What is the term for the partly organic material on a forest floor?
a. ground duff
b. understory
c. litter
d. surface compost
a. ground duff
The quantity of wildland fuel available in specific area is fuel _______.
a. volume
b. loading
c. density
d. continuity
a. volume
Ground cover is an example of a(n) ______ fuel.
a. understory
b. compact
c. surface
d. live
c. surface
Which of the following is an example of a fine fuel?
a. grass
b. branch
c. root
d. stick
a. grass
In which type of fuel will a fire spread the most rapidly?
a. brush
b. slash
c. fine
d. compacted
c. fine
According to the NFPA, rehab should be required after ____ minutes of intense work without SCBA.
a. 20
b. 30
c. 40
d. 60
c. 40
How should company members check into the rehab center?
a. on an as needed basis
b. all members together
c. individually
d. in assigned pairs
b. all members together
What is the primary goal of rehabilitation?
a. replacement of SCBA cylinders
b. minimizing exposure to critical incident stress
c. restoring normal body temperature
d. reinforcing team integrity
c. restoring normal body temperature
PPE has the greatest effect on which body function?
a. temperature regulation
b. respiration
c. perfusion
d. cellular metabolism
a. temperature regulation
How does wearing PPE affect the body's ability to regulate temperature?
a. heat in efficiently conducted from the skin to the shell
b. cool SCBA cylinder air improves respiratory cooling
c. the perspiration-soaked inner liner enhances cooling by convectio
d. PPE prevents evaporative cooling
At 5% of dehydration, work capacity can be decreased by as much as ______.
a. 30%
b. 20%
c. 10%
d. 5%
a. 30%
Which of the following is a form of active cooling?
a. removal of PPE
b. rest in a shady area
c. rest in an air-conditioned environment
d. application of wet, cool towels
d. application of wet, cool towels
Which of the following is a form of passive cooling?
a. immersion in cool water
b. use of misting fans
c. application of wet towels
d. rest in an air-conditioned environment
d. rest in an air-conditioned environment
Once a fire fighter loses an initial 2 quarts of water of internal fluid, how long will rehydration take?
a. 5 to 15 minutes
b. 15 to 30 minutes
c. 30 to 60 minutes
d. 1 to 2 hours
d. 1 to 2 hours
The USFA recommends establishing a rehabilitation operation when the heat stress index reaches _______.
a. 90 degree F
b. 80 degree F
c. 95 degree F
d. 85 degree F
a. 90 degree F
Safety begins with _______.
a. taking personal responsibility
b. developing good habits
c. leadership by example
d. realistic training
a. taking personal responsibility
Which of the following activities produces the highest level of physiological stress?
a. vehicle accident requiring extrication
b. working in a fully encapsulated suit
c. a medical emergency where the victim is choking
d. back to back incidents
b. working in a fully encapsulated suit
Which of the following is a component of the seven part rehabilitation model?
a. air cylinder replacement
b. active/passive warming/cooling
c. injury prevention
d. check in/check out
b. active/passive warming/cooling
What is the most reliable way to stay well hydrated?
a. drink early and often
b. drink as much as you can during work periods
c. drink when you are thirsty
d. use urine color as an indicator of hydration
a. drink early and often
Protein should account for approximately ____ of calories in a balanced diet?
a. 25%
b. 40%
c. 10%
c. 55%
c. 10%
Drinks that contain _____ should be avoided for fluid replacement.
a. electrolytes
b. caffeine
c. salt
d. sugar
b. caffeine
When should a full rehabilitation center be established?
a. for any incident occurring in extreme weather
b. at all incidents requiring the use of PPE
c. at all incidents
d. in varies with conditions and the nature of the incident
b. at all incidents requiring the use of PPE
How are rehabilitation concerns affected by cold weather?
a. recommended fluid intake is reduced
b. PPE reduces the likelihood of hypothermia
c. drinking hot liquids should be prohibited
d. rehab should include access to dry clothing
d. rehab should include access to dry clothing
What is the body's primary source of energy?
a. electrolytes
b. protein
c. glucose
d. insulin
c. glucose
Who plans ahead to make sure there is a fresh or rested crew ready to rotate with a crew that needs rehabilitation?
a. the company officer
b. the logistics section chief
c. the staging officer
d. the incident commander
d. the incident commander
The amount of rest needed to recover from physical exertion is _______ related to the intensity of the work performed.
a. not
b. inversely
c. somewhat
d. directly
d. directly
What are electrolytes?
a. specialized tissues that conduct nerve impulses
b. compounds that provide energy for physical exertion
c. salts and other chemicals dissolved in body fluids
d. nutrients required for body temperature regulation
c. salts and other chemicals dissolved in body fluids
How does PPE prevent evaporate cooling?
a. perspiration is absorbed in the layers
b. the thermal barrier prevents heat transfer
c. the vapor barrier prevents evaporation of sweet
d. the liner reflects evaporative heat
c. the vapor barrier prevents evaporation of sweet
How does humidity affect the body's temperature-regulating mechanisms?
a. high humidity reduces evaporative cooling
b. the need for fluid replacement decreases as humidity increases
c. low humidity improves convective cooling
d. sweating increases as humi
a. high humidity reduces evaporative cooling
Which fire ground situation is most likely to result in bloating?
a. gulping water
b. use of positive pressure SCBA
c. heavy exertion
d. stress and anxiety
a. gulping water
According to NFPA, rehab should be required after a fire fighter has consumed ____ 30-minute SCBA bottle(s).
a. 4
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
c. 2
What is the best source of complex carbohydrates?
a. whole grain bread
b. red meat
c. fish
d. vegetables
a. whole grain bread
What is the effect of rest on physical endurance?
a. rest improves endurance
b. there is no significant effect
c. rest decreases endurance
d. the effect varies with the type of exertion
a. rest improves endurance
In which type of incident is the rehab center located farthest from the operational area?
a. confined space
b. wildland
c. high-rise
d. hazardous materials
d. hazardous materials
When does the rest phase begin during the rehabilitation process?
a. after body temperature has been restored
b. after rehydration and calorie replacement
c. upon arrival at the rehabilitation center
d. after the initial medical evaluation
c. upon arrival at the rehabilitation center
Which of the following is a component of the seven part rehabilitation model?
a. debriefing
b. rotation
c. stress management
d. medical monitoring
d. medical monitoring
What should fire fighters do with their PPE in rehabilitation?
a. keep it on in cold or wet weather
b. remove helmets, hoods and gloves
c. keep it on
d. remove it
d. remove it
The body's ability to absorb fluid is limited to approximately ____ per hour.
a. 1 pint
b. 1 gallon
c. 1 quart
d. 1 ounce
c. 1 quart
What is the most common source of saturated fats?
a. fish
b. animal products
c. deaf-leaf vegetables
c. cereal grains
b. animal products
At which type of incidents should a rehabilitation center be established?
a. incidents requiring the use of full PPE
b. all fire incidents
c. high intensity / long duration incidents
d. all incidents
c. high intensity / long duration incidents
The USFA recommends establishing a rehabilitation operation when the chill factor drops to ___ or lower.
a. 10 degrees F
b. 20 degrees F
c. 15 degrees F
d. 25 degrees F
a. 10 degrees F
What is the standard method for managing the workload for fire fighters working a high-rise fire?
a. hoist, rather than carry, tools and equipment
b. do not require PPE for personnel working in smoke-proof stairwells
c. assign several companies to do the
c. assign several companies to do the work normally assigned to one company
What is a common sign or symptom of low blood sugar?
a. excessive thirst
b. feeling weak and shaky
c. muscle cramps
d. nausea and vomiting
b. feeling weak and shaky
Which condition is defined as an internal body temperature less than 95 degree F?
a. frost bite
b. cold stroke
c. exposure
d. hypothermia
d. hypothermia
A PPE ensemble weighs at least ______.
a. 25 lb
b. 60 lb
c. 75 lb
d. 40 lb
d. 40 lb
How should fire fighters be released from rehabilitation?
a. individuals should be released as they complete the rehab process
b. all member of a company should be released together
c. personnel should be released on an as needed basis
d. personnel should
b. all member of a company should be released together
A fire fighter can lose up to ___ in an hour of strenuous exertion.
a. 1.5 quarts
b. 1 quart
c. .5 quart
d. 2 quarts
d. 2 quarts
Localized tissue damage resulting from prolonged exposure to cold is called _______.
a. hypothermia
b. frostbite
c. frostnip
d. coldsnap
b. frostbite
What is the main component in tissue growth and repair?
a. unsaturated fats
b. lipids
c. protein
d. carbohydrates
c. protein
Which statement about rehabilitation is correct?
a. a rehab center should be established at every incident
b. rehab should be limited to high intensity or long-duration incidents
c. rehab should be a consideration on every incident
d. the need for rehab s
c. rehab should be a consideration on every incident
Hypothermia is defined as body temperature less than ____.
a. 91 degrees F
b. 95 degrees F
c. 93 degrees F
d. 89 degrees F
b. 95 degrees F
The danger category of the heat stress index is determined by the _____.
a. relative humidity
b. duration of exposure
c. apparent temperature
d. air temperature
c. apparent temperature
As fatigue increases, the risk of injury ______.
a. stays the same
b. becomes unavoidable
c. increases
d. decreases
c. increases
At which type of incidents is rehabilitation a concern?
a. all fire incidents
b. all incidents
c. incidents requiring the use of full PPE
d. high intensity / long duration incidents
b. all incidents
What is the ideal location for the rehabilitation center at a high-rise fire?
a. in the lobby of the fire building
b. outside but nearby the fire building
c. in a safe location on the fire floor
d. 2 or 3 floors below the fire
d. 2 or 3 floors below the fire
Fire fighters wearing fully encapsulated suits are particularly susceptible to ______.
a. heat stress
b. mechanical injury
c. respiratory injury
d. cardiac arrhythmia
a. heat stress
What is the most serious consequence of untreated dehydration?
a. syncope
b. death
c. heat exhaustion
d. heat stroke
b. death
According to NFPA, the minimum rest time during rehabilitation is ____ minutes.
a. 20
b. 5
c. 10
d. 15
a. 20
Upon release from rehabilitation, fire fighters should _____.
a. be medically evaluated
b. report for reassignment
c. be released from the scene
d. return to their previous assignment
b. report for reassignment
Which fuel is used most readily by the body during high intensity physical activities?
a. carbohydrates
b. starch
c. amino acids
d. saturated fats
a. carbohydrates
What is the common sign or symptom of high blood glucose?
a. nausea/vomiting
b. syncope
c. sluggish feeling
d. profuse sweating
c. sluggish feeling
How are rehabilitation concerns affected by high humidity?
a. the likelihood of hypothermia increases with humidity
b. time spent is rehab can be reduced
c. rehab time must double
d. plain water only
d. plain water only
During short duration incidents, which type of nourishment is ideal for fire fighters to sustain peak performance levels?
a. caffeinated soda
b. low sugar, high protein sports bars
c. equal portions of protein, carbohydrate, and fat
d. plan water only
b. low sugar, high protein sports bars
Nutrition during extended-duration incidents should emphasize ______.
a. complete, balanced meals
b. fluid and electrolyte replacement
c. carbohydrate loading
d. high protein, high fat foods
a. complete, balanced meals
In the time it takes to consume two SCBA air cylinders, enough body fluid can be lost to result in ______.
a. heat exhaustion
b. impaired temperature regulation
c. syncope
d. heat stroke
d. heat stroke
Fats should account for approximately ____ of calories in a balanced diet.
a. 40 to 50 percent
b. 10 to 15 percent
c. 55 to 65 percent
d. 25 to 30 percent
d. 25 to 30 percent
What does the SAID (specific adaptation to imposed demands) principle apply to?
a. training methods
b. tactics and strategy
c. critical incident stress
d. rehabilitation
a. training methods
Carbohydrates should account for approximately ____ of calories in a balanced diet.
a. 30%
b. 45%
c. 60%
d. 75%
c. 60%
A fire fighter's first priority should be to take care of ______.
a. himself or herself
b. people affected by the incident
c. the general public
d. the members of his or her company
a. himself or herself
Which kind of steel has been specially treated to resist cutting by normal means?
a. case hardening
b. alloy
c. ductile
d. tempered
a. case hardening
What must be done prior to making forcible entry into a fire building?
a. utilities must be controlled
b. an "all clear" must be declared
c. the fire attack team must be ready
d. ventilation must be established
c. the fire attack team must be ready
Before beginning any forcible entry, which reminder phrase should fire fighters keep in mind?
a. without a hose, the fire grows
b. get low before you go
c. doors are replaceable; lives are not
d. try before you pry
d. try before you pry
Which tool is part of the "irons"?
a. pick head axe
b. mallet
c. flat-head axe
d. pry bar
c. flat-head axe
Where are the hinges placed on a casement window?
a. side
b. middle
c. top
d. bottom
a. side
Ideally, when forcible entry is used, what should fire fighters do before leaving the scene?
a. make the occupant aware of the unsecured openings
b. bring the matter to the attention of the LE personnel
c. take steps to secure the building
d. photograph a
c. take steps to secure the building
Which tool combines an axe, a pick, and a claw?
a. halligan bar
b. pick-head axe
c. ram bar
d. clemens
a. halligan bar
Which type of glass is normally used in automobile side and rear windows?
a. annealed
b. laminated
c. polycarbonated
d. tempered
d. tempered
Where should a fire fighter stand when breaking windows?
a. windward side of the window with the hands above the break
b. leeward side of the window with the hands below the break
c. leeward side of the window with the hands about the break
d. windward si
a. windward side of the window with the hands above the break
Which phase of a fire ground operation involves the observation and evaluation of factors used to determine the strategy and tactics to be employed?
a. evaluation
b. initial assessment
c. investigation
d. size-up
d. size-up
Which tool is designed to pull a lock cylinder out of a door?
a. rabbet tool
b. K tool
c. lock cutter
d. hux bar
b. K tool
What is required to perform vertical ventilation?
a. a positive pressure fan
b. a smoke ejector
c. an opening in the top of the building
d. a roof ladder
c. an opening in the top of the building
Which tool is classified as a rotating tool?
a. halligan
b. pike pole
c. screwdriver
d. pry bar
c. screwdriver
What is the rabbet tool used for?
a. making a temporary repair to a burst hose
b. forcing open a locked door
c. anchoring a rope
d. opening a hydrant
b. forcing open a locked door
What is the easiest, quickest way to ventilate interior spaces in a building?
a. use natural ventilation through windows
b. use the building HVAC system
c. create a vertical opening
d. open interior doors
d. open interior doors
Which statement best describes the process of overhaul?
a. overhaul ensures that all remaining fire is discovered and extinguished after the main fire has been knocked down
b. overhaul includes demobilization and the release of resources from the scene
c.
a. overhaul ensures that all remaining fire is discovered and extinguished after the main fire has been knocked down
For an extinguishing agent to be rated for a particular class of fire, it must ______.
a. be effective in portable volumes
b. prevent rekindling
c. be nontoxic
d. be noncorrosive
b. prevent rekindling
The use of Halon 1211 is strictly controlled because it is _____.
a. harmful to the environment
b. carcinogenic
c. mutagenic
d. a chemical asphyxiant
a. harmful to the environment
Which feature of some carbon dioxide extinguishers makes them dangerous for use on Class C fires?
a. steel cylinder
b. metal horn
c. loaded stream
d. external cartridge
b. metal horn
A class K agent's effect on the fuel is known as _______.
a. dissolution
b. emulsification
c. hydrolyzation
d. saponification
d. saponification
Which of the following is commonly used as a dry chemical extinguishing agent?
a. carbon tetrachloride
b. potassium hydrate
c. ammonium phosphate
d. calcium bicarbonate
c. ammonium phosphate
Which statement best summarizes when a dry chemical extinguisher should be serviced and recharged?
a. after a discharge resulting in loss of 30 percent or pressurization
b. after a discharge resulting in loss of 10 percent of pressurization
c. after any d
c. after any discharge
Bromochlorodifluoromenthane is a ______ agent.
a. class D
b. multipurpose dry chemical
c. halogenated
d. wet chemical
c. halogenated
What is one disadvantage of CO2 extinguishers?
a. corrosive residue
b. cost
c. electrical conductivity
d. short discharge range
d. short discharge range
All portable fire extinguishers use which means for expelling their contents?
a. volume
b. gravity
c. pressure
d. vacuum
c. pressure
Which class of fire involves energized electrical equipment?
a. C
b. B
c. D
d. A
a. C
How do multipurpose dry chemical agents prevent rekindling of Class A fuel?
a. by attracting and holding moisture
b. by forming a crust over the fuel
c. by penetrating the fuel
d. by interrupting the chemical chain reaction
b. by forming a crust over the fuel
Which compound is added to a water extinguisher to improve penetration of fuel?
a. alcohol
b. alkai metal salt
c. a wetting agent
d. bicarbonate
c. a wetting agent
What does it mean when a fire extinguisher has a pictograph with a red slash through it?
a. use on that class of fire would be ineffective
b. the fire extinguisher is rated for use on that class of fire
c. the fire extinguisher has not been tested for use
d. use on that class of fire could be hazardous
What is the term for the substance that puts out the fire?
a. propellant
b. extinguishing agent
c. live load
d. dry charge
b. extinguishing agent
Which agent is approved for use in a Class K system?
a. carbon dioxide
b. aqueous film-forming foam
c. dry chemical
d. wet chemical
d. wet chemical
A loaded stream extinguisher is designed to ______.
a. improve fuel penetration
b. resist freezing
c. prevent unnecessary water damage
d. create a foam blanket
b. resist freezing
A portable fire extinguisher is best suited for which situation?
a. room and contents fire
b. vegetation fire
c. car fire
d. fire in a wastebasket
d. fire in a wastebasket
If a private residence has a single fire extinguisher, where should it be located?
a. near the bedrooms
b. laundry area
c. kitchen
d. garage
c. kitchen
A class B foam extinguisher is NOT rated for which fuel?
a. cooking oil
b. paint thinner
c. diesel fuel
d. gasoline
a. cooking oil
All fire extinguishers are classified according to ______.
a. the classes of fire on which they are effective
b. their relative extinguishing power
c. the net weight of their contents
d. the type of extinguishing agent used
a. the classes of fire on which they are effective
What is a correct use for a portable fire extinguisher?
a. diluting flammable liquids
b. pretreating exposures
c. overhaul
d. situations in which the use of water is not recommended
d. situations in which the use of water is not recommended
Which hazard category includes automotive service or repair facilities?
a. moderate
b. extra
c. severe
d. ordinary
b. extra
For the purpose of fire extinguisher placement, what is the relationship between occupancy use category and hazard classification?
a. hazard determines occupancy
b. occupancy determines hazard
c. they are different terms for the same thing
d. they are not
d. they are not necessarily related
Which class of fire includes cloth?
a. B
b. C
c. A
d. D
c. A
Combustion begins when a fuel is heated to its _____.
a. lower flammable limit
b. fire point
c. flash point
d. ignition point
d. ignition point
What expels the extinguisher agent from a pump tank water extinguisher?
a. gravity
b. pressure cartridge
c. compressed air
d. manual effort
d. manual effort
Dry chemical extinguishers may be used on Class C fires because they _______.
a. are noncorrosive
b. do not conduct electricity
c. leave no residue
d. are chemically similar to water
b. do not conduct electricity
What is a primary factor when determining hazard classifications for extinguisher selection and placement?
a. permissible occupancy load
b. do not conduct electricity
c. presence of sprinkler system
d. amount of combustibles present
d. amount of combustibles present
A class A fire extinguisher with a numerical rating of 2 contains _____ gallons of water.
a. 2.2
b. 1.5
c. 1.0
d. 2.5
d. 2.5
What residue does a CO2 fire extinguisher leave when discharged?
a. iron oxide
b. none
c. carbon
d. mineral salt
b. none
Which extinguishing method is being used when a foam blanket is placed over the surface of a burning liquid?
a. diluting the fuel
b. inhibiting the chemical chain reaction
c. cooling the fuel
d. cutting off the oxygen supply
d. cutting off the oxygen supply
Which class of fire is depicted in the pictograph system by a flame and gasoline can.
a. C
b. A
c. B
d. D
c. B
Which class of fire is depicted in the pictograph system by a fire in a frying pan?
a. C
b. B
c. K
d. D
c. K
Which class of fire is depicted in the pictograph system by a flame and electrical plug and socket?
a. C
b. D
c. K
d. B
a. C
Which extinguishing agent is suitable for use on a Class C fire?
a. aqueous film-forming foam (AFF)
b. carbon tetrachloride
c. dry powder
d. carbon dioxide
d. carbon dioxide
What is the primary extinguishing mechanism of dry chemical agents?
a. forming a crust over the fuel
b. interrupting the chemical chain reaction
c. displacing oxygen
d. suppressing vapor production
b. interrupting the chemical chain reaction
Which fire extinguishing agent is best for use on sensitive electronic equipment?
a. aqueous film-forming foam (AFFF)
b. loaded stream
c. ammonium phosphate
d. carbon dioxide
d. carbon dioxide
For the purpose of extinguisher selection and placement, what is an example of a light hazard environment?
a. restaurant kitchen
b. parking garage
c. classroom
d. self-storage building
c. classroom
For an extinguishing agent to be approved for use on energized electrical equipment, it must ______.
a. form a vapor barrier
b. leave no residue
c. be safe of ruse in a closed room
d. be electrically non-conductive
d. be electrically non-conductive
According to NFPA 10, the maximum floor area that can be protected by each extinguisher depends on the _____.
a. occupancy load
b. construction class
c. occupancy type
d. presence of a built-in suppression system
c. occupancy type
Which of the following is one of the three basic components required for fire?
a. carbon
b. oxygen
c. an ignition source
d. a catalyst
b. oxygen
Which statement about foam fire extinguishers is correct?
a. both class A and class B extinguishers may be used to some effect on either class of fire
b. neither class A nor class B extinguishers can be used to any effect on the other class of fire
c. cla
d. class B foam extinguishers may be used to some effect on class A fires
What is the best way to extinguish a class C fire?
a. withdraw to a safe distance and let the fire burn itself out
b. shut off the power and treat it as a class A or B fire
c. use a class C extinguisher
d. shut off the fuel flow at a valve
b. shut off the power and treat it as a class A or B fire
A class C agent must _______.
a. be safe for use in an enclosed area
b. be compatible with foam
c. resist freezing
d. not conduct electricity
d. not conduct electricity
What is the most commonly used extinguishing agent for Class A fires?
a. water
b. ammonium phosphate
c. dry chemical
d. potassium bircarbonate
a. water
The weight of carbon dioxide is about _____ the weight of air.
a. twice
b. half of
c. equal to
d. one-and -a-half times
d. one-and -a-half times
For an area to qualify for the classification of "light hazard", most of the combustibles present must be _______.
a. arranged so that a fire is unlikely to spread
b. extinguishable by a portable fire extinguisher
c. Class A only
d. no more than moderatel
a. arranged s that a fire is unlikely to spread
Which class of fire involves combustible metals?
a. A
b. D
c. B
d. K
b. D
Which motion best accomplishes the removal of the pin and tamper seal from a portable fire extinguisher?
a. push, then pull
b. side to side motion
c. twisting motion
d. a strong pull directly outward
c. twisting motion
What is used to pressurize a stored-pressure water extinguisher?
a. water
b. nitrogen
c. compressed air
d. carbon dioxide
c. compressed air
The "P" in the acronym PASS, used in reference to fire extinguisher operation, stands for _______.
a. point
b. pause
c. pull
d. pick
c. pull
To qualify as a light hazard for the purpose of extinguisher selection and placement, the majority of materials in the area must ________.
a. be fire resistive
b. be class A or C combustibles
c. have a flash point exceeding 150 degrees F
d. be noncombusti
d. be noncombustible
The hydrostatic test interval for a dry chemical extinguisher with a stainless steel shell is every _____ years.
a. 12
b. 10
c. 3
d. 5
d. 5
Which statement about the numerical rating of a class K extinguisher is correct?
a. the numerical rating indicates the relative extinguishing power of the agent
b. a numerical rating is required for commercial hood systems
c. there is no numerical rating
c. there is no numerical rating for a class K extinguisher
In general, the maximum reach of a CO2 extinguisher is ____ feet.
a. 16
b. 8
c. 4
d. 32
b. 8
What is the term for a water-soluble flammable liquid?
a. miscible liquid
b. hypergolic fuel
c. solute
d. polar solvent
d. polar solvent
A class C extinguisher is rated for use on ______.
a. radioactive materials involved in flame
b. flammable chemical
c. energized electrical equipment
d. wood, paper, or cloth
c. energized electrical equipment
What does a rating of 40 on a class B extinguisher mean?
a. sufficient extinguisher power for 40 square feet of burning fuel
b. BTU absorption comparable to 40 gallons of water
c. discharge duration of at least 40 seconds
d. sufficient extinguishing power
a. sufficient extinguisher power for 40 square feet of burning fuel
The traditional symbol for a class D fire extinguisher is a(n) _______.
a. orange circle
b. green triangle
c. blue square
d. yellow star
d. yellow star
Which class of fire extinguisher includes a number in its classification?
a. C
b. D
c. A
d. K
c. A
A fire extinguisher's agent is stored within its _____.
a. cylinder
b. tank
c. chamber
d. horn
a. cylinder
Which statement about dry chemical agents is correct?
a. dry chemical agents are not subject to freezing
b. dry chemical agents are noncorrosive
c. all dry chemical agents have a multipurpose rating
d. dry chemical agents are compatible with all types of
a. dry chemical agents are not subject to freezing
Requirements for placing and mounting portable fire extinguishers are found in NFPA _____.
a. 470
b. 1201
c. 10
d. 170
c. 10
Which statement is correct regarding class D extinguishing agents?
a. application methods are similar regardless of the agent and fuel involved
b. some agents are also rated for other classes of fire
c. the specific agent must be matched to the specific f
c. the specific agent must be matched to the specific fuel
What is an advantage of portable fire extinguishers over hose lines?
a. longer duration
b. faster deployment
c. controllable rates of flow
d. greater heat absorption
b. faster deployment
Class D agents work primarily by ______.
a. suppressing vapor production
b. inhibiting the chemical chain reaction
c. penetrating the fuel
d. forming a crust over the fuel
d. forming a crust over the fuel
What is the difference between dry powder and dry chemical extinguishing agents?
a. "dry powder" and "dry chemical" are both terms for the same class of agents
b. a dry powder is compatible with foam; a dry chemical is not
c. each is rated for a different
c. each is rated for a different class of fire
A potential problem with application of a multipurpose dry chemical agent to a class K fire is ______.
a. spitting and splattering of fuel
b. neutralization of other agents applied to the fire
c. production of toxic gas
d. sudden flare-up of the fire
b. neutralization of other agents applied to the fire
Which agent is rated for use on class A fires?
a. potassium chloride
b. ammonium phosphate
c. sodium bircarbonate
d. potassium bircarbonate
b. ammonium phosphate
Which class of fire is depicted in the pictograph system by a burning trash can next to a wood fire?
a. A
b. C
c. B
d. K
c. A
For the purpose of extinguisher selection and placement, light hazard environments usually contain a limited amount of combustibles of which class?
a. D
b. C
c. B
d. K
c. B
Which class of fire involves combustible cooking oils and fats?
a. K
b. A
c. B
d. D
a. K
When approaching a fire with an extinguisher in hand, you should always have a(n) ________.
a. exit route
b. light source
c. portable radio
d. backup unit
a. exit route
For the purpose of extinguisher selection and placement, a woodworking shop is a(n) _______ hazard environment.
a. light
b. ordinary
c. extra
d. moderate
c. extra
Which class of fire includes flammable and combustible liquids?
a. A
b. C
c. D
d. B
d. B
What is the term for protective measures taken to minimize risk of exposure to communicable disease in the presence of blood or body fluids?
a. infection control procedures
b. universal precautions
c. exposure risk reduction measures
d. body substance pro
b. universal precautions
Which explosive was used in the 1995 bombing of the Alfred E. Murrah Federal Building?
a. TNT
b. TATP
c. Urea nitrate
d. ANFO
d. ANFO
Which system is used to issue alerts when a terrorist threat poses a significant danger to the US?
a. National Terrorism Advisory System
b. Color-coded threat level system
c. Homeland Security Threat Advisory
d. Homeland Security Information Bulletin
a. National Terrorism Advisory System
Which agent was used in the 1995 terrorist attack on the Tokyo subway system?
a. Anthrax
b. Sarin
c. ANFO
d. Cynide
b. Sarin
Which type of team conducts a quick evaluation of an area to identify the number of people involved in an incident?
a. Rescue
b. Survey
c. Reconnaissance
d. Search
c. Reconnaissance
What is the largest terrorist event in the history of the US?
a. the World Trade Center attack in NYC
b. the Kobar Towers military housing bombing in Daharan, Saudi Arabia
c. the Alfred P. Murrah Building bombing in Oklahoma City
d. the bombing of Pan Am
a. the World Trade Center attack in NYC
A dirty bomb spreads _______ contamination.
a. biological
b. neutron
c. chemical
d. radioactive
d. radioactive
The food supply is an example of a(n) _____ target.
a. infrastructure
b. agroterrorism
c. ecoterrorism
d. cyberterrorism
b. agroterrorism
What is the normal state of a nerve agent?
a. gas
b. powder
c. liquid
d. it varies with the specific agent
c. liquid
Which of the following is a common reaction to low-level radiation exposure?
a. skin burns
b. tremors
c. nausea and vomiting
d. nose bleed
c. nausea and vomiting
When can the presence of chemical, biological, or radiological agents be ruled out?
a. when the area has been cleared by qualified personnel with detection equipment
b. when there are no plumes, spills or property damage
c. when there is no evidence of su
a. when the area has been cleared by qualified personnel with detection equipment
How can pipe bombs be modified to enhance their injurious effect?
a. use of PVC piping
b. pack them with nails
c. time them to explode at dusk
d. use a blasting cap detonator
b. pack them with nails
Which advisory indicates the most severe risk of terrorist threat?
a. elevated
b. orange
c. red
d. imminent
d. imminent
Which is a common symptom of nerve agent exposure?
a. rapid pulse
b. rash
c. pinpoint pupils
d. dry mouth
c. pinpoint pupils
The time span between the initial infection and the first onset of symptoms is the ______ period.
a. incubation
b. dormancy
c. gestation
d. latency
a. incubation
What is a primary objective in establishing a perimeter around a known or suspected terrorist incident scene?
a. stop or minimize the amount of material released
b. mark the transition between control zones
c. prevent people not initially involved from be
c. prevent people not initially from becoming victims
At a suspected terrorist incident, which one of these agencies should be notified first?
a. DHS
b. state emergency management officials
c. FBI
d. FEMA
b. state emergency management officials
Which acronym is used to remember the symptoms of nerve agent exposure?
a. SLUDGEM
b. DUMBELS
c. TRACEM
d. HA HA MINCE
a. SLUDGEM
The use of which terrorist method has increased dramatically in recent years?
a. dirty bombs
b. food contamination
c. biological core
d. suicide bombing
d. suicide bombing
What is the first priority following an explosion?
a. incident stabilization
b. victim rescue
c. scene safety
d. preservation of evidence
c. scene safety
What does the "L" stand for in the acronym SLUDGEM?
a. Lethal
b. Liquid
c. Lacrimation
d. Lethargy
c. Lacrimation
An agent that takes weeks to evaporate is said to be ____.
a. stable
b. insoluble
c. persistent
d. immiscible
c. persistent
What is the lead agency for crisis management during a terrorist incident?
a. local law enforcement
b. FBI
c. DHS
d. FEMA
a. local law enforcement
Which of the following is a commonly used mixture in improvised explosives?
a. ANFO
b. ARGO
c. PATP
d. TADP
a. ANFO
Which of the following is an example of a symbolic type of terrorist target?
a. military base
b. water treatment facility
c. foreign embassy
d. stadium
c. foreign embassy
A school is which type of terrorist target?
a. symbolic
b. ecoterrorism
c. infrastructure
d. civilian
d. civilian
Which of the following is a blister agent?
a. Soman
b. Chlorine
c. Pralidoxime
d. Lewisite
d. Lewisite
Under which circumstance is it sufficient to rely strictly on odor to determine the presence of a chemical agent?
a. the specific material has been identified
b. there is no such circumstance
c. no other means of detection is available
d. the odor is dete
c. no there means of detection is available
Which drug is part of the DuoDote Kit?
a. Phenytoin
b. Atropine
c. Metaraminol
d. Isoproterenol
b. Atropine
What kind of agent is anthrax?
a. biological
b. pulmonary
c. nerve
d. metabolic
a. biological
Which of the following agents is the most contagious?
a. Plague
b. Ricin
c. Anthrax
d. Smallpox
d. Smallpox
What is a typical sign of blister agent exposure?
a. dry mucous membranes
b. burning, reddened skin
c. flu-like symptoms
d. seizures
b. burning, reddened skin
What is the purpose of a secondary device?
a. cause diversion of response
b. act as a backup in case failure of the primary device
c. initiate detonation of the primary device
d. kill and injure emergency responders
d. kill and injure emergency responders
The highest potential of a secondary device?
a. injection
b. ingestion
c. inhalation
d. absorption
c. inhalation
What is the most common method of dispersing chemical agents?
a. air flow
b. explosion
c. sprayers
d. physical contact with contaminated surfaces
a. air flow
Which of the following is classified as a pulmonary agent?
a. Sarin
b. Chlorine
c. Sulfur mustard
d. Cyanide
b. Chlorine
How is mass decontamination usually performed?
a. simple removal of clothing and dry decontamination with a readily available absorbent
b. use of local shower facilities such as at a nearby gym
c. high volume, low pressure streams pumped by fire apparatus
c. high volume, low pressure streams pumped by fire apparatus
How infectious is smallpox?
a. mildly infectious
b. moderately infectious
c. it is not infectious
d. highly infectious
d. highly infectious
What percentage of bombings in the US involves incendiaries?
a. 50 to 55 percent
b. 20 to 25 percent
c. 10 to 15 percent
d. 40 to 50 percent
b. 20 to 25 percent
Which device is used to measure the amount of radiation exposure for an individual?
a. ionization detector
b. type III PASS device
c. personal dosimeter
d. Geiger counter
c. personal dosimeter
Which part of the body does bubonic plague attack?
a. the liver kidney
b. the brain
c. the lymph nodes
d. the immune system
c. the lymph nodes
Approximately ____ percent of people infected with small pox will die.
a. 30
b. 15
c. 4
d. 45
a. 30
What is miosis?
a. fluid leakage from capillaries
b. excessive salivation
c. loss of coordination
d. constriction of the pupils
d. constriction of the pupils
What is the most commonly used improvised explosive device?
a. Satchel bomb
b. letter/package bimb
c. pipe bomb
d. vehicle bomb
c. pipe bomb
Which type of radiation is the most harmful to the human body?
a. Delta
b. Beat
c. Gamma
d. Alpha
c. Gamma
How is exposure affected by distance from a source of radiation?
a. distance does not directly affect exposure
b. as distance increases, exposure decreases
c. the relationship varies with the type of radiation
d. as distance increases, exposure increases
b. as distance increases, exposure decreases
Which of the following is a sign of cyanide gas poisoning?
a. profuse sweating
b. sudden collapse
c. skin blisters
d. gasping for air
d. gasping for air
Spiking trees and vandalizing research laboratories are examples of ______ targets.
a. civilian
b. symbolic
c. ecoterrorism
d. infrastructure
c. ecoterrorism
What is the term for terrorism that targets computer systems or the internet?
a. data terrorism
b. electronic terrorism
c. cyberterrorism
d. digital terrorism
c. cyberterrorism
Which item is characteristic of a biological agent attack?
a. an explosive based dispersal device
b. slow onset of symptoms
c. pungent odor
d. dead or dying animals
b. slow onset of symptoms
Which of the following chemicals is classified as a pulmonary agent?
a. Ricin
b. Phosgene
c. Cyanide
d. Lewisite
b. Phosgene
How does an incident involving large numbers of contaminated victims differ from other mass-casualty incidents?
a. quarantine of victims in the contaminated area may be necessary
b. rescue of victims is delayed until the area is cleared of secondary devic
a. quarantine of victims in the contaminated area may necessary
What is the lead federal agency for consequence management during a terrorist incident?
a. FEMA
b. DOT
c. FBI
d. DHS
a. FEMA
A water supply system is which type of terrorist target?
a. ecoterrorism
b. civilian
c. infrastructure
d. symbolic
c. infrastructure
How many terrorist threat advisory levels are there?
a. 2
b. 4
c. 5
d. 3
a. 2
What is the minimum size of the radio-free area surrounding a potential explosive device?
a. 500 ft.
b. 300 ft.
c. 1000 ft.
d. 200 ft.
c. 1000 ft.
How should fire fighters handle a potentially explosive device?
a. direct master streams onto the device
b. do not handle or approach the device
c. surround the device with an earthen dyke or sandbags
d. carefully move the device to a safe area
b. do not handle or approach the device
Liquid nerve agents are most effective when they are _____.
a. condensed
b. aerosolized
c. vaporized
d. diluted
b. aerosolized
Where is the bacterium that causes plague most commonly found?
a. on rodents
b. in human feces
c. in damp, moist, dark areas
d. in decomposing vegetation
a. on rodents
Approximately how many anthrax spores are needed to cause an anthrax infection?
a. 10 to 100
b. 100,000 to 500,000
c. 300 to 1,000
d. 8,000 to 10,000
d. 8,000 to 10,000
Which type of radiation causes damage primarily through ingestions or inhalation?
a. Alpha
b. Beat
c. Gamma
d. None of the above
a. Alpha
Which of the following is one of the FBI's two classifications for terrorism?
a. ideological
b. political
c. foreign
d. domestic
d. domestic
Which of the following is an element of the definition of terrorism?
a. the event is preceded by threat, warning, or previous similar event
b. the event results in loss of life, injury, or property damage
c. the event originates with an organized, nongove
d. the event is undertaken to further political or social objectives
NFPA standards require an SCBA low-air alarm to sound when the cylinder pressure drops to _____ percent of capacity.
a. 10
b. 25
c. 15
d. 20
b. 25
What is an approved material for structural firefighting boots?
a. Leather
b. Polymeric synthetic
c. Extos
d. Gore-Tex
a. Leather
Which fire gas is a product of incomplete combustion of common household items?
a. Acrolein
b. Hydrogen chloride
c. Sulfur dioxide
d. Phosgene
d. Phosgene
What is the primary function of the purge valve on an SCBA?
a. Supply air in the event of a regulator malfunction
b. de-fog the face piece interior
c. Bleed off residual pressure after the cylinder valve has been closed
d. Switch between pressure and pres
c. Bleed off residual pressure after the cylinder valve has been closed
Turnout coats and trousers have a protective system that consists of ____ layers.
a. 2
b. 4
c. 3
d. 5
c. 3
When is it acceptable to remove the inner thermal layer from a turnout coat?
a. When the coat is used for confined-space operations
b. Never
c. When the coat is being cleaned
d. When the coat is used for wildland firefighting
c. When the coat is being cleaned
Which component of structural turnout coats is critical for protecting the body from steam burns?
a. Moisture barrier
b. Insulation
c. Thermal barrier
D. Outer shell
a. Moisture barrier
How often should SCBA face pieces be fit-tested?
a. every 6 months
b. every 12 months
c. monthly
d. every 3 months
b. Every 12 months
Which NFPA standard deals with personal alert safety systems?
a. 1785
b. 1982
c. 1440
d. 1460
b. 1982
Which fire gas is a product of burning plastic?
a. Hydrogen cyanide
b. Acrolein
c. Carbon dioxide
d. Hydrogen sulfide
a. Hydrogen cyanide
When donning SCBA, fire fighters should check that cylinder has a minimum of ____ percent of its rated maximum pressure.
a. 80
b. 100
c. 75
d. 90
d. 90
An oxygen-deficient atmosphere is defined as one where the percentage of oxygen in air is less than ____ percent.
a. 19.5
b. 21
c. 18
d. 17.5
a. 19.5
Which gas is most commonly produced by residential or commercial fires?
a. Hydrogen sulfide
b. Nitrous oxide
c. Anhydrous ammonia
d. Hydrogen cyanide
d. Hydrogen cyanide
Which NFPA standard deals with protective clothing and equipment for wildland firefighting?
a. 1214
b. 1072
c. 1982
d. 1977
d. 1977
Which statement about the use of a protective hood is correct?
a.First don the hood and then apply the SCBA face piece straps over it, making sure the hood is clear of the seal.
b. Don the SCBA face piece first and then pull the hood up over it.
c. It is
b. Don the SCBA face piece first and then pull the hood up over it.
Which fire gas kills by replacing oxygen in the blood?
a. Sulfur dioxide
b. Hydrogen cyanide
c. Phosgene
d. Carbon monoxide
d. Carbon monoxide
What is the flame-resistant material used in PPE?
a. PBI
b. Treated cotton duck
c. Thermax
d. Durex
a. PBI
What is the first step in cleaning SCBA?
a. cover the regulator in a plastic bag
b. Rinse the entire unit with clean water from a hose
c. Use compressed air to blow loose contamination off the unit
d. Remove the cylinder from the harness
b. Rinse the entire unit with clean water from a hose
The realistic duration of an SCBA air supply is _____ than the rated duration.
a. about the same
b. somewhat longer
c. much shorter
d. somewhat shorter
c. much shorter
A structural firefighting PPE ensemble includes which specific piece of equipment?
a. Safety harness
b. Thermal imager
c. Self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA)
d. Portable radio
c. SCBA
What is the primary function of the moisture barrier in structural firefighting PPE?
a. Keep liquids and vapors from reaching the skin
b. Promote evaporation of perspiration
c. Prevent exposure to pathogens
d. Protect the body from high temperatures
a. Keep liquids and vapors from reaching the skin
What is the function of an EOSTI?
a. Emit and audible alarm when the wearer becomes motionless
b. Emit an audible alarm in the presence of certain gases
c. Broadcast a mayday signal
d. Warn an SCBA wearer of low cylinder pressure
d. Warn an SCBA wearer of low cylinder pressure
Which statement about the care and use of PPE is correct?
a. in hot weather, resist the temptation to remove your turnout coat when at the rehabilitation station.
b. accumulated dirt or contamination reduces the protective quality to turnout coats
c. spec
b. accumulated dirt or contamination reduces the protective quality of turnout coats
Which item is an optional component of the structural firefighting ensemble?
a. Protective hood
b. Hearing protection
c. Personal alert safety system
d. Eye protection
b. Hearing protection
Which piece of equipment must be worn with structural firefighting PPE and SCBA?
a. Buddy-breather
b. PASS device
c. Bail-out rope
d. Portable radio
b. PASS device
Pressure readings on an SCBA cylinder gauge and the regulator or remote pressure gauge should not differ by more than ____ psi.
a. 100 psi (700 kPa)
b. 200 psi (1400 kPa)
c. 250 psi (1700 kPa)
d. 50 psi (350 kPa)
a. 100 psi (kPa)
Which type of breathing apparatus recycles the users exhaled air?
a. Closed circuit
b. Powered air
c. Supplied air
d. Air-purifying respirator
a. Closed circuit
How much of the body is structural personal protective equipment (PPE) designed to cover?
a. All but the ears
b. All but the wrists
c. Every square inch
d. All but the neck
c. Every square inch
What is the purpose of the personal alert safety system (PASS)?
a. Sound an alarm when certain gases are detected
b. Sound an alarm if ambient temperatures exceed a specified level
c. Sound an alarm if a fire fighter is motionless for a set period of time
c. Sound an alarm if a fire fighter is motionless for a set period of time
Smoke has ____ major components.
a. 5
b. 3
c. 2
d. 4
b. 3
Which NFPA standard deals with protective ensembles for structural and proximity firefighting?
a. 1981
b. 1971
c. 1500
d. 1472
b. 1971
What is a commonly used technique for conserving SCBA air?
a. Skip breathing
b. Pursed-lip breathing
c. Inhale by mouth, exhale by nose
d. Breath counting
a. Skip breathing
The primary hazard of ______ is that it can displace oxygen from the atmosphere.
a. hydrogen cyanide
b. carbon dioxide
c. carbon monoxide
d. chlorine
b. carbon dioxide
Which part of the structural firefighting PPE ensemble is designed to protect the neck and ears?
a. The coat collar
b. the bib
c. The SCBA mask
d. The protective hood
d. The protective hood
Which NFPA standards deals with open-circuit self-contained breathing apparatus?
a. 1801
b. 1981
c. 1622
d. 1990
b. 1981
Fire fighters should be able to don personal protective clothing within ____ seconds.
a. 75
b. 90
c. 45
d. 60
d. 60
The primary function of a fire helmet's _____ is intended to provide thermal protection.
a. outer shell
b. inner liner
c. vapor barrier
d. suspension system
b. inner liner
The thick, quilted layer of a turnout coat is the ______.
a. absorbent liner
b. liner
c. vapor barrier
d. thermal barrier
d. thermal liner
What is the requirement for structural firefighting boots?
a. Pull-on design
b. Rubber upper
c. Zipper closure
d. Slip-resistant sole
d. Slip-resistant sole
What should a call-taker do if a call comes in about an issue the fire department does not handle?
a. Send the call to he back of teh queue and take it when there is no priority traffic
b. Politely inform the called that the fire department does not provi
d. Transfer, direct, or refer the caller to the appropriate agency
Which statement about telecommunication center voice recorders is correct?
a. The recordings are useful for review of the telecommunication center's performance.
b. Nondisclosure laws require destruction of recordings of routine traffic after 72 hours.
c.
a. The recordings are useful for review of the telecommunication center's performance.
What is the third step in the five-step process of receiving and dispatching an emergency call?
a. Classification and prioritization
b. Caller instruction
c. Unit selection
d. Unit notification
a. Classification and prioritization (1. call receipt 2. location validation 3. classification & prioritization 4. unit selection 5. dispatch)
Which NFPA standard contains a complete list of qualifications for telecommunicators?
a. 1071
b. 1051
c. 1061
d. 1081
c. NFPA 1061
What is the term for communications center dispatchers?
a. Public afety answering technicians
b. 911 receptionists
c. Signals technicians
d. Telecommunicators
d. Telecommunicators
What is the correct term for radio system permanently mounted in a building?
a. Repeater system
b. Land radio system
c. Base station
d. Transmitter
c. Base station
What does the "D" stand for "CAD"?
a. Department
b. Disaster
c. Decision
d. Dispatch
d. Dispatch
What does the "A" stand for in "PSAP"?
a. Answering
b. Alerting
c. Activating
d. Auxililary
a. Answering
The generally accepted time for a unit to be dispatched after a communications center received a call is _____ seconds or less.
a. 45
b. 60
c. 30
d. 90
b. 60
What is the term for a radio that transmits and receives on different frequencies?
a. Duplex
b. Repeater
c. Cross-band
d. Binary
a. Duplex
What does the automatic location identification (ALI) system rely on to be effective?
a. A direct line
b. The caller's name
c. An accurate and current database
d. A minimum 30-second call duration
c. An accurate and current database
How has the widespread use of cellular phones affected the automatic location identification (ALI) feature of the enhanced 911 systems?
a. ALI is not needed
b. ALI may be unable to provide a specific location
c. ALI does not function for wireless calls
d.
b. ALI may be unable to provide a specific location.
What is the function of an automatic vehicle locator system?
a. Prioritize resources based upon location
b. Determine the location of mobile phone callers
c. Track apparatus location via GPS
d. Display fire department vehicle location on an electronic map
c. Track apparatus location via GPS
The American with Disabilities Act requires that communications centers be able to receive calls by which medium?
a. Walk-in
b. Text message
c. Radio transmission
d. Personal digital assistant (PDA)
b. Text message
What does the "D" stand for in "ADA"?
a. Disabilities
b. Dangerous
c. Distressed
d. Directional
a. Disabilities
Which item is a primary factor in determining which units to send to an incident?
a. The time lapse between call receipt and dispatch
b. The incident location
c. The reporting party's recommendation
d. The reporting party's plausibility
b. The incident location
Which critical piece of information is required by the telecommunicator to initiate a dispatch?
a. Reporting party identity
b. Nature of situation
c. Severity of the situation
d. Callback number
b. Nature of the situation
What does the "A" stand for in "CAD"?
a. Ancillary
b. Aided
c. Auxiliary
d. Automatic
b. Aided
What is the term for a phone line that connects two predetermined points?
a. Dedicated circuit
b. Direct line
c. Private line
d. Local circuit
b. Direct line
There are ___ major steps in processing a report of an emergency.
a. 3
b. 4
c. 6
d. 5
d. 5
Which statement about a wireless phone calling 911 is correct?
a. Callers may report emergencies without knowing the location.
b. The call is routed to a national center, resulting in considerable delay in their receipt by the local telecommunications cen
a. Callers may report emergencies without knowing the location
How does the Canadian emergency reporting system differ from the 911 system used in the United States?
a. Canadian callers must dial "0" to report an emergency
b. The U.S. and Canadian systems are essentially the same
c. Emergency reporting numbers in Can
b. The U.S. and Canadian systems are essentially the same
Approximately what percentage of the United States and Canada has access to a 911 system?
a. 80
b. 90
c. 60
d. 70
b. 90
What is the second step in the five-step process of receiving and dispatching emergency calls?
a. Confirmation
b. Classification/prioritization
c. Caller interrogation
d. Location validation
d. Location Validation (1. Call receipt 2. Location validation 3. Classification & prioritization 4. Unit selection 5. Dispatch)
What happens if a CAD system detects that an invalid address is being entered?
a. It offers a best estimate of the correction location
b. It sends a single unit to the nearest valid location
c. It prompts the telecommuicator to ask the caller for addition
c. It prompts the telecommunicator to ask the caller for additional information
What does the "N" stand for in "ANI"?
a. Name
b. Normal
c. Network
d. Number
d. Number
What does the second "D" stand for in "TDD"?
a. Dispatch
b. Dedicated
c. Dialer
d. Deaf
d. Deaf
Telecommunicators should use _______ listening.
a. Critical
b. Active
c. Interrogatory
d. Interpretive
b. active
A _____ phone is designed for use by hearing-impaired persons.
a. Text
b. Display
c. Video
d. Digital
a. Text
What are TDD and TTY?
a. Location finders in enhanced 911 systems
b. Voice-activated applications for smart phones that place a 911 call
c. Routers that direct wireless calls to the appropriate dispatch center
d. Communication devices for hearing-impaired
d. Communication devices for hearing-impaired persons
A caller is connected directly to a telecommunicator through which device?
a. Fire alarm box
b. Central alarm station
c. Call box
d. Local alarm
c. Call box
What is the term for a two-way radio that is permanently mounted in a vehicle?
a. Portable radio
b. Repeater
c. Mobile radio
d. Hi-band radio
c. Mobile radio
What is the usual response when a caller disconnects before full information can be gathered and the dispatcher cannot reconnect by calling the caller back?
a. Send a full complement of responders, including police, EMS, and fire
b. Send a single engine t
c. Dispatch a police unit to check on the caller
The of number of emergency reports received from wireless phones is ______ those received from land lines.
a. About the same as
b. Far fewer than
c. Fewer than
d. For more than
a. About the same as
What does the "P" stand for in "GPS"?
a. Positioning
b. Personnel
c. Preventive
d. Proactive
a. Positioning
What is the correct term for the small two-way radios carried by individual fire fighters?
a. Portable radios
b. Walkie-talkies
c. Pocket radios
d. Mobile radios
a. Portable radios
The NFPA standard requires that a communications center be equipped with ________.
a. A reception area with a staffed watch desk
b. Backup systems for all the critical equipment
c. Private water supply
d. A HEPA-grade air filtration system
b. Backup systems for all the critical equipment
Which agency licenses a fire department to operate a radio system?
a. Federal Emergency Management Agency
b. Federal Communications Commission
c. Federal Office of Communications
d. The State Office of Emergency Services
b. Federal Communications Commission
Radio frequencies are designated in units of ______.
a. Megahertz
b. Hertz
c. Terahertz
d. Gigahertz
a. megahertz
What is the dispatcher's first responsibility?
a. Calm and reassure the caller
b. Determine the nature and extent of the incident being reported
c. Provide the caller with real-time, emergency instructions, such as how to perform CPR
d. Get the informatio
d. Get the information needed to dispatch the appropriate units to the correct location
What is the function of the ANI feature of an enhanced 911 system?
a. Show the caller's phone number
b. Lock the caller's phone open
c. Show the caller's location
d. Provide the callers identity
a. Show the caller's phone number
A fire department communication center functions most like a(n) _________.
a. Freeway interchange
b. Brain
c. Internet search engine
d. Coach
B. Brain
Which type of fire attack consists of overpowering a small fire with water or another extinguishing agent?
a. Defensive
b. Offensive
c. Quick
d. Interior
b. Offensive
What does the "C" stand for in "RECEO-VS"?
a. Conduction
b. Convection
c. Command
d. Confinement
d. Confinement (Rescue, Exposures, Confinement, Extinguishment, Overhaul, Ventilation, Salvage)
What characteristic is associated with modern lightweight construction techniques?
a. Greater susceptibility to collapse
b. Unstopped stud bays
c. Higher dead load
d. A more air-tight structure
a. Greater susceptibility to collapse
Initial size-up of an emergency incident is conducted by the _______.
a. Reporting party
b. First-arriving unit
c. First-arriving chief officer
d. Telecommunicator
b. First-arriving unit
Ladder placement, use of aerial or ground ladders, and emergency exit routes all depend on ________.
a. Occupancy load
b. Time of day
c. Building layout
d. Built-in suppression systems
c. building layout
What is the second priority in basic fire-ground objectives?
a. Salvage
b. Extinguishment
c. Confinement
d. Exposure protection
d. Exposure protection (1. Save lives 2. Protect exposures 3. Confine the fire 4. Extinguish the fire 5. Salvage property & overhaul the fire)
Which technology is commonly used to find hidden fire?
a. Photo ionization detector
b. Flame ionization detector
c. Infrared sonography
d. Thermal imaging device
d. Thermal imaging device
What is the best way to stop the flow of liquefied petroleum (LP) gas into s structure?
a. Turn the valve on the meter to the closed position
b. Rotate the quarter-turn valve on the supply pipe
c. Close the valve on the storage tank
d. Disconnect the cyli
c. Close the valve on the storage tank
In which situation should utility company personnel be called to interrupt power from a remote location?
a. The building houses multiple living units
b. Multiple hose lines are in house
c. Wires outside the fire building are damaged
d. Occupants are non-
c. wires outside the fire building are damaged
Who is generally the most valuable and reliable source of information about a building?
a. Occupants
b. Maintenance personnel
c. Witnesses
d. Neighbors
b. Maintenance personnel
Freelancing is considered ______.
a. Commendable
b. Responsible
c. Unacceptable
d. Necessary
c. Unacceptable
How is natural gas usually delivered?
a. From a large outdoor cylinder or tank
b. As a liquefied gas
c. Through underground pipes
d. In portable cylinders
c. Through underground pipes
Which tool can be used to operate a natural gas supply valve?
a. Strap wrench
b. Flat-head screwdriver
c. Hydrant wrench
d. Adjustable wrench
d. Adjustable wrench
Why is the age of a building relevant during size-up?
a. Reliability of suppression systems is suspect in older buildings
b. Required fire flow increases with age
c. Older buildings are more difficult to ventilate
d. Construction methods change over time
d. Construction methods change over time
Which item of information is tracked by a personnel accountability system?
a. Progress benchmarks
b. Time spent in an IDLH atmosphere
c. Each crew's assignment
d. Chain of command
c. Each crew's assignment
When should fire fighters don their PPE?
a. Prior to mounting the apparatus
b. En route to the scene of the incident
c. Immediately upon mounting the apparatus
d. Upon arrival at the scene
a. Prior to mounting the apparatus
Which term means the evaluation of structure fire conditions to determine if occupants could be alive?
a. Survivability profiling
b. Size-up
c. Triage
d. Risk Management
a. Survivability profiling
In a fire response, which goal has the highest priority?
a. Extinguishing the fire
b. Preventing spread of fire to exposures
c. Preventing rekindle
d. Protecting building contents
b. Preventing spread of fire to exposures (other options in quiz were: extinguishing the fire; preventing rekindle; protecting building contents)
Which NFPA standard requires all fire fighters to be in their seats, with seat belts secured, whenever the fire apparatus is in motion?
a. 1021
b. 1500
c. 1002
d. 1921
b. NFPA 1500
When preforming size-up, what is the most reliable source of facts about a structure?
a. Reporting part information
b. Eyewitness accounts
c. Initial reports
d. A pre-incident plan
d. A pre-incident plan
When performing size-up, which question can most reliably be answered based on the time of day?
a. Is the building occupied?
b. Is the alarm a result of system malfunction?
c. Was the fire intentionally set?
d. Is the fire threatening?
a. Is the building occupied?
Of the basic fire-ground objectives, which item is third in order of priority?
a. Protect exposures
b. Extinguish the fire
c. Rescue victims
d. Confine the fire
d. Confine the fire (1. Save Lives 2. Protect exposures 3. Confine the fire 4. Extinguish the fire 5. Salvage property & overhaul the fire)
How do most volunteer fire fighters receive dispatch messages?
a. Phone
b. Home receiver
c. Siren or horn
d. Pager
d. Pager
Who develops the incident action plan?
a. Operations section chief
b. Command staff
c. Planning section chief
d. Incident commander
d. Incident commander
Heavy streams are typically used in a(n) ______ attack.
a. Offensive
b. Defensive
c. Indirect
d. Tactical
b. Defensive
What is the best way to gather information about the size and location of a fire?
a. Reading the smoke
b. Reports from occupants
c. Direct visual observation
d. Use of thermal imaging
c. Direct visual observation
What is the best way to cut off electrical service to a structure?
a. Pull the meter
b. Cut the service drop
c. Throw the main switch at the circuit breaker box
d. Throw the pole-mounted breaker
c. Throw the main switch at the circuit box
An event or outcome that is predicted based on known facts, common sense, and previous experience is a _______.
a. Possibility
b. Projection
c. Probability
d. Fact
c. Probability
Which type of attack is used to minimize risk to fire fighters?
a. Indirect
b. Combination
c. Tactical
d. Defensive
d. Defensive
A gas valve that has been shut off may be reopened ______.
a. After completion of overhaul
b. If the fire was confined to room contents only
c. After the system has been inspected by a qualified person
d. Upon restoration of electrical power
c. After the system has been inspected by a qualified person
What is the fire step in the process of response?
a. Checking PPE
b. Determining the route of travel
c. Mounting the apparatus
d. Belting in
a. Checking PPE
At which point in a structure fire should utilities be disconnected?
a. Immediately upon arrival
b. After initial knock-down
c. As early as possible in the incident
d. After the "all clear" is declared
c. As early as possible in the incident
What is the attack plan based upon at a fire?
a. Probabilities
b. Possibilities
c. Worst-case scenarios
d. Facts
a. Probabilities
Fire that is spreading to an exposure is _______.
a. Running
b. Free-burning
c. Extending
d. Crowning
c. Extending
Which statement best summarizes an apparatus operator's legal responsibility for the safe operation of that vehicle?
a. The operator is legally exempt from liability during an emergency response.
b. The operator is not legally responsible for the safe ope
d. The operator is legally responsible for the safe operation of the vehicle at all times.
The concept of conduction is useful for predicting ______.
a. Duration of burn
b. Direction of fire spread
c. Occupant survivability
d. Extent of involvement
b. Direction of fire spread
Which exemptions or privileges do fire fighters have when responding to an emergency in their personal vehicles?
a. They are permitted to regard stoplights as stop signs.
b. It varies by jurisdiction
c. The same as emergency vehicles
d. None; they are tre
b. It varies by jurisdiction
Which construction feature of older buildings provides a path for rapid spread of fire?
a. Platform construction
b. Unreinforced masonry
c. Balloon-frame construction
d. Lath and plaster interior finish
c. Balloon-frame construction
What is the critical factor to consider when evaluating the potential for collapse of the a burning structure?
a. Weather conditions
b. Reflex time
c. How long it has been burning
d. Size of the collapse
c. How long it has been burning
How much risk should fire fighters take to attempt to recover a victim who has no chance of surviving?
a. A little
b. A lot
c. Unlimited
d. None
d. None
Which term describes the main area of the fire?
a. Body
b. Foot
C. Seat
D. Point of Origin
c. Seat
Which building feature would create the greatest challenge for fire fighters in gaining access to trapped victims?
a. Hung acoustic ceilings
b. Self-closing fire doors
c. Security bars on windows
d. solid core doors
c. Security bars on windows
Which of the following is one of a fire department's two basic resources?
a. Training
b. Apparatus
c. Leadership
d. Organization
b. apparatus (the other is personnel)
At a traffic accident scene, apparatus should be ______.
a. Parked on the left-hand lane immediately adjacent to the scene
b. Positioned on the opposite side of the scene as the oncoming traffic
c. Parked as far to the right as possible
d. Positioned to c
d. positioned to create a barrier between the oncoming traffic and the scene
When is a natural gas shut-off valve in the closed position?
a. When the stem is fully rotated inward
b. When the handle is at a right angle to the pipe
c. When the bar is parallel to the pipe
d. When the valve handle is fully rotated clockwise
b. When the handle is at a right angle to the pipe
Which item meets the minimum requirements for visibility for personnel working a vehicle accident?
a. High-visibility safety vests
b. Turnout coats and pants with reflective strips
c. Yellow turnout coats and pants
d. Any PPE with reflective strips
a. High-visibility safety vests
What does the "S" stand for in "RECEO-VS"?
a. Salvage
b. Size-up
c. Search
d. Span of Control
a. Salvage (Rescue, Exposures, Confinement, Extinguishment, Overhaul, Ventilation, Salvage)
Which process enables the incident commander to determine which resources will be needed to control the situation?
a. Preincident planning
b. Personnel accountability
c. Size-up
d. Chain of command
c. Size-up
During operations in traffic areas, lane and street closures should be performed according to ______.
a. Advice of law enforcement personnel
b. NFPA standard
c. Department SOP
d. State Vehicle code
c. Department SOP
A company officer gives the incident commander the results of inspection and exploration of a specified area in a ________.
a. Situation status report
b. Report on conditions
c. Reconnaissance report
d. Size-up
c. Reconnaissance report
Which term describes operations undertaken to prevent avoidable property loss?
a. Salvage
b. Overhaul
c. Property conservation
d. Recovery
a. Salvage
What is the term for a rapid chemical process in which the combination of a substance with oxygen produces heat and light?
a. Convection
b. Pyrolysis
c. Oxidation
d. Combustion
d. Combustion
Which situation is indicated when you open a door and the smoke exits through the top half of the door and clean air enters through the bottom half?
a. Nonsurvivable conditions for occupants
b. An under-ventilated fire
c. Disturbance of thermal layering
d
d. The fire is on the same level as the door
What is the term for temperature in a room reaching the point where all the combustible contents of the room ignite?
a. Flashover
b. Autoignition
c. Rollover
d. Backdraft
a. Flashover
When water is converted to steam, it occupies _____ space.
a. somewhat less
b. somewhat more
c. much more
d. about the same
c. much more
What is the process called when a material decomposes upon being exposed to heat in the absence of oxygen?
a. Electrolysis
b. Oxidation
c. Vaporization
d. Pyrolysis
d. Pyrolysis
What is the term for the spontaneous ignition of hot gases at the upper level of a room?
a. Flashover
b. Flameover
c. Ghosting
d. Mushromming
b. Flameover
The movement of heated gases in a fire is an example of which form of heat transfer?
a. Convection
b. Radiation
c. Conduction
d. Circulation
a. Convection
Which geometric figure is used to represent the four elements required for a self-sustaining fire?
a. Square
b. Pyramid
c. Tetrahedron
d. Polygon
c. Tehtrahedron
What is the term for the process in which oxygen combines chemically with another substance to create a new compound?
a. Pyrolysis
b. Oxidation
c. Combustion
d. Electrolysis
b. Oxidation
A Class C fire involves ______.
a. a flammable liquid or gas
b. energized electrical equipment
c. a combustible metal
d. cooking material
b. energized electrical equipment
What is the percentage of oxygen normally found in air?
a. 17.7 %
b. 21 %
c. 18 %
d. 19.5 %
b. 21 %
Which state must a fuel be in for combustion to take place?
a. Solid, liquid, or vapor
b. Vapor
c. Solid
d. Liquid
b. Vapor
Turbulent smoke is an indication of impending _______.
a. mushromming
b. flashover
c. self-ventilation
d. stratification
b. flashover
Matter exists in ____ states.
a. 3
b. 6
c. 5
d. 4
a. 3
What is the relationship between resistance and heat as electricity flows through a wire?
a. As resistance increases, heat decreases
b. As resistance increases, heat increases
c. There is no relationship between the two
d. As resistance decreases, heat in
b. As resistance increases, heat increases
Which toxic gas is commonly produced by fire?
a. Nitrogen sulfide
b. Hydrogen cyanide
c. Hydrogen sulfide
d. Acrolein
b. Hydrogen cyanide
What is the method of choice for extinguishing most Class B fires?
a. Interrupting the chemical chain reaction
b. Cooling the fuel
c. Excluding oxygen
d. Dispersing the vapors
c. Excluding oxygen
In which process is a new compound created from the combination of oxygen and another substance?
a. Pyrolysis
b. Oxidation
c. Catagenesis
d. Combustion
b. Oxidaton
Friction is a form of _________ energy.
a. kinetic
b. molecular
c. radiant
d. mechanical
d. mechanical
What does smoke puffing in and out of a structure indicate?
a. Imminent flashover
b. Impending structural collapse
c. Growth-phase fire
d. Backdraft conditions
d. Backdraft conditions
The majority of fires are extinguished by which method?
a. Excluding oxygen
b. Inhibiting the chemical chain reaction
c. Suppressing vapor emission
d. Cooling the fuel
d. Cooling the fuel
Which class of fire involves ordinary combustibles such as wood and paper?
a. B
b. C
c. D
d. A
d. A
An endothermic reaction is one that _______.
a. requires catalyst
b. releases energy
c. occurs in the absence of oxygen
d. absorbs heat
d. absorbs heat
Which situation is indicated if you open a door and the smoke rises and the opening clears outs?
a. the fire is extinguished
b. the fire is in the decay phase
c. the fire is ventilation controlled
d. the fire is above the level of the door
d. the fire is above the level of the door
Smoke that is produced by ordinary household materials when they are first heated has which sort of appearance?
a. Brown and fast moving
b. Black and thick
c. Slow moving and white
d. Mustard yellow and lazy
c. slow moving and white
What is the term for the lowest temperature at which a liquid produces enough flammable vapor to burn momentarily?
a. Ignition temperature
b. Flash point
c. Fire point
d. Flammable range
b. Flash point
The flash point of gasoline is ________.
a. -15 degree F
b. 0 degree F
c. 32 degrees F
d. -45 degrees F
d. -45 degrees F
Which form of heat transfer travels in all directions?
a. Thermal radiation
b. Convection
c. Direct contact
d. Conduction
a. Thermal radiation
What is the smallest unit of matter?
a. An atom
b. A molecule
c. A particle
d. An element
a. An atom
What is a danger to consider when attacking a Class C fire?
a. Permeation of PPE
b. Flashover
c. Backdraft
d. Electrical injury
d. Electrical injury
What is the lowest temperature at which a fuel-air mixture will ignite spontaneously called?
a. Fire point
b. Specific heat
c. Ignition temperature
d. Flash point
c. Ignition temperautre
What is a term for rapid oxidation that produces heat and light?
a. vaporization
b. combustion
c. catalyzation
d. pyrolysis
b. combustion
What is another term for flammability limits?
a. pyrophoric limits
b. volatility index
c. explosive limits
d. oxidation range
c. explosive limits
Which sign is an indication of possible backdraft conditions?
a. vigorous flame productions
b. turbulent, pressurized smoke
c. good interior visibility
d. windows broken out
b. turbulent, pressurized smoke
During the ______ phase, fire has consumed either the available fuel or oxygen and temperature drops.
a. isothermic
b. decay
c. incipient
d. overhaul
b. decay
Which situation is indicated when you open a door and the smoke thins, but the smoke still fills the doors?
a. the fire has ventilated through another opening
b. there is a slow-moving, low-intensity fire
c. the fire is below the level of the door
d. the
c. the fire is below the level of the door
Which term refers to the weight of gas compared to air?
a. vapor gravity
b. specific gravity
c. vapor density
d. specific density
c. vapor density
What is the second phase of fire?
a. fully developed
b. growth
c. flameover
d. incipient
b. growth
Flashover occurs during which phase of the fire?
a. incipient
b. ignition
c. fully developed
d. growth
c. fully developed
Fire involving combustible cooking media, such as oils and greases, are considered Class ____.
a. G
b. E
c. F
d. K
d. K
Upward spread of fire within a structure is primarily caused by which form of heat transfer?
a. radiation
b. circulation
c. conduction
d. convection
d. convection
Flammable liquid fires are considered Class _____.
a. B
b. D
c. A
d. C
a. B
Which of the following is a side of the fire triangle?
a. Ignition source
b. Chemical chain reaction
c. Heat
d. Catalyst
c. Heat
Which form of emergency causes spontaneous heating of a pile of linseed oil-soaked rags?
a. chemical
b. exothermic
c. hypergolic
d. organic
a. chemical
A chemical reaction that produces heat is _____.
a. endothermic
b. exothermic
c. isothermic
d. thermodynamic
b. exothermic
What is the term for the lowest temperature at which a liquid produces enough vapor to sustain a continuous fire?
a. ignition temperature
b. flash point
c. vaporization temperature
d. flame point
d. flame point
Heat traveling from one end of a steel beam to the other end is an example of _________.
a. conduction
b. oxidation
c. radiation
d. convection
a. conduction
A gas with a vapor density of ___ will rise in air.
a. 1.0
b. 0.1
c. 10
d. 100
a. 0.1
Which form of heat transfer consists of kinetic energy moving from one particle to another?
a. conduction
b. induction
c. reduction
d. convection
a. conduction
Heat transfer in the form of invisible waves is called ____.
a. conduction
b. convection
c. radiation
d. emissions
c. radiation
What is the term for high-volume, high velocity, turbulent, ultra dense black smoke?
a. laminar fire
b. endothermic fire
c. black fire
d. turbulent fire
c. black fire
The sudden introduction of air into a oxygen depleted, superheated space may result in _____.
a. ghosting
b. backdraft
c. black fire
d. improved visibility
b. backdraft
What is the vapor density of air?
a. 14.7
b. 1.0
c. 0.0
d. 29.9
b. 1.o
What is another term for fire point?
a. autoignition temperature
b. flash point
c. flame point
d. ignition point
c. flame point
Which of the following is a component of a BLEVE?
a. contact with an energized electrical circuit
b. a "closed box" structure
c. a flammable gas leak
d. pressurized flammable liquid vessel
d. pressurized flammable liquid vessel
What is the chemical change that occurs to wood when it is heated?
a. Pyrolysis
b. Reduction
c. Catagenesis
d. Oxidation
a. Pyrolsis
Which type of construction is heavy timber?
a. V
b. III
c. II
d. IV
d. IV
Which material is a component of mortar?
a. Diatomaceous earth
b. Lime
c. Calcium sulfate
d. Pea gravel
b. Lime
What does a CMU contain?
a. thermal expansion joints
b. void space
c. steel reinforcing rods
d. I-bars
c. steel reinforcing rods
What is the most common application for an engineered wood product?
a. where high fire-resistance is required
b. stair treads and risers
c. short load-bearing members
d. where extra-long beams are required
d. where extra-long beams are required
The structural components of a Type ___ building will not burn.
a. III
b. IV
c. V
d. II
d. II
What is the term for plastics that will melt under fire conditions?
a. thermoset
b. thermoplastic
c. pyrolytic
d. amorphous
b. thermoplastic
Which construction type is particularly susceptible to extension of fire upward through walls?
a. ordinary
b. balloon frame
c. platform
d. heavy timber
b. balloon frame
What is the lower structural member of a truss called?
a. beam
b. girder
c. chord
d. cantilever
c. chord
Which term describes how readily heat will flow through a material?
a. combustibility
b. reactivity
c. volatility
d. thermal conductivity
d. thermal conductivity
What is plaster board commonly used for?
a. roof sheathing
b. interior walls and ceilings
c. shear wall
d. roof fascia and soffits
b. interior walls and ceilings
Type II construction is referred to as _________.
a. fire retardant
b. ordinary
c. noncombustible
d. fire resistive
c. noncombustible
What is a commonly used structural material in a Type I building?
a. engineered wood
b. oriented-strand board
c. treated wood
d. protected steel
d. protected steel
Fire-retardant wood is treated with ________.
a. calcium sulfate
b. mineral salts
c. urea
d. aluminum oxide
b. mineral salts
What is a bar joist?
a. an opened-web steel truss
b. a truss with steel parallel members and wood diagonals
c. a steel I-beam used to support a floor or roof
d. any engineered component with steel load-bearing members
a. an open-web steel truss
What is a disadvantage of fire resistive construction?
a. non fire-resistive structural members
b. the lack of built-in fire protection systems
c. susceptibility to water change
d. difficulty in ventilating the structure
d. difficulty in ventilating the structure
Type III construction is usually limited to a maximum height of ____ stories.
a. 3
b. 4
c. 2
d. 5
b. 4
Which of the following is one of the three basic roof designs?
a. curved
b. hip
c. gable
d. mansard
a. curved
What are laminated glass windows likely to do when exposed to a fire?
a. break irregularly into long, sharp-edged shards
b. crack but remain in place
c. melt
d. shatter into small nuggets with dull edges
b. crack but remain in place
What is the term for building components consisting of individual pieces of wood glued together?
a. engineered
b. manufactured
c. modular
d. lightweight
a. engineered
In which condition does moisture trapped in concrete become heated, turn into steam, and expand, causing parts of the concrete to break away?
a. stressing
b. scaling
c. cavitation
d. spalling
d. spalling
Which type of wall is used to prevent the spread of fire from one side of the wall to the other?
a. partition
b. bearing
c. curtain
d. fire
d. fire
The primary purpose of the ____ is to transfer the weight of the building and its contents to the ground.
a. floor joists
b. foundation
c. piers
d. grade truss
b. foundation
Which term is a measure of whether a material will burn?
a. conductivity
b. combustibility
c. specific heat
d. pyrolytic index
b. combustibility
Which material is prone to spalling under fire conditions?
a. concrete
b. wood
c. steel
d. fiberglass
a. concrete
What is another term for gypsum board?
a. paneling
b. chalkboard
c. sheetrock
d. cement board
c. sheetrock
Which type of glass is most typically used in fire doors and windows?
a. pyrex
b. laminated
c. wired
d. safety
c. wired
Which statement is correct about glass block walls?
a. the wall will contain structural steel
b. the wall is non-load bearing
c. glass blocks are extremely difficult to breach
d. glass blocks quickly fail under fire conditions
b. the wall is non-loading bearing
Which of the following is one of the four key characteristics affecting the behavior of building materials under fire conditions?
a. surface area/mass ratio
b. thermal conductivity
c. porosity
d. density
b. thermal conductivity
Which construction feature is most commonly found in Type V buildings?
a. pre-stressed concrete
b. treated lumber
c. platform-frame construction
d. bar joists
c. platform-frame construction
Which statement about masonry materials is correct?
a. masonry materials have high thermal conductivity
b. masonry materials are susceptible to pyrolysis
c. masonry materials are fire resistive
d. masonry materials expand significantly when heated
c. masonry materials are fire resistive
Which term means the weight of a building without contents?
a. dead load
b. curb weight
c. net weight
d. live load
a. dead load
What is another term for gypsum board?
a. lath
b. stucco
c. OSB
d. drywall
d. drywall
The rate of combustion of wood is most directly related to which factor?
a. age
b. use of adhesives
c. volatility
d. surface area
d. surface area
Which wood-frame construction system uses studs that run continuously from the basement to the roof?
a. western
b. platform
c. conventional
d. balloon frame
d. balloon frame
What is Type V construction?
a. wood frame
b. lightweight
c. fire resistive
d. ordinary
a. wood frame
Which type truss has a curved upper member and straight low member?
a. engineered
b. open web
c. lightweight
d. bowstring
d. bowstring
Which construction assembly is the most susceptible to total failure resulting from the failure of a single component?
a. truss
b. bearing wall
c. cantilever
d. roof panel
a. truss
Which statement about structural steel is correct?
a. structural steel maintains its shape when exposed to high temperatures
b. structural steel is susceptible to fatigue
c. structural steel is very strong under both tension and compression
d. temperature
c. structural steel is very strong under both tension and compression
What is the primary fire hazard of ordinary construction?
a. high fire loading
b. fire extension through concealed spaces
c. difficulty in ventilating the structure
d. heat-related failure of steel trusses
b. fire extension through concealed spaces
Which tool is commonly used to provide a secure work platform for the fire fighters working on pitched roof?
a. pike pole
b. safety rope
c. halligan
d. roof ladder
d. roof ladder
Which term means the weight of a building's content?
a. tare weight
b. gross building weight
c. live load
d. dead load
c. live load
Which material is commonly used to protect steel and wood structural members from fire?
a. gypsum
b. lightweight concrete slurry
c. fiberglass
d. expanded urethane
a. gypsum
In a building fire, you observe warped steel structural members. What is the correct action to take?
a. direct a hose on the members
b. inform the incident commander of your observations
c. no specific action is required
d. immediately withdraw from the b
d. immediately withdraw from the building
What is the primary fire hazard associated with ordinary construction?
a. difficulty in ventilating the structure
b. high fire loading
c. fire extension through concealed spaces
d. heat-related failure of steel trusses
c. fire extension through concealed spaces
Which metal is used in building construction primarily as a coating to protect metal parts from rust and corrosion?
a. manganese
b. zinc
c. copper
d. gypsum
b. zinc
What is one of the four key characteristics affecting the behavior of building materials under fire conditions?
a. load
b. composition
c. stability
d. combustibility
d. combustibility
What does steel do when heated?
a. harden
b. spall
c. contract
d. elongate
d. elongate
Which term refers to how a building is used?
a. type
b. classification
c. occupancy
d. group
c. occupancy
Gypsum board that is exposed to fire for a prolonged time will ______.
a. delaminate
b. warp
c. spall
d. fail
d. fail
If heated to a temperature of 1000 degrees F, how far will a 10 foot steel beam elongate?
a. 1/2 inches
b. 1 inches
c. 2 inches
d. 3 inches
b. 1 inch
Which type of construction is called ordinary construction?
a. III
b. I
c. II
d. IV
a. III
What is Type IV construction?
a. masonry on synthetics
b. heavy timber
c. synthetics
d. wood frame
b. heavy timber
What is formed by making a loop in a rope and then bringing the two ends of the rope parallel to each other?
a. round turn
b. bend
c. eye
d. cinch
a. round turn
Which method is usually recommended for drying ropes?
a. a hose dryer
b. air drying
c. a laundry dryer
d. direct sunlight
b. air drying
Which NFPA standard covers the criteria for design, construction, and performance of life safety rope and related equipment?
a. 1983
b. 1984
c. 1981
d. 1982
a. 1983
What is one of the three primary classifications of rope based on function?
a. rigging
b. utility
c. static
d. rescue
b. utility
An escape rope must be _____ once it is used.
a. inspected
b. replaced
c. tested
d. cleaned
b. replaced
What is a common sign of damage to a kernmantle rope?
a. loose or twisted sheath
b. discoloration
c. depressions in the kern
d. fuzziness of the mantle
c. depressions in the kern
What is the term for preparing a knot by tightening it and removing twists, kinks, and slack from the rope?
a. following
b. finishing
c. dressing
d. squaring
c. dressing
Which knot is typically used to tie together two ropes of unequal size?
a. bowline
b. square
c. becket bend
d. half hitch
c. becket bend
Which of the following knots decreases the load-bearing capacity of rope the least?
a. bowline
b. figure eight follow-through
c. they all decrease load capacity about equally
d. figure eight on a bight
b. figure eight follow-through
When is the use of utility rope appropriate?
a. when the total load is less than 750 lbs
b. when the rope will not be supporting people
c. for static loads only
d. in situations where the rope will likely be damaged
b. when the rope will not be supporting people
Which type of rope consists of individual strands twisted together?
a. laid
b. twine
c. braided
d. twisted
d. twisted
What is the second most common synthetic fiber used for life safety ropes?
a. rayon
b. polypropylene
c. monoester
d. polyester
d. polyester
Which question is important to consider when inspecting life safety ropes?
a. how long has the rope been in storage?
b. has the rope ever been under load?
c. has the rope been subject to shock loading?
d. has the rope been exposed to sunlight?
c. has the rope ever been under load?
Which family of knots is used primarily to attach a rope around an object?
a. bends
b. loops
c. hitches
d. bights
c. hitches
Which knot is used to keep the hoisting rope aligned with the handle of a tool being hoisted?
a. directional figure eight
b. half hitch
c. overhand
d. half sheepshank
b. half hitch
What is a defining characteristic of utility rope?
a. it features natural fiber construction
b. it is de-rated or expired rescue rope
c. it has a minimum breaking strength of 300 lbs.
d. it must not be used to support the weight of a person
d. it must not be used to support the weight of a person
A rope is attached to a ladder for hoisting using a(n) _______.
a. bowline
b. figure eight on a bight
c. overhand safety
d. clove hitch
b. figure eight on a bight
Compared to a natural fiber rope, synthetic fiber rope _______.
a. is weakened to a lesser degree by knots
b. has a smaller diameter than a natural fiber rope of equal strength
c. is less susceptible to damage from acid or alkali exposure
d. is more susce
b. has a smaller diameter than natural fiber rope of equal strength
Which knot is used to prevent the end of a rope from slipping through the primary knot?
a. bowline
b. safety
c. clove hitch
d. half hitch
b. safety
Which item is necessary to include in a life safety rope's documentation?
a. history of use
b. recommended storage
c. expiration date
d. vendor
a. history of use
A rope carried by a fire fighter only for self-rescue from an extreme situation is called a(n) _______ rope.
a. escape
b. personal emergency
c. self-rescue
d. bail-out
a. escape
The term for a rope that is suddenly put under unusual tension is ______ loading.
a. drop
b. shock
c. impact
d. tensile
b. shock
Which of the following is one of the four parts of the maintenance formula for ropes?
a. dry
b. feel
c. coil
d. store
d. store (care, clean, inspect, store)
What is formed by making a circle in a rope?
a. bight
b. snub
c. coil
d. loop
d. loop
A safety knot is most typically used to ______.
a. connect two ropes together
b. secure the leftover working end of a rope
c. prevent a rope from slipping through a pulley or eye
d. form a loop around a stationary object
b. secure the leftover working end of rope
What is a common cause of deterioration in natural fiber ropes?
a. mildew
b. infrequent use
c. storage in a rope bag
d. storage in a low-humidity environment
a. mildew
Which knot component is part of a clove hitch?
a. round turn
b. loop
c. bight
d. follow-though
b. loop
When hoisting a ladder, a _____ line should be attached to the bottom of the ladder to help control it as it is hoisted.
a. spring
b. tag
c. guy
d. safety
b. tag
Which knot would typically be used to attach a rope to a tree or pole?
a. square knot
b. figure eight on a bight
c. bowline on a bight
d. clove hitch
d. clove hitch
Which fiber is commonly used in life safety rope?
a. rayon
b. olefin
c. nylon
d. sisal
c. nylon
Which part of a rope is used for hoisting?
a. running end
b. working end
c. free end
d. standing end
a. running end
Which statement about natural fiber ropes is correct?
a. natural fiber ropes absorb less water than synthetic ropes
b. natural fiber ropes are no longer approved for fire service use
c. some natural fiber ropes are approved for life-safety use
d. natural
d. natural fiber ropes deteriorate even if stored properly
For which application is dynamic rope especially well suited?
a. hoisting
b. rescue
c. static loads
d. mountaineering
d. mountaineering
A figure eight on a bight is used to _______.
a. attach a rope to an eye or ring
b. join two ropes together
c. create a secure loop at the working end
d. wrap a loop around an object
c. create a secure loop at the working end
Which knot is frequently used to secure the end of the rope to an anchor point?
a. bowline
b. square
c. overhand safety
d. becket bend
a. bowline
Which device is used to protect a rope when it must be dragged over a sharp or abrasive surface?
a. edge protector
b. pulley
c. bolster
d. sheath
a. edge protector
What is formed by reversing the direction of a rope to form a "U" bend with two parallel ends?
a. loop
b. bight
c. bend
d. round turn
b. bight
The individual fibers of a natural fiber ropes are twisted together to form a _______.
a. twill
b. plait
c. strand
d. creel
c. strand
What is the preferred type of rope for rescue operations?
a. twisted
b. braided
c. plaited
d. kernmantle
d. kernmantle
Which method of construction is required for life safety rope?
a. woven
b. plaited
c. block creel
d. solid braid
c. block creel
A rope with minimal stretch under load is ______.
a. pliant
b. dynamic
c. static
d. fixed
c. static
Which natural fiber is commonly used to make ropes?
a. horse hair
b. manila
c. coir
d. wool
b. manila
Which fiber is commonly used in water rescue rope?
a. polypropylene
b. spectra
c. olefin
d. polyester
a. polypropylene
Ropes should be cleaned with ______.
a. water only
b. a mild bleach solution
c. castile soap
d. mild detergent
d. mild detergent
What is another term for a safety knot?
a. overhand knot
b. rescue knot
c. finishing knot
d. half hitch
a. overhand knot
What is another term for a sheet bend?
a. round turn
b. water knot
c. becket bend
d. lark's foot
c. becket bend
From which end of the rope can a clove hitch accept tension without coming untied?
a. the running end only
b. either end
c. neither end
d. the working end only
b. either end
Natural fiber ropes are created using which type of construction?
a. kernmantle
b. braid-on-braid
c. plaited
d. twisted
d. twisted
The kern of a kernmantle rope is its ______.
a. weave
b. strand
c. sheath
d. core
d. core
What is the term for a rope used on an extension ladder to raise a fly section?
a. bunt
b. halyard
c. uphaul
d. fly line
b. halyard
What is the term for the part of a rope used to form a knot?
a. running end
b. working end
c. standing part
d. bight
b. working end
Prolonged exposure to ______ light can damage synthetic ropes?
a. ultraviolet
b. infrared
c. spectral
d. polarized
a. ultraviolet
Portable ladders approved for fire service use can support up to _____.
a. 750 lb
b. 450 lb
c. 300 lb
d. 600 lb
a. 750 lb
Which ladder is carried with the tip forward?
a. roof
b. extension
c. straight
d. attic
a. roof
What is the term for ladders that are designed to be removed from the apparatus?
a. pompier ladders
b. bangor ladders
c. articulating ladders
d. portable ladders.
d. portable ladders
Which part(s) of ladders should not be exposed to solvents?
a. beams
b. halyard
c. pawls
d. all parts
b. halyard
What should be done with the excess halyard once an extension ladder is placed and extended?
a. wrap it around rungs of the ladder
b. use it to form an anchor point
c. let it hang between the ladder and the building
d. use it to tie off the bed section
a. wrap it around rungs of the ladder
Before climbing a ladder, fire fighters should make sure it is _____.
a. chocked
b. blocked
c. unoccupied
d. heeled
d. heeled
What is the most likely consequence if the butt of a ladder is placed too close to the side of the building?
a. the ladder will have reduced weight capacity
b. the butt will kick out from the wall
c. the ladder will be more prone to tipping sideways
d. th
a. the ladder will have reduced weight capacity
Which type of ladder should be carried by more than one fire fighter?
a. extension
b. attic
c. single
d. roof
a. extension
How often should ground ladders be visually inspected?
a. annually
b. biannually
c. monthly
d. quarterly
c. monthly
What is the maximum personnel load for a fire service ladder?
a. three fire fighters
b. two fire fighters and one victim
c. one fire fighter plus one victim
d. two fire fighters
b. two fire fighter and one victim
When raising a ladder, it should be kept a minimum of ____ from power lines.
a. 20 ft
b. 15 fit
c. 10 ft
d. 5 ft
c. 10 ft
What is the maximum reach for a 28ft (8.5 m) ladder?
a. the second story window sill only
b. the third story
c. the second story roof
d. the second story windows with two rungs inside
c. the second story roof
What are butt spurs on a ladder?
a. bumps and dents that occur on the foot pad as a result of use
b. mechanical locks that hold the fly section in place
c. devices that secure the ladder to a roof ridge
d. spikes on the base that keep it from slipping
d. spikes on the base that keep it from slipping
Which type of raise is typically used when the ladder is raised perpendicular to the target surface?
a. beam
b. throw
c. rung
d. overhead
c. rung
On a two-fire-fighter ladder carry, what should the fire fighter closer to the butt end do?
a. cover the butt spur with the gloved hand
b. extend the free arm forward
c. carry the ladder chocks
d. decide on the best placement
a. cover the butt spur with the gloved hand
On a three-fire-fighter ladder carry, how should the fire fighters align themselves?
a. two on one side, one on the other
b. all three on the same side of the ladder
c. two at the butt, one at the tip
d. two at the tip, one at the butt
b. all three on the same side of the ladder
Which knot is used to tie off a ladder halyard?
a. sheepshank
b. bowline on a bight
c. clove hitch
d. figure eight
c. clove hitch
A ladder ____ is used to lower a rescuer into a trench or manhole.
a. gin
b. tripod
c. frame
d. anchor
a. gin
Which part of the ladder is placed against the ground when the ladder is raised?
a. butt
b. dog
c. bed
d. heel
a. butt
What is the very top of a ladder called?
a. tip
b. claw
c. top plate
d. fly
a. tip
A ladder belt or a leg lock should be used when _____.
a. carrying equipment up or down the ladder
b. reaching or working from a ladder
c. tying in either the fly or the butt
d. moving an unconscious victim down a ladder
b. reaching or working from a ladder
Which precaution should you take when raising the fly section of an extension ladder?
a. maintain a firm grip on the rungs
b. set your feet against the inside of the rails
c. set the dogs after each click
d. do not wrap the halyard around your hands
d. do not wrap the halyard around your hands
A ladder is carried at arm's length in a(n) _____ carry.
a. suitcase
b. grab
c. quick
d. arm
a. suitcase
When lifting a ladder from the ground into the carrying position during the three-fire-fighter flat shoulder carry, all three fire fighters should ______.
a. move their hands from the beam to the rung
b. step toward the butt
c. pivot during the lift
d. mo
c. pivot during the lift
Which term means the level at which the ground intersects the foundation of a structure?
a. grade
b. shoulder
c. fill
d. camber
a. grade
When a ladder is used to gain access to a roof, a minimum of ___ rungs should show above the roofline.
a. three
b. five
c. seven
d. one
b. five
What is the floor-to-floor height of a commercial structure?
a. 9-10 ft
b. 10-12 ft
c. 12-14 ft
d. 8-9 ft
b. 10-12 ft
What are the two main structural components that run the entire length of ladder?
a. beams
b. flies
c. rungs
d. truss blocks
a. beams
What is a safety rule for climbing a ladder?
a. look upward only when necessary
b. avoid holding onto the beams during the climb
c. carry, rather than hoist, tools whenever possible
d. avoid standing with both feet on the same rung
a. look upward only when necessary
When should the building be used to anchor the butt during a ladder raise?
a. when a single firefighter raises an extension ladder
b. for any single-fire-fighter ladder raise
c. when sending a roof ladder aloft
d. when laddering a building without eaves
a. when a single firefighter raises an extension ladder
When standing upright on a rung, how far should the rung at shoulder height be from the fire fighter?
a. an arm's length
b. about 24 inches
c. half an arm's length
d. about 12 inches
a. an arm's length
A bangor ladder ______.
a. is a single section ladder at least 20 ft long
b. has a single beam
c. is equipped with staypoles
d. is also known as Pompier ladder
c. is equipped with staypoles
Which part of the ladder directly bears the weight of the person climbing it?
a. rung
b. spur
c. tie rod
d. truss block
a. rung
Which statement is correct about sliding your hands long the underside of the beams while climbing a ladder?
a. this practice is practical only on ladders with I-beam construction
b. this practice is appropriate only when both hands are free
c. this pract
d. this practice provides you with three continuous points of contact
Which type of ladder can be converted from a straight ladder to an A-frame configuration?
a. fresno
b. combination
c. attic
d. folding
b. combination
The two-fighter shoulder can be used with extension ladders up to ____ long.
a. 24 ft
b. 35 ft
c. 30 ft
d. 40 ft
b. 35 ft
What is the function of stops on an extension ladder?
a. prevent collapse in the event of halyard failure
b. prevent the ladder from slipping on the ground
c. prevent overextension
d. lock the extended fly sections in place
c. prevent overextension
What is the proper climbing angle for a ladder?
a. 45 degrees
b. 75 degrees
c. 30 degrees
d. 60 degrees
b. 75 degrees
When is it acceptable to use a roof ladder as a free-hanging ladder?
a. never
b. if the ladder will support the weight of only one person
c. if the ladder was manufactured after 1993
d. if the total supported weighted will not exceed 500 lb
a. never
What is the term for keeping a ladder from slipping by applying one's weight to the underside of it?
a. heeling
b. securing
c. anchoring
d. tying-in
a. heeling
What is the term for the rope or cable used to extend or hoist the fly section of an extension ladder?
a. sheet
b. hawser
c. halyard
d. leader
c. halyard
Which NFPA standard sets the minimum performance standards for aerial ladders and elevating platforms?
a. 1450
b. 1901
c. 1932
d. 1724
b. 1901
In the one-fire-fighter carry, where is the top beam of the ladder?
a. in the hands
b. under the arm
c. above the head
d. on the shoulder
d. on the shoulder
Poles used to stabilize long extension ladders are called _____.
a. guy poles
b. staypoles
c. extension poles
d. side poles
b. staypoles
How often should ladder service testing be performed?
a. annually
b. quarterly
c. monthly
d. semi-annually
a. annually
The rails of a trussed beam are separated by _____.
a. A-plates
b. tie rods
c. I-beams
d. truss blocks
d. truss blocks
What is the maximum length of a straight or roof ladder that can be carried safely by one fire fighter?
a. 12 ft
b. 16 ft
c. 18 ft
d. 14 ft
c. 18 ft
Which type of ladder is usually carried up another ladder before being put into place?
a. attic
b. roof
c. fresno
d. chimney
b. roof
Before raising an extension ladder, you should check to make sure the _____.
a. halyard is secure
b. foot is heeled
c. dogs are locked
d. area is clear of overhead obstructions
d. area is clear of overhead obstructions
Why should ground ladders that are unused be cleaned periodically?
a. to prevent oxidation
b. to keep step and grab surfaces tacky
c. to remove accumulated road grime
d. to prevent halyard deterioration
c. to remove accumulated road grime
Which construction technique builds one floor at a time with a firestop between each floor?
a. ordinary
b. balloon
c. flitch plate
d. platform frame
d. platform frame
A problem with using doorways as ventilation openings is that ______.
a. this technique compromises personnel entry & exit
b. it is more difficult to control the ventilation process
c. the large opening can admit too much air
d. this technique tends to pr
a. this technique compromises personnel entry & exit
Which form of ventilation is best for potential backdraft conditions?
a. negative pressure
b. positive pressure
c. horizontal
d. vertical
d. vertical
Within a room space, where are the hottest gases found?
a. at the lowest level
b. it varies depending on the composition of the gases
c. distributed uniformly throughout the volume
d. at the highest level
d. at the highest level
What is the sudden, explosive ignition of fire gases that occurs when oxygen is introduced into a superheated space?
a. mushrooming
b. rollover
c. backdraft
d. flashover
c. backdraft
When ventilating the basement, where is the preferred location to ventilate?
a. the point farthest away from the entrance used by the fire attack crew
b. any preexisting opening
c. the most accessible location
d. the stairway from the upper level
a. the point farthest away from the entrance used by the fire attack crew
What is correct procedure when cutting a ventilation opening in a roof?
a. use preexisting openings only when there is no alternative
b. rock the saw over, rather than through, structural supports
c. several small holes distributed over the fire are bette
b. rock the saw, rather than through, structural supports
What is the minimum measurement for a ventilation opening cut in a roof?
a. 5 ft by 5 ft
b. 6 ft by 6 ft
c. 6ft by 8 ft
d. 4ft by 4 ft
d. 4ft by 4 ft
Which statement summarizes the overall effect of negative-pressure ventilation?
a. it releases the contaminated atmosphere
b. it pulls smoke out
c. it displaces the contaminated atmosphere
d. it pushes smoke out
b. it pulls smoke out
Which hazard is of particular concern in a basement fire?
a. storage of flammable/hazardous materials
b. smoke and heat venting up the stairs toward fire fighters
c. excessive property damage from cutting interior vent holes
d. an air-tight compartment pr
b. smoke and heat venting up the stairs toward fire fighters
Which type of ventilation uses openings in roofs or floors so that heat and smoke can escape the structure in an upward direction?
a. mechanical
b. negative pressure
c. horizontal
d. vertical
d. vertical
Which action should be avoided when performing horizontal ventilation?
a. initiating a fire attack prior to ventilation
b. use of fans or blowers
c. use on a windy day
d. opening upward windows first
d. opening upward windows first
What is the correct ladder placement for breaking a window for ventilation?
a. to the side of the window, tip level the top of the window
b. centered on the window, tip on the wall just above the window
c. to the side of the window, tip level with the sil
a. to the side of the window, tip level with the top of the window
What is the term for the main area of the fire?
a. heel
b. seat
c. origin
d. body
b. seat
For natural ventilation, which windows should be opened last?
a. those windows openings directly into the fire room
b. those windows in the rooms not directly involved in the fire
c. leeward windows
d. upwind windows
d. upwind windows
In which construction type are there uninterrupted channels in the walls from the foundation to the attic?
a. lightweight truss
b. heavy timber
c. balloon frame
d. unreinforced masonry
c. balloon frame
What is the term for the weather resistant surface of a roof?
a. tar paper
b. covering
c. skin
d. decking
b. covering
Positive pressure ventilation is the least suitable approach for which situation?
a. high rise fire
b. fire in structural void spaces
c. fire attack is in progress
d. structure with large interior spaces
b. fire in structural void spaces
Where is water directed during hydraulic ventilation?
a. out a window or door
b. through the roof opening
c. over the roof opening
d. just over the seat of the fire
a. out a window or door
Churning most frequently occurs with which form of ventilation?
a. positive pressure
b. negative pressure
c. vertical
d. horizontal
b. negative pressure
What is the term for the transfer of heat through a circulating medium of liquid or gas?
a. condensation
b. convection
c. radiation
d. conduction
b. convection
The purpose of the hooks of a roof ladder is to ____.
a. secure the tip of the ladder to the peak of a pitched roof
b. provide safe attachment points for the fire fighters working on the ladder
c. prevent the butt of the ladder from slipping or shifting
d
a. secure the tip of the ladder to the peak of a pitched roof
Which term describes a power-operated ladder that is permanently mounted on a fire apparatus?
a. snorkel
b. aerial
c. extension
d. quint
b. aerial
Which term describes the top or bottom section of a trussed beam?
a. block
b. rail
c. rung
d. dog
b. rail
Which action is potentially hazardous while raising an extension ladder?
a. placing a foot on a rung
b. anchoring the ladder with a foot against a rail
c. tying off the halyard
d. hoisting the halyard with the hands in the "thumbs up" position
a. placing a foot on rung
How many points of contact should a fire fighter maintain with the ladder when checking the stability of a roof surface?
a. 1
b. 3
c. 4
d. 2
b. 3
What do the beams of a ladder directly support?
a. halyard
b. rungs
c. roof hooks
d. fly
b. rungs
Which part of the ladder is raised or extended from the bed section?
a. guide
b. extension
c. tip
d. fly
f. fly
When placed at the correct angle for climbing, the ratio of the ladder's vertical reach to distance of the butt from the structure is ___ to one.
a. five
b. two
c. three
d. four
d. four
What is one of the primary functions of a roof ladder
a. provide a secondary means of egress
b. provide lightweight, rapid access to a roof
c. reduce the risk of roof collapse during ventilation operations
d. reduce the number of fire fighters required fo
c. reduce the risk of roof collapse during ventilation operations
Overextension of the fly section of an extension ladder is prevented by _____.
a. locks
b. stops
c. guides
d. pawls
b. stops
Where should the tip of a ladder be placed for rescue operations from a window?
a. about 4 feet above the window
b. into the opening about three rungs
c. immediately below the sill
d. on either side of the window, halfway up the opening
c. immediately below the sill
For which situation is the three-fire-fighter flat shoulder ladder carry best suited?
a. the ladder must be carried over short obstacles
b. there are overhead obstructions
c. the ladder must be maneuvered around sharp corners
d. the ladder will be raised
a. the ladder must be carried over short obstacles
Another term for a portable ladder is _____ ladder.
a. straight
b. bangor
c. single
d. ground
d. ground
What is the likely result of a ladder striking an overhead obstruction while it is being raised?
a. loss of control of the ladder
b. sudden collapse of the fly section
c. a broken or weakened halyard
d. damage to the ladder that is not readily apparent
a. loss of control of the ladder
What is a ladder I-beam usually made of?
a. wood
b. alloy
c. fiberglass
d. truss blocks
c. fiberglass
Which part is specifically designed to prevent the beams of a wooden ladder from separating?
a. rung
b. tie rod
c. protection plate
d. spring bar
b. tie rod
For a ladder contacting the wall 20ft above the ground, the base should be ____ from the wall.
a. 6 ft
b. 4 ft
c. 3 ft
d. 5 ft
d. 5 ft
How are the fire fighters arranged in the three-fire-fighter flat ladder carry?
a. two on one side, one on the other
b. all three on the same side of the ladder
c. two at the butt, one at the tip
d. two at the tip, one at the butt
a. two on one side, one on the other
Which NFPA standard deals with use, maintenance, and service testing of in-service fire department ground ladders?
a. 1401
b. 1875
c. 1932
d. 1560
c. 1932
A ladder consisting of a single section is called a ____ ladder.
a. roof
b. fly
c. straight
d. ground
c. straight
The one-person walking assist is best suited for victims who are ________.
a. awake and responsive
b. require support to walk
c. unable to walk
d. capable of walking
d. capable of walking
When rescuing a conscious person from a window using a ladder, where does the second fire fighter stand?
a. on the bottom rung of the ladder
b. about six rungs down from the top
c. on a rung level with the opening
d. one rung below the windowsill
d. one rung below the windowsill
What is the main purpose of the secondary search?
a. remove remaining occupants
b. double-check the primary search area
c. find evidence of cause and origin
d. locate deceased victims
d. locate deceased victims
Which area is the second search priority?
a. directly under the fire
b. directly adjacent to the fire
c. between the fire and the main exit
d. directly above the fire
d. directly above the fire
What is the best way to confirm everyone has safely evacuated a building?
a. conduct a personnel accountability report
b. conduct a thorough search
c. conduct a head count
d. question occupants
b. conduct a thorough search
A quick attempt to locate potential victims who may be in danger is a(n) ____________.
a. initial survey
b. rapid sweep
c. primary search
d. secondary search
c. primary search
Which statement best describes a primary search?
a. primary search is a rapid search for victims after initial knockdown
b. a primary search is a quick search for victims in immediate danger
c. a primary search is rapid initial assessment of life-threaten
b. a primary search is a quick search for victims in immediate danger
During a fire, where is a missing child likely to be located?
a. is his or her parent's bed
b. hiding in a closet
c. in an exit pathway
d. in the kitchen
b. hiding in a closet
Which piece of equipment should be used whenever possible during an emergency drag from a vehicle?
a. webbing
b. blanket
c. long backboard
d. short backboard
c. long backboard
When assisting a conscious victim down a ladder, how can the rescuer maintain control of the victim's descent?
a. squeeze the victim against the ladder
b. tie the victim to a rope looped over a rung
c. tie the victim to the rescuer
d. stand on the same ru
a. squeeze the victim against the ladder
All ladder rescues should be preformed with at least ___ fire fighters whenever possible?
a. 3
b. 5
c. 2
d. 4
c. 2
The two-person chair carry is particularly useful ______.
a. in narrow corridors
b. for victims with possible spinal injury
c. in heavy smoke conditions
d. for obese victims
a. in narrow corridors
Which method of evacuation for victims above ground should be avoided whenever possible?
a. ground ladder
b. fire escape
c. aerial device
d. interior stairway
a. ground ladder
What is the correct procedure during a clockwise room search?
a. the crew turns right at the entry point
b. the left hand sweeps the middle of the room
c. the left hand maintains contact with the wall
d. the crew turns left at each corner
c. the left hand maintains contact with the wall
Which is used to report that the primary search has been completed?
a. "search negative"
b. "area search complete"
c. "primary all clear"
d. "nothing found
c. "primary all clear
A blanket drag is best suited for a victim who ______.
a. may have a spinal injury
b. is a child
c. is grossly obese
d. is not dressed
d. is not dressed
Which area is the first search priority?
a. the rooms most likely to be occupied
b. the higher-level floors
c. exit pathways
d. the area immediately around the fire
d. the area immediately around the fire
How much risk to fire fighters is acceptable in attempting to save valuable property?
a. none
b. unlimited
c. limited
d. significant
c. limited
How does the fire fighter move when performing the fire fighter drag?
a. crawling on hands and knees
b. walking backward
c. duck-walking
d. walking forward
a. crawling on hands and knees
Adult victims are often found _______.
a. near a door
b. in a bathtub
c. in a closet
d. under a bed
a. near a door
When rescuing an unconscious child or small adult from a window, how many rescuers enter the window to assist the victim?
a. 2
b. 0
c. 1
d. 3
c. 1
When is a secondary search performed?
a. immediately upon completion of the primary search
b. simultaneously with the primary search
c. as soon as personnel become available
d. after the fire is under control or fully extinguished
d. after the fire is under control for fully extinguished
On which principle does a thermal imaging camera operate?
a. ultraviolet light detection
b. diffraction spectroscopy
c. digital image enhancement
d. temperature differentials
d. temperature differentials
Which lift/drag requires two rescuers?
a. extremities
b. standing
c. webbing sling
d. blanket
a. extremities
What is the first priority for a victim who is in a hazardous area and in need of medical treatment?
a. begin medical treatment
b. remove the patient from the hazard
c. complete the primary survey
d. package the patient for removal
b. remove the patient from the hazard
Weighing the potential danger to fire fighters against the potential for saving a life is called _______.
a. life-safety analysis
b. primary survey
c. risk-benefit analysis
d. triage
c. risk-benefit analysis
When using the clothes drag, what supports the victim's head?
a. the victim's clothing
b. a backboard or cervical collar
c. the rescuer's arms
d. the hands of the rescuer at the patient's head
c. the rescuer's arms
How does vent-entry-search differ from conventional search and rescue?
a. the fire is ventilated before entry is made
b. the fire fighter is attached to a guide rope
c. all windows and doors are propped open during the search
d. a window is used for entry
d. a window is used for entry and exit
How should an unconscious child be carried down a ladder?
a. the victim placed over the rescuer's shoulder, one arm holding the knees against the rescuer's chest
b. the victim supported at the crotch and chest by the rescuer's arm
c. the victim cradled ac
c. the victim cradled across the rescuer's arms
Which statement about vent-entry-search is correct?
a. the process puts the searcher between the fire and a ventilation opening
b. vent-entry-search is practical only for single-story buildings
c. searchers enter and exit the search room through an interi
a. the process puts the searcher between the fire and ventilation opening
Which means of victim removal should be avoided if possible?
a. fire escape
b. aerial tower
c. stairway
d. aerial ladder
d. aerial ladder
Which technique should be used when fire fighters must search a large area such as a warehouse?
a. Officer-led search
b. Oriented search
c. Teams of two
d. Search ropes
d. Search ropes
Which step should be performed before beginning search and rescue?
a. perform a risk-benefit analysis
b. deploy a hose line or tagline
c. perform primary survey
d. go directly to the most severely threatened area of the structure
a. perform a risk-benefit analysis
What is a critical factor to evaluate in size-up for search and rescue?
a. reflex time
b. type of fire attack
c. victims' ability to self-evacuate
d. age of victims
c. victims' ability to self-evacuate
Which method is best suited for removing an unconscious victim from a dangerous location?
a. drag
b. carry
c. lift
d. assist
a. drag
Where does the victim's arm go in the one-person walking assist?
a. across the victim's chest
b. around the rescuer's neck
c. linked in the rescuer's arm
d. around the rescuer's waist
b. around the rescuer's neck
What is a secondary search?
a. an exhaustive search for victims after the fire is brought under control
b. any search not conducted by the initial attack crew
c. a quick search for victims performed during the initial attack
d. a search for victims conduc
a. an exhaustive search for victims after the fire is brought under control
What is the biggest drawback of the two-person seat carry?
a. the carry requires access to a chair
b. it is difficult to move through doors
c. rescuers must maintain a stooped posture
d. it is difficult to travel long distances
b. it is difficult to move through doors
The essential reason that team efforts are imperative in the fire service is because of the ________.
a. need to accomplish several tasks simultaneously
b. intense physical labor involved in firefighting operations
c. need to maintain manageable span of c
b. intense physical labor involved in firefighting operations
What does the "R" stand for in "PAR"?
a. Roster
b. Resource
c. Rescue
d. Report
d. Report
What is the function of a personnel accountability system?
a. organize resources into divisions, groups, and crews
b. prevent freelancing and deviation from SOPs
c. track the location and assignments of all personnel at the incident
d. establish and maint
c. track the location and assignments of all personnel at the incident
What does the "R" stand for in "LUNAR"?
a. resources needed
b. region (location)
c. rescue required
d. roll call
a. resources needed
You are alone in zero-visibility conditions and unable to find an exit. Which action listed below should you take last?
a. declare a "mayday" over your radio
b. give a LUNAR report
c. attempt self-rescue
d. activate your personal safety system (PASS)
c. attempt self-rescue
You are alone in zero-visibility conditions and unable to find an exit. Which action listed below should you take first?
a. attempt to find a hose line or tagline
b. declare a "mayday" over your radio
c. activate your personal alert safety system (PASS)
d
b. declare a "mayday" over your radio
Who is responsible for knowing the location of every member of a fire company at all times?
a. all personnel
b. the company officer
c. the accountability officer
d. the safety officer
b. the company officer
Which action is correct for a fire in a building that is known to be abandoned and unoccupied?
a. stay outside and fight the fire from the exterior
b. operate as you would for any building with similar fire conditions
c. take a hose line inside, perform a
a. stay outside and fight the fire from the exterior
Which phrase indicates an imminent fire-ground hazard, such as a structural collapse?
a. "hold all traffic"
b. "emergency traffic"
c. "mayday"
d. "code 30
b. "emergency traffic
Which statement about an RIC is correct?
a. it is required only on hazardous materials and confined-space rescue incidents
b. a backup hose line crew operating inside the hazard zone may function as the RIC
c. it is not permitted to perform any non-RIC ta
d. it is an extension of the two-in/two-out rule
Which term means that a fire company arrives together, works together, and leaves together?
a. personnel accountability
b. unity of command
c. team integrity
d. span of control
c. team integrity
What do company officers do when the incident commander requests a personnel accountability report (PAR)?
a. collect the passports from company members
b. report with the company to the staging area
c. report with the company to rehab
d. physically verify
d. physically verify that all assigned members are present
What happens to personnel accountability passports at the scene of an incident?
a. they are left with a designee at the command post or hazardous area entry point
b. they are carried by the company officer
c. they are left in the cab of the apparatus to b
a. they are left with a designee at the command post or hazardous area entry point
When rescuing a downed fire fighter, what is the first step once the fire fighter is reached?
a. attach the downed fire fighter to the RIC-universal air connection
b. check the downed fire fighter's air supply
c. package the downed fire fighter for remova
d. assess the downed fire fighter's condition
What are smoke, heat, and toxic gases called collectively?
a. fire gases
b. black fire
c. products of combustion
d. smoke
c. products of combustion
How do thermopane windows affect fire behavior?
a. are more likely to break when exposed to heat
b. allow for faster heat build up within the structure
c. improve ventilation
d. decrease the likelihood of backdraft
b. allow for faster heat build up within the structure
Which fuel produces large quantities of black, rolling smoke that rises in a vertical column?
a. vegetation
b. wood
c. petroleum products
d. textiles
c. petroleum products
What is the term for an open space within a wall where wires and pipes run?
a. chase
b. channel
c. bay
d. hoist way
a. chase
What is the term for cool, stagnant interior smoke?
a. layering
b. stratification
c. stacking
d. inversion
b. stratification
What is the preferred method to cut a ventilation hole in a metal roof?
a. triangular
b. louvered
c. trench
d. peak
a. triangular
What is the term for the process in which heated products of combustion spread outward and downward?
a. stack effect
b. mushrooming
c. stratification
d. thermal imbalance
b. mushrooming
What is the open space between the ceiling of the top floor and the underside of the roof of a building?
a. mansard
b. roof chase
c. cockloft
d. eave
c. cockloft
What does fast moving smoke indicate?
a. incomplete combustion
b. very hot fire
c. hot synthetic fuel content
d. poorly ventilated fire
b. very hot fire
What is the phenomenon in which smoke hangs low to the ground on a calm, cool, damp day?
a. downdrafting
b. ground effect
c. smoke inversion
d. pooling
c. smoke inversion
Which statement about positive-pressure ventilation is correct?
a. it requires the use of a build in HVAC system
b. it uses a smoke ejector to draw smoke out of a building
c. it can be used only under favorable wind conditions
d. it should be used only if
d. it should be used only if attack crews have access to all fire
Which effect is caused by temperature differences inside and outside a building?
a. inversion
b. stack effect
c. stratification
d. lapping
b. stack effect
What is a disadvantage of positive-pressure fans?
a. they can spread heat and smoke if used improperly
b. they impede entry and exit of personnel
c. favorable wind conditions are required for their use
d. correct placement can be time consuming
a. they can spread heat and smoke if used improperly
Which benefit is most likely to result from properly performed ventilation?
a. protection of exterior exposures
b. prevention of fire extension to uninvolved areas
c. reduced fire intensity
d. improved conditions within the structure
d. improved conditions within the structure
Which item is used in negative pressure ventilation?
a. negative-pressure fan
b. blower
c. HVAC system
d. smoke ejector
d. smoke ejector
Smoke produced by a small fire involving ordinary combustibles is ____________.
a. gray and fast moving
b. black and thick
c. mustard or brown and wispy
d. light colored and lazy
d. light colored and lazy
Which type of roof opening extends all the way across the roof from one exterior wall to the other?
a. trench
b. band
c. cross
d. transverse
a. trench
What must be done before beginning ventilation?
a. the main body of the fire must be knocked down
b. the rapid intervention crew must be assigned and ready
c. the primary search must be complete
d. the hose team must be in place and ready to attack the fi
d. the hose team must be in place and ready to attack the fire
A freestanding wall that extends above the roofline is a ____ wall.
a. pony
b. sleeper
c. parapet
d. curtain
c. parapet
What is the preferred method to ventilate a large building?
a. trench cut
b. multiple roof openings
c. vertical ventilation
d. individual ventilation of interior compartments
d. individual ventilation of interior compartments
Which statement about hydraulic ventilation is correct?
a. a straight or solid stream is used
b. a medium diameter line is required
c. hydraulic ventilation effectively moves large volumes of smoke and heat
d. the ventilation crew is not exposed to produc
c. hydraulic ventilation effectively moves large volumes of smoke and heat
How can churning be eliminated during smoke ejection?
a. increase the number or size of exhaust openings
b. raise the fan in the opening
c. pull the fan back a few inches
d. completely block the opening around the fan
d. completely block the opening around the fan
How do heated gases move in a room?
a. they spread laterally to the walls and then begin to rise
b. they seek the lowest point and settle there
c. they rise to the ceiling and spread outward
d. they disperse evenly throughout the entire volume of the room
c. they rise to the ceiling and spread outward
All forms of ventilation that use fans or other powered equipment are classified as _____ ventilation.
a. hydraulic
b. assisted
c. positive pressure
d. mechanical
d. mechanical
Which type of ventilation relies on doors and windows on the same level as the fire?
a. positive pressure
b. horizontal
c. natural
d. passive
b. horizontal
Which statement about the operation of HVAC equipment during fire ventilation operations is correct?
a. HVAC systems should be shut down as soon as possible
b. it is important to maintain power to the HVAC system at all times
c. HVAC systems are designed
d. some HVAC systems incorporate features that are useful for clearing smoke
Which term means the spread of fire from one floor to another via exterior windows?
a. laddering
b. leap-frogging
c. flashover
d. stack effect
b. leap-frogging
What occurs when room temperature reaches the ignition point of the combustibles within it?
a. backdraft
b. lapping
c. flashover
d. mushrooming
c. flashover
Which type of building is the most prone to the stack effect?
a. shopping mall
b. warehouse
c. high rise
d. cold storage facility
c. high rise
Which sort of air movement is likely on a hot day in and air conditioned tall building?
a. updraft
b. stratification
c. churning
d. downdraft
d. downdraft
Which type of ventilation opening is used to stop fire spread in a long, narrow building?
a. triangular
b. trench
c. peak
d. louvered
b. trench
When making louver cuts, what is used as a fulcrum to make the louvered openings?
a. roof support
b. decking
c. purlin
d. ridge pole
a. roof support
What is sounding?
a. probing a closet or confined space with a tool handle
b. checking the condition of a roof by striking it with a tool
c. listening for fire inside concealed spaces
d. using a screwdriver or similar tool to check the depth of char
b. checking the condition of a roof by striking it with a tool
In ordinary construction, exterior walls are made of ______.
a. combustible materials
b. noncombustible or limited combustible materials
c. any standard load bearing material
d. fire resistive materials
b. noncombustible or limited combustible materials
The pressure remaining in a water distribution system when water is flowing is the _____ pressure.
a. residual
b. flow
c. operating
d. static
a. residual
The pressure in a system when no water is flowing is called ____ pressure.
a. flow
b. operating
c. residual
d. static
d. static
What is the purpose of the Higbee indicators?
a. make hose coupling easier and faster
b. help disoriented fire fighters find their way out of a building
c. indicate when the hose may be pulling out of the coupling
d. identify the thread standard type
a. make hose coupling easier and faster
The pipes that deliver water from the treatment facility for distribution are _________.
a. trunks
b. mains
c. distributors
d. secondaries
b. mains
Which pipe pattern supplies water to hydrants from more than one direction?
a. engineered
b. parallel
c. grid
d. duplex
c. grid
According to the NFPA, what is the minimum distance between the center of the fire hydrant outlet and the finished grade of the ground around the hydrant?
a. 30"
b. 12"
c. 18"
d. 24
c. 18
Which tool is used to protect a hose line that is being hoisted over a sharp edge?
a. hose roller
b. edge protector
c. hose ramp
d. hose pulley
a. hose roller
Another term for head pressure is ______ pressure.
a. residual
b. elevation
c. flow
d. static
b. elevation
What is the minimum recommended pressure for water coming from a fire hydrant?
a. 30 psi
b. 40 psi
c. 50 psi
d. 20 psi
b. elevation
In a well-designed water distribution system, which type of pattern do the water mains follow?
a. loop
b. branched
c. parallel
d. grid
d. grid
The two-fire-fighter stiff-arm method is used to _____.
a. reload LDH into a hose bed
b. make hard suction hose connections
c. uncouple hose
d. advance a charged line
c. uncouple hose
Which coupling goes on the inside of a straight hose roll?
a. either
b. both couplings are attached
c. female
d. male
d. male
In general, mobile water supply apparatus carry ______.
a. 1ooo to 3500 gal.
b. 2000 to 5000 gal.
c. 3000 to 6000 gal.
d. 1000 or fewer gal.
a. 1ooo to 3500 gal.
Which valve is opened or closed by rotating a handle a quarter turn?
a. Siamese
b. Butterfly
c. Slide
d. Gate
b. Butterfly
What is used to connect hose couplings with dissimilar threads?
a. Siamese
b. Adaptor
c. Fitting
d. Hose jacket
b. Adaptor
Which term means the amount of energy in a body or stream of water?
a. flow
b. volume
c. watts
d. pressure
d. pressure
A Pitot gauge is used to determine ________ pressure.
a. flow
b. operating
c. residual
d. static
a. flow
What is the fastest way for a mobile water supply apparatus to offload water into a portable tank?
a. use the dump valve
b. connect to the drafting pumper
c. use large-diameter hose
d. engage the tender's auxiliary pump
a. use the dump valve
What is the last step in rolling a straight hose roll?
a. tie the slip knot
b. create a fold to protect the outer coupling
c. connect the couplings together
d. use a foot to align protruding hose
d. use a foot to align protruding hose
Which pressure must be measured to calculate the quantity of water flowing through a hydrant discharge?
a. operating
b. flow
c. residual
d. head
b. flow
A dry hydrant provides access to a ________.
a. portable water tank
b. municipal water system
c. cistern or well
d. static water source
d. static water source
Which feature of hose couplings is used to aid in the coupling and uncoupling of hose?
a. lug
b. shank
c. spanner
d. Higbee cut
a. lug
Fire fighters may need to hold on to the ____ while filling a self-expanding portable tank.
a. hose
b. frame
c. collar
d. rope
c. collar
The volume of water that is being moved through a pipe or hose is termed the ______.
a. stream
b. flow
c. pressure
d. throughout
b. flow
What is a common use for a hose clamp?
a. allow a hydrant to be opened before the supply line is connected to the pump intake
b. regulate pressure/volume in a single hose
c. control a burst section of hose line without interrupting water flow
d. allow for
a. allow a hydrant to be opened before the supply line is connected to the pump intake
What is the decrease in pressure that occurs as water moves through a hose?
a. water hammer
b. residual pressure
c. friction loss
d. kinetic energy
c. friction loss
Which of the following is one of the three factors that determine friction loss?
a. water source
b. hose diameter
c. atmospheric pressure
d. ambient temperature
b. hose diameter
When charging a supply line at a hydrant, the fire fighter should ______.
a. check that the hydrant strap is secure
b. fully open the stem and then back it off one full turn
c. avoid standing between the hose line and the hydrant
d. place the hose clamp b
c. avoid standing between the hose line and the hydrant
What is the correct tool to tighten a hard suction hose connection?
a. rubber mallet
b. spanner
c. hose wrench
d. strap wrench
a. rubber mallet
What is the function of lugs found on couplings?
a. aid in coupling and uncoupling hose
b. help the coupling slide over obstructions
c. align the threads during coupling
d. strengthen the coupling
a. aid in coupling and uncoupling hose
What is the realistic minimum usable residual pressure from a water distribution system for fire fighting operations?
a. 30 psi
b. 20 psi
c. 0 psi
d. 40 psi
b. 20 psi
What is the color code for a hydrant flowing 1000 to 1499 gpm (3785 to 5674 lpm)?
a. light blue
b. yellow
c. green
d. orange
c. Green
The NFPA recommends color-coding hydrants to indicate _______.
a. the water source
b. the most recent flow test
c. available flow
d. available pressure
c. available flow
How close must a fire engine get to a static water source to be able to draft directly from it through hard suction hose?
a. 10 ft.
b. 20 ft.
c. 30 ft.
d. a distance equal to the total length of the available hard suction hose minus 10 ft.
b. 20 ft.
Which description best fits a hose jacket device?
a. split metal cylinder
b. soft rubber sheet
c. stiff canvas patch
d. wound plastic coil
a. split metal cylinder
When water is motionless, which kind of energy does it have?
a. static
b. residual
c. kinetic
d. potential
d. potential
A hose adaptor connects two hose sections of ______.
a. equal diameter and similar threads
b. equal diameter but differing threads
c. unequal diameter but similar threads
d. unequal diameter and differing threads
b. equal diameter but differing threads
How does a doughnut hose roll differ from a straight hose roll?
a. the female coupling is on the outside
b. both couplings are in the middle
c. the two couplings are connected
d. both couplings are on the outside
d. both couplings are on the outside
How can you determine that a dry barrel hydrant is still draining?
a. place a hand on the stem nut and feel for vibration
b. place a hand over an outlet and feel for suction
c. listen carefully for a hissing sound
d. look for a continuing trickle from the
b. place a hand over an outlet and feel for suction
What makes a water thief different from a wye is the addition of _____________.
a. clapper valves
b. ball valves
c. a 2 1/2" outlet
d. a second inlet
c. a 2 1/2" outlet
What is used to connect individual sections of hose together to extend their length?
a. Higbee
b. Appliance
c. Rocker
d. Coupling
d. Coupling
What is used to carry a self-locking twin doughnut hose roll?
a. a loop of hose
b. hose strap
c. rope
d. webbing
a. a loop of hose
How many gallons per minute can a tanker shuttle operation deliver without interruption?
a. a few hundred
b. a few thousand
c. zero
d. several hundred
d. several hundred
What is the color code for a hydrant flowing 500 to 999 gpm (1890 to 3780 lpm)?
a. green
b. orange
c. light blue
d. red
b. orange
The end of the hose bed closet to the apparatus cab is the _____.
a. back
b. partition
c. front
d. bulkhead
c. front
Hose that is at least 3 1/2" (88 mm) in diameter is considered ______ diameter.
a. large
b. small
c. medium
d. master
a. large
The pipes that deliver water to users and hydrants on individual streets are ______.
a. cross mains
b. service lines
c. secondaries
d. distributors
d. distributors
Which hose load has the hose up on the edge and placed around the perimeter of the hose bed in a U shape?
a. perimeter
b. split
c. horseshoe
d. U
c. horseshoe
Which hose appliance combines tow hose lines into one?
a. Siamese
b. Manifold
c. Reducer
d. Wye
a. Siamese
What is the maximum capacity of typical portable water tanks?
a. 3500 gal.
b. 5000 gal.
c. 2000 gal.
d. 1500 gal.
b. 5000 gal.
Which type of hose roll is used to store hose on a storage rack?
a. doughnut
b. straight
c. twin
d. flat
b. straight
A short fold in a supply hose load that prevents a coupling from flipping around when the hose is being laid out is a ______.
a. bowtie
b. flip
c. Dutchman
d. reverse
c. Dutchman
A soft suction hose is used to connect a pumper to a _____.
a. hydrant
b. standpipe/FDC
c. master stream device
d. static water supply
a. hydrant
What is hard suction hose most commonly used for?
a. relay pumping
b. filling a portable tank
c. transferring water from a pressurized source to a pump
d. drafting from a static water source
d. drafting from a static water source
A typical number fire engine carries ____ of supply hose.
a. 750 to 1250 ft.
b. 500 to 750 ft.
c. 1000 to 1500 ft.
d. 1500 to 2000 ft.
a. 750 to 1250 ft.
What should be used to clean fire hoses?
a. Class A foam
b. a dilute bleach solution
c. mild detergent
d. TSP (trisodium phosphate)
c. mild detergent
Which type of hose coupling does not have male or female ends?
a. snap-tite
b. storz
c. naval
d. ramos
b. storz
Which term means the properties of energy, pressure, and water flow as related to fire suppression?
a. fire flow
b. hydraulics
c. hydrodynamics
d. friction loss
b. hydraulics
Which supply line load is capable of laying both single and dual supply lines?
a. horseshoe
b. twin
c. Detroit
d. split bed
d. split bed
An engine lays hose from a water source to fire scene in a _____ lay.
a. forward
b. basic
c. standard
d. single
a. forward
What is the color code for a hydrant flowing less than 500 gpm (1890 lpm)?
a. orange
b. white
c. red
d. yellow
c. red
Where are dry-barrel hydrants typically used?
a. cold climates
b. static water supplies
c. areas subject to frequent vandalism
d. dedicated fire protection water system
a. cold climates
Which type of adaptor is used to connect two female couplings to each other?
a. double male
b. wye
c. Siamese
d. double female
a. double male
What is the color code for a hydrant flowing 1500 gpm (5678 lpm) or more?
a. light blue
b. green
c. orange
d. white
a. light blue
The flow or quantity of water moving is measured in _____.
a. joules
b. cubic feet per minute
c. gallons per minute
d. pounds per square inch
c. gallons per minute
What is the term for the large discharge opening on a fire hydrant?
a. main
b. deluge
c. steamer
d. primary
c. steamer
When should the fire fighter at the hydrant charge the supply line?
a. after placing the hose clamp
b. after the supply line is connected to the pump intake
c. as soon as it is connected to the hydrant
d. upon receiving a signal from the driver/operator
d. upon receiving a signal from the driver/operator
Fire hydrants should be inspected at least once every _____ months.
a. 6
b. 24
c. 18
d. 12
d. 12
Portable pumps can deliver a maximum of _____.
a. 750 gpm
b. 500 gpm
c. 250 gpm
d. 1000 gpm
b. 500 gpm
When referring to hose, what does the "L" stand for "LDH"?
a. light
b. low
c. large
d. limited
c. large
What is a function of a hose liner?
a. resist mechanical damage
b. protect against thermal damage
c. reduce friction loss
d. withstand water pressure
c. reduce friction loss
In a jacketed fire hose, which function does the outer jacket serve?
a. it reduces friction loss
b. it resists kinking
c. it adds strength that allows the hose to withstand water pressure
d. it is the waterproof layer of the hose
c. it adds strength that allows the hose to withstand water pressure
Which size of coupling are the outlets on most fire hydrants sized to fit?
a. 4"
b. 2 1/2"
c. 3"
d. 3 1/2
b. 2 1/2
Couplings are tightened and loosened with a _____ wrench.
a. hose
b. hydrant
c. spanner
d. lug
c. spanner
In a _____ lay, the hose is laid out from the fire to the hydrant.
a. relay
b. reverse
c. defensive
d. hydrant
b. reverse
Pressure in a water distribution system during average consumption is ______ pressure.
a. residual
b. static
c. mean
d. normal operating
d. normal operating
The most likely cause of leaking between two joining couplings is a damaged or missing _______.
a. shank gasket
b. compression gasket
c. expansion ring
d. swivel gasket
d. swivel gasket
What should be done to avoid water hammer?
a. always maintain a minimum residual pressure of 20 psi
b. purge air from the line before opening a valve or nozzle
c. open and close all valves slowly
d. never connect a hard suction hose to a pressurized water
c. open and close all valves slowly
Which device splits one hose stream into two hose streams?
a. Siamese
b. Water thief
c. Wye
d. Splitter
c. Wye
Which item is used to attached a smaller hose to larger one?
a. adaptor
b. gate
c. fitting
d. reducer
d. reducer
Which hose load has the hose up on its edge and laid side-to-side in the hose bed?
a. fan-fold
b. edge
c. accordion
d. combination
c. accordion
What is the correct procedure for vent-entry- search?
a. use of this process in combination with horizontal ventilation
b. Vent the window as soon as possible after entering the room
c. Close the door as soon as possible after making entry
d. Searches mus
c. Close the door as soon as possible after making entry
When lowering an unconscious child down a ladder, where should the rescuer's hands be?
a. on the beams
b. on the different rungs
c. on the same rung
d. one on a rung, the other on a beam
a. on the beams
When organizing teams for a large building search, assignments are often based on __________.
a. known areas of safe refuge
b. alarm panel indicators
c. wind direction
d. stairway locations
d. stairway locations
What is a distinguishing feature of the oriented search method?
a. room access is through an exterior opening
b. contact with a wall is maintained at all times
c. an officer stays at the door during a room search
d. a diagonal slash
c. an officer stays at the door during a room search
In the two-part marking system for indicating which rooms have been searched, which symbol means a search is complete?
a. a circle with a diagonal slash
b. the letters SC
c. an X
d. a diagonal clash
c. an X
If you encounter a closed door during a search, what should you do before entering?
a. gap the door
b. try before you pry
c. check the door for heat
d. loudly identify yourself and your intentions
c. check the door for heat
When vent-entry-search is performed with two fire fighters, where is the second fire fighter located?
a. the doorway
b. just outside the window
c. at the anchor point
d. in constant physical contact with the fire searcher
b. just outside the window
When rescuing an unconscious victim from a window, how many fire fighters enter the window to assist the victim?
a. one
b. three
c. none
d. two
a. one
Which statement regarding the fire fighter drag is correct?
a. it is well suited to stairways
b. it requires no equipment to carry out
c. it requires cooperation on the part of the victim
d. it can be used when the victim is heavier than the rescuer
d. it can be used when the victim is heavier than the rescuer
What is the best source of information for identifying building layout, stairways, and exits?
a. occupant description
b. initial entry crews
c. 360 degree survey
d. pre-incident plan
d. pre-incident plan
Which marking indicates a search is presently under way in a particular room?
a. a diagonal slash
b. an S
c. an X
d. a circle
a. a diagonal slash
When using a webbing sling drag, what helps support the victim's head and neck?
a. a roll of blanket
b. the webbing sling
c. the rescuer's hands
d. the rescuer's forearms
b. the webbing sling
When is an exception made to the two-in/two-out rule?
a. when it will delay operations due to lack of personnel
b. in IDLH entries where there is no visible fire
c. in life-threatening situations where immediate action can save a life
d. there is no excep
c. in life-threatening situations where immediate action can save a life
The first priority for search teams is those areas _______.
a. where victims are most likely to be found
b. with the highest number of occupants
c. where trapped occupants have the best chance for survival
d. where occupants are in the most immediate dang
d. where occupants are in the most immediate danger
In which type of search pattern do fire fighters turn upon entry to a room and then turn left at each corner around the room?
a. oriented
b. left-handed
c. standard
d. counterclockwise
d. counterclockwise
How many fire fighters are necessary to properly execute a long backboard rescue?
a. two
b. four or more
c. three
d. one
b. four or more
What is the signal to the incident commander that the secondary search has been completed?
a. "nothing found"
b. "secondary all clear"
c. "fire under control"
d. "loss stopped
b. "secondary all clear
Which carry works best for children and small adults?
a. extremities
b. incline
c. chair
d. cradle-in-arms
d. cradle-in-arms
Where should a search rope be anchored?
a. to each rescuer
b. to a hauling system
c. to a second exit
d. at the entry point
d. at the entry point
Which emergency drag is best for fast removal from a dangerous area?
a. blanket
b. clothes
c. extremities
d. webbing sling
d. webbing sling
During an unconscious-victim ladder rescue, what is the position of the victim?
a. horizontal, facing the ladder
b. upright, facing the rescuer
c. horizontal, facing the rescuer
d. upright, facing the ladder
b. upright, facing the rescuer
When lives can be saved, how much risk is justified in trying to save them?
a. moderate
b. minimal
c. unlimited
d. high
d. high
When are company officers and safety officers involved in risk-benefit analysis?
a. when assigned this task by the incident commander
b. at the beginning and end of each operational period
c. at each completion benchmark
d. on a continuous basis
d. on a continuous basis
Which OSHA standard mandates the use of backup teams at incidents where operations are conducted in an IDLH atmosphere?
a. 2000.471
b. 1910.134
c. 2610.472
d. 1500.120
b. 1910.134
How are tasks assigned on the fire ground?
a. tasks are assigned to and performed by intact companies
b. individuals are assigned tasks individually
c. individuals are assigned tasks singly by the company officer
d. resources are pooled and deployed accor
a. tasks are assigned to and performed by intact companies
When under great pressure, most people's behavior will revert to _______.
a. habit
b. instinct
c. previous experience
d. common sense
a. habit
The board to which fire fighter personnel accountability tags are attached is commonly referred to as _______.
a. the roster
b. the roll
c. the hall pass
d. a passport
d. a passport
What does the "A" stand for in "LUNAR"?
a. Air supply
b. Assistance needed
c. Assignment
d. Area
c. Assignment
What is the term for the evaluation of an action's potential positive results and its potential negative consequences?
a. primary survey
b. risk-benefit analysis
c. strategic analysis
d. size-up
b. risk-benefit analysis
What is the most important reason for team integrity in firefighting operations?
a. chain of command
b. span of control
c. tactical effectiveness
d. safety of personnel
d. safety of personnel
What is the shape of an NFPA 704 placard?
a. triangle
b. square
c. circle
d. diamond
d. diamond
A personnel accountability report is commonly performed in which situation?
a. upon occurrence of a significant event
b. upon activation of a low-air alarm
c. upon entry of a company into the hazardous area
d. as each resource checks in to the command pos
a. upon occurrence of a significant event
If one member of a company needs rehabilitation, who goes to the rehabilitation area?
a. the entire company
b. all members who need it
c. that member only
d. the member and his or her assigned buddy
a. the entire company
Which of the following is an acceptable method for a company officer to verify the status of a company member?
a. oral
b. auditory
c. visual
d. radio
c. visual
A standard approach to risk-benefit analysis should be incorporated into an agency's _________.
a. mission statement
b. standard operating procedures
c. incident action plan
d. peer counseling
b. standard operating procedures
Which program is specifically designed to prevent harmful emotional or psychological reactions to extremely stressful incidents?
a. critical incident stress management
b. employee assistance program
c. crisis intervention and assistance
d. peer counseling
a. critical incident stress management
Depositing a company's personnel accountability roster with the entry officer or command post indicates that the company ________.
a. is available for assignment
b. has been released from the scene
c. has arrived on scene
d. is inside the hazard area
d. is inside the hazard area
After company officers carry out a PAR, what do they do next?
a. send the passport to the command post
b. resume operations
c. check the air status of all personnel within the company
d. report the results to the incident commander
d. report the results to the incident commander
Which term best describes how much risk is acceptable in attempting to protect savable property?
a. limited
b. minor
c. significant
d. none
a. limited
Complete this sentence; "We will not risk our lives at all ________."
a. because we will use our heads instead
b. for persons or property that are already lost
c. for others who are already at risk
b. because to do so we become part of the problem
b. for persons or property that are already lost
What is a method commonly used to attach individual fire fighters' personnel accountability tags to the board on the apparatus?
a. torx-head screws
b. clear vinyl pockets
c. Velcro
d. spring clips
c. Velcro
Under actual firefighting conditions, an SCBA cylinder rated for 45 minutes can be realistically expected to last approximately _____ minutes.
a. 10
b. 40
c. 30
d. 20
d. 20
Tracking every company working at an incident from the time they arrive until they time they are released is the function of the _____ system.
a. resource tracking
b. roll call
c. personnel accountability
d. check-in
c. personnel accountability
Which term best describes how much risk is acceptable in attempting to save endangered lives?
a. none
b. measured
c. unlimited
d. minor
b. measured
What should company officers do if they believe there is a change in the balance of risk to benefit during an incident?
a. continue with their assignments
b. change their tactics accordingly
c. report their observations to the incident commander
d. withdr
c. report their observations to the incident commander
A temporary location that provides refuge while awaiting rescue or finding a method of self-rescue from a hazardous situation is a(n) _______.
a. emergency refuge
b. safe location
c. in-place shelter
d. secure room
b. safe location
In the context or fire fighter survival, what is a safe location?
a. any safe haven or building used for sheltering in place
b. any location outside the threatened area
c. a temporary staging area immediately adjacent to the hazard zone
d. a location that
d. a location that is less hazardous than the alternatives
What is the most important component of fire fighter survival?
a. consistently apply safe operating procedures
b. establishment of RICs
c. preincident planning
d. maintaining team integrity
a. consistently apply safe operating procedures
According to NFPA statistics, what was the leading case of fire in residential occupancies in 2011?
a. smoking materials
b. cooking equipment
c. electrical malfunctions
d. heating appliances
b. cooking equipment
Why should fire fighters understand the basic principles of fire investigation?
a. they may be called to serve as cause investigators
b. an understanding of fire cause aids in fire suppression
c. they may have to detain or question suspects of witnesses
d
d. it will help them to observe and preserve evidence
Where do most structure fires occur?
a. residences
b. light industrial
c. office/retail
d. manufacturing
a. residences
What is the term for an ignition source that has enough heat energy to ignite the fuel and remains in contact with it long enough to cause ignition?
a. causative
b. proximate
c. competent
d. effectual
c. competent
Fifty year old deteriorating wiring is an example of which subtype of electrical fire cause?
a. deferred maintenance
b. worn out or defective equipment
c. defective installation
d. improper use of equipment
b. worn out or defective equipment
Which of the following is one of the two classifications of fire cause?
a. intentional
b. incendiary
c. arson
d. malicious
b. incendiary
Using a light-duty extension cord to connect a heavy duty appliance is an example of which subtype of electrical fire cause?
a. overloaded wiring
b. defective installation
c. user negligence
d. improper use of equipment
b. defective installation
Combustible materials positioned to spread fire are known as ______.
a. trailer
b. propagants
c. incendiary devices
d. accelerants
a. trailer
What is the term for materials used to start a fire?
a. accelerant
b. igniter
c. incendiary device
d. trailer
c. incendiary device
What is the term for the particular set of circumstances that brought the ignition source into contact with a fuel?
a. source
b. origin
c. cause
d. mechanism
c. cause
The location where an ignition source comes into contact with a fuel supply is the _____.
a. heel
b. point of origin
c. ignition point
d. incipient point
b. point of origin
What is the term for the process of maintaining continuous possession and control of evidence from the time it is discovered until it is used in court?
a. evidentiary control
b. chain of custody
c. conservator of possession
d. affidavit of possession
b. chain of custody
According to NFPA statistics for 2010, how many fatalities resulted from fire incidents in the US?
a. 6388
b. 2755
c. 7820
d. 4806
b. 2755
Which of the following is a requirement of a competent ignition source?
a. design and intent
b. an act of omission
c. a mechanical or chemical process
d. heat source and fuel in contact long enough to reach ignition temperature
d. heat source and fuel in contact long enough to reach ignition temperature
What is the correct procedure when a member of a fire company has to leave a structure to change an air cylinder?
a. the member exits alone if he or she can do so safely
b. the member and his or her appointed buddy exit
c. those members who are low on air
d. all company members exit together
Which radio terminology is used to report a fire fighter in trouble and requiring immediate assistance?
a. "fire fighter requesting assistance"
b. "emergency traffic"
c. "signal 102"
d. "mayday
d. "mayday
Which statement about hazard recognition is correct?
a. the most obvious hazards tend to pose the least danger
b. hazards decrease as the duration of the incident increases
c. hazards tend to be the same regardless of the nature of the incident
d. not all
d. not all hazardous conditions are evident through observation
When should you declare a mayday?
a. as soon as you think you might be in trouble
b. when you have been unable to self-rescue
c. when you find yourself in IDLH atmosphere
d. when you find a victim and need assistance with the rescue
a. as soon as you think you might be in trouble
Upon arrival at a fire, how can on-call volunteer fire fighters establish team integrity?
a. establish a personnel accountability system
b. establish a staging area
c. operate to best tactical advantage
d. assemble into companies
d. assemble into companies
During a two-person rescue of a downed fire fighter, where does the first fire fighter grab the victim?
a. arms
b. SCBA shoulder straps
c. legs
d. chest
b. SCBA shoulder straps
What is most basic method of regaining orientation in a zero-visibility environment?
a. listen for the sound of the apparatus motor
b. find and follow a hose line
c. probe the walls for a window or door
d. activate the PASS
b. find and follow a hose line
What is the most common error when making a mayday call?
a. making inadequate efforts at self-rescue before making the call
b. failing to activate the PASS after making the call
c. issuing the call prematurely
d. waiting too long before making the call
d. waiting too long before making the call
What does the "C" stand for in "CISM"?
a. crisis
b. critical
c. company
d. casualty
b. critical
What is the most basic method for staying oriented inside a low-visibility environment?
a. staying in contact with a partner
b. staying in contact with the hose line
c. use a guide rope
d. staying in contact with a wall
b. staying in contact with the hose line
What is the term for an event that threatens to exceed a fire fighter's ability to cope?
a. traumatic event
b. critical incident
c. dissociative event
d. acute stress incident
b. critical incident
What is the term for a roll call taken by a supervisor at an emergency incident?
a. personnel accountability report
b. status and location check
c. resource status report
d. personnel safety check
a. personnel accountability report
What is the term for the process of reducing the effects of fatigue during an emergency operation?
a. recuperation
b. restoration
c. recovery
d. rehabilitation
d. rehabilitation
What is the function of the rapid intervention company?
a. be ready and immediately available for rescue of fire fighters
b. provide personnel specializing in the rescue of building occupants
c. reduce losses by expediting the initial fire attack
d. provi
a. be ready and immediately available for rescue of fire fighters
Who has the responsibility to account for all fire fighters involved in an emergency incident?
a. incident commander
b. safety officer
c. company officer
d. fire fighter
a. incident commander
If a fire fighter becomes disoriented, how can the hose line be used to assist in egress?
a. place one hand on the swivel and one hand on the shank; move in the direction of the swivel
b. the male coupling is on the end of the hose nearest the apparatus
c
c. place both hands on the coupling; travel in the direction of the hand holding the male coupling
How should fire fighters space themselves when advancing an uncharged line up a ladder?
a. 15 ft.
b. 10 ft.
c. one fire fighter on each ladder section
d. only the fire fighter with the nozzle should be on the ladder
c. one fire fighter on each ladder section
When there is extra hose at the entry of a building, how should that hose be arranged?
a. a straight line
b. a serpentine pattern
c. large, loose coils
d. similar to an accordion fold
b. a serpentine pattern
Most fog nozzles are designed to operate at which nozzle pressure?
a. 80 psi
b. 75 psi
c. 100 psi
d. 50 psi
c. 100 psi
In general, what volume does a 2 1/2" (64 mm) handline flow?
a. 200 gpm
b. 300 gpm
c. 175 gpl
d. 250 gpm
d. 250 gpm
Which preconnected hose load forms an S-shape in the hose bed?
a. split
b. skid
c. minuteman
d. triple layer
d. triple layer
What is an advantage of an automatic fog nozzle?
a. the flow rate adjusts to maintain the rated nozzle pressure
b. the nozzle reaction remains constant despite variations in pump pressure
c. the flow from the nozzle remains constant despite variations in
a. the flow rate adjusts to maintain the rated nozzle pressure
Compared to fog nozzle streams, smooth-bore nozzle streams ________.
a. absorb less heat
b. are more effective for hydraulic ventilation
c. cause more disruption of thermal layering
d. have a lower discharge volume
a. absorb less heat
Which attack line load is particularly useful when there is a long distance between the engine and the fire?
a. minuteman
b. skid
c. wyed lines
d. triple layer
c. wyed lines
Which attack line load is often coupled to a larger-diameter line?
a. split
b. triple layer
c. minuteman
d. wyed lines
d. wyed lines
Which type of load is most commonly used for preconnected attack lines?
a. horseshoe
b. minuteman
c. accordion
d. skid
b. minuteman
What is the correct procedure for deploying a triple-layer load preconnect?
a. place the nozzle and the top fold over the shoulder and walk away from the apparatus
b. clear the hose from the bed by pulling the loop on the lowest tier
c. once the load has
a. place the nozzle and the top fold over the shoulder and walk away from the apparatus
Most smooth-bore nozzles are designed to operate at which pressure?
a. 125 psi
b. 50 psi
c. 100 psi
d. 75 psi
b. 50 psi
Which nozzle type has the highest flow rate?
a. smooth bore
b. adjustable
c. handline
d. master stream
d. master stream
Which hose diameter is used as both supply line and attack handline?
a. 3 "
b. 2 1/2"
c. 1 3/4"
d. 2 3/4
b. 2 1/2
Generally speaking, a 1 1/2" (38-mm) attack hose can flow_______.
a. 50 to 100 gpm
b. 120 to 180 gpm
c. 75 to 150 gpm
d. 60 to 125 gpm
d. 60 to 125 gpm
Attack lines should be connected to a standpipe system ______.
a. two floors below the fire
b. one floor above the fire
c. one floor below the fire
d. on the fire floor
c. one floor below the fire
Generally speaking, a 1" (25 cm) booster hose can flow _______.
a. 40 to 50 gpm
b. 50 to 75 gpm
c. 15 to 30 gpm
d. 20 to 40 gpm
a. 40 to 50 gpm
Which type of fog-stream nozzle provides a flow between 90 and 225 gpm (340 and 852 lpm)?
a. fixed-gallonage
b. adjustable gallonage
c. variable pattern
d. automatic-adjusting
d. automatic-adjusting
Hard rubber hose stored on a hose reel is _______ hose.
a. forestry
b. booster
c. attack
d. mop-up
b. booster
What is an advantage of a smooth-bore nozzle?
a. creation of more air turbulence
b. operation at a higher nozzle pressure
c. greater heat absorption per gallon discharged
d. longer stream reach
d. longer stream reach
What is the correct procedure for a burst hose line?
a. leave the burst section in operation unless the water loss is affecting nozzle flow
b. place the clamp as far from the burst section of hose as possible
c. shut the line down at the pump panel only a
d. use two lengths of hose to replace a single burst length
Which attack line load is particularly useful when the line must be advanced up a stairway?
a. wyed lines
b. skid
c. minuteman
d. triple layer
c. minuteman
What is the second stage of advancing an attack line?
a. advancing the line to the point of attack
b. flaking out the line at the building entrance
c. purging the line of air
d. pulling the line from the bed
a. advancing the line to the point of attack
Which type of hose ranges in size from 2 1/2" (65 mm) to 3" (75mm) in diameter?
a. master
b. supply
c. medium
d. large
c. medium
What is an appropriate use for a 1" (25 mm) booster line?
a. car fire
b. exposure protection
c. appliance fire
d. dumpster fire
d. dumpster fire
Which type of hose ranges in size from 1" to 1 1/2" (25 to 38 mm) in diameter?
a. handline
b. booster
c. medium
d. forestry
d. forestry
Which statement about straight streams is correct?
a. a straight stream is the same as a solid stream
b. a straight stream resists breakup better than solid stream
c. a straight stream is discharged from a smooth-bore nozzle
d. a straight stream is discha
d. a straight stream is discharged from an adjustable fog nozzle
Generally speaking, a 1 3/4" (45 mm) attack hose can flow _______.
a. 60 to 125 gpm
b. 100 to 160 gpm
c. 75 to 150 gpm
d. 120 to 180 gpm
d. 120 to 180 gpm
The function of a standpipe system is to provide ______.
a. a connection from an engine to a static water source
b. a water supply for interior attack lines
c. a connection for pumper support of a sprinkler system
d. an auxiliary water supply for the fire
b. a water supply for interior attack lines
Which statement about operating a nozzle from a ground ladder is correct?
a. two parallel ladders are required for this operation
b. the hose must be tied securely to the ladder
c. the ladder should be tied off to the building
d. this is a risky operation
b. the hose must be tied securely to the ladder
Master streams flow a minimum of _______.
a. 350 gpm
b. 500 gpm
c. 450 gpm
d. 400 gpm
a. 350 gpm
What is an advantage of a fog-stream nozzle?
a. less disruption of thermal layering
b. lower operating pressure
c. longer stream reach
d. greater heat absorption per gallon discharged
d. greater heat absorption per gallon discharged
Which type of nozzle is used to fight fires in inaccessible places such as attics and basements?
a. cellar
b. educator
c. piercing
d. water curtain
a. cellar
For which preconnected hose load does the fire fighter shoulder part of the load, with hose paying off the top of that load as the fire fighter advances?
a. forestry
b. triple layer
c. skid
d. minuteman
d. minuteman
What is the correct procedure for the triple-layer load?
a. the entire load must be on the ground before the nozzle can be advanced
b. each layer should be a single length of hose
c. half the load is shouldered and the other half pays off from the ground
a. the entire load must be on the ground before the nozzle can be advanced
What is the term for a hose line that is stored on an engine connected to a discharge and equipped with a nozzle for immediate deployment?
a. skid load
b. ready load
c. bundle
d. preconnect
d. preconnect
When using a standpipe connection in a stairwell, how should the hose be arranged?
a. up the stairwell toward the floor above the fire
b. in large coils on the landing nearest the fire floor
c. back and fourth on the landing
d. down the stairwell toward t
a. up the stairwell toward the floor above the fire
A 50' (15m) section of charged 2 1/2" (64mm) hose weighs approximately _____.
a. 150 lb
b. 200 lb
c. 125 lb
d. 100 lb
b. 200 lb
A fire fighter with specialized knowledge and training for high angle rescue, structural collapse, trench rescue, confined-space, and similar operations is a _______.
a. technical rescue technician
b. special operations technician
c. search and rescue tec
a. technical rescue technician
A fire fighter with specialized training for aircraft and airport-related incidents is a(n) ______.
a. technical rescue technician
b. aircraft rescue fire fighter
c. hazardous material technician
d. aviation operations specialist
b. aircraft rescue fire fighter
A long section of protective material used to protect flooring or carpet is a _______.
a. carpet cover
b. salvage mat
c. floor roll
d. floor runner
d. floor runner
Which rank is directly above a lieutenant in the fire service?
a. Captain
b. Division Chief
c. Division/group supervisor
d. Battalion Chief
a. Captain
In the fire service, the bugle has become a symbol of ______.
a. service
b. fraternity
c. authority
d. courage
c. authority
It is permissible to remove SCBA during salvage operations after _______.
a. all remaining fire has been extinguished
b. the area is clear of smoke
c. the atmosphere has been tested and found safe
d. the fire is extinguished
c. the atmosphere has been tested and found safe
A fire fighter who is trained and certified in chemical identification, leak control, and decontamination is a(n) ______.
a. materials technical specialist
b. hazardous materials technician
c. Fire Fighter II
d. spill management technician
b. hazardous materials technician
Ideally, when should overhaul operations begin?
a. after fire investigators have examined the scene
b. anytime after extinguishment
c. as soon as resources are available
d. concurrently with salvage
a. after fire investigators have examined the scene
Three out of four career fire fighters work in jurisdictions with a population of _______ or more.
a. 50,000
b. 25,000
c. 100,000
d. 75,000
b. 25,000
Approximately ____ percent of fire fighters in the United States are volunteers.
a. 55
b. 73
c. 46
d. 34
b. 73
A threaded stem indicates the valve position on which sprinkler control valve?
a. post indicator
b. butterfly
c. gate
d. outside stem and yoke
d. outside stem and yoke
If individual sprinkler heads cannot be shut off, what should be done to stop the flow of water?
a. close the sprinkler control valve
b. close the water service valve at the water meter
c. Open the fire department connection outside
d. open the system dra
a. close the sprinkler control valve
Specific information on the actions to be taken to accomplish a certain task is provided by _____.
a. policies
b. rules and regulations
c. standard operating procedures
d. incident action plans
c. standard operating procedures
If overhaul operations may disturb possible evidence, what should fire fighters do before continuing with their work?
a. have a law enforcement officer evaluate the situation
b. tag and bag the evidence
c. take photos or make sketches of the evident in an
d. wait for investigators to examine it
Which term can be defined as the set of guidelines that a department establishes for its fire fighters?
a. discipline
b. span of control
c. unity of command
d. training
a. discipline
A fire cannot be considered fully extinguished until _____ is complete.
a. overhaul
b. the suppression operation
c. loss control
d. secondary search
a. overhaul
The individual responsible for the overall management of an incident is the _______.
a. operations chief
b. commanding officer
c. company officer
d. incident commander
d. incident commander
What is a common location for a sprinkler system OS&Y valve?
a. on the service side of the water meter
b. in an underground service box
c. outside next to the post indicator valve
d. in a utility or mechanical room
d. in a utility or mechanical room
The number of people whom one person can supervise effectively is known as _______.
a. division of labor
b. functional supervision
c. span of control
d. chain of command
c. span of control
During salvage, what should be done with any pictures on the walls?
a. they should be left in place and turned toward the wall
b. they should be left in place and covered with plastic sheeting
c. they should be placed face-down under the bed
d. they shoul
d. they should be removed and placed with the furniture
How is a sprinkler wedge used to stop flow from an activated sprinkler?
a. push two wedges together from opposite sides between the orifice and the deflector
b. tap a wedge into place between the orifice and the deflector
c. insert the wedge into the orif
a. push two wedges together from opposite sides between the orifice and the deflector
The upper limit of span of control in a complex, dynamic situation is generally considered to be ____ to 1?
a. 15
b. 10
c. 5
d. 20
c. 5
Organizing an incident by breaking down the overall strategy into a series of smaller tasks is an example of _____.
a. span of control
b. discipline
c. unity of command
d. division of labor
d. division of labor
Which type of company specializes in incident involving spilled or leaking hazardous chemicals?
a. truck
b. salvage
c. hazardous material
d. engine
c. hazardous material
The risk of rekindle exists even if as little as ____ of the original fire is left smoldering.
a. 15%
b. 10%
c. 1 %
d. 5 %
c. 1%
During salvage operations, rolls of plastic film are particularly useful for protecting _______.
a. high-piled stock
b. long surfaces
c. cabinets/bookshelves
d. office equipment
b. long surfaces
During salvage, what is the best way to quickly stop the flow from a single sprinkler head?
a. replace the bulb or link
b. install a replacement head
c. close the branch line valve
d. insert a sprinkler wedge
d. insert a sprinkler wedge
Which position specializes in reviewing plans for fire detection and suppression systems for functionality and code compliance?
a. fire systems specialist
b. fire marshal
c. fire prevention officer
d. fire protection engineer
d. fire protection engineer
Who developed the first fire hydrant?
a. Ben Franklin
b. John Lofton
c. Hans Hautsch
d. George Smith
d. George Smith
Which are the two levels of NFPA fire fighter certification?
a. A and B
b. basic and advanced
c. Junior and Senior
d. I and II
d. I and II
What is a common location for a post indicator valve?
a. next to the water meter
b. on an exterior wall
c. on the main system riser
d. in a utility or mechanical room
b. on an exterior wall
A fire fighter will most typically report directly to a person of which rank?
a. unit leader
b. battalion chief
c. section chief
d. lieutenant
d. lieutenant
In a typical fire department rank structure, an assistant chief reports directly to the ______.
a. chief of the department
b. section chief
c. battalion chief
d. command staff
a. chief of the department
Which of the following is the organizational structure through which a department manages its routine and emergency operations?
a. chain of command
d. division of labor
c. scalar structure
d. incident command system
a. chain of command
Which basic management principle says that each fire fighter should answer to only one supervisor?
a. span of control
b. division of labor
c. unity of command
d. organizational accountability
c. unity of command
The earliest know fire department was in _____.
a. the Ottoman Empire
b. Greece
c. Germany
d. ancient Rome
d. ancient Rome
What does the Golden Rule mean when applied to the fire service?
a. treat everyone else as if they were a member of your family
b. stay humble and teachable; and willing to teach others
c. honor the job by working hard and doing your best
d. working as a
a. treat everyone else as if they were a member of your family
Which of the following is one of the four basic management principles used by fire departments?
a. division of labor
b. common terminology
c. management by objective
d. delegation of authority
a. division of labor
Who is responsible for coordinating the activities of several fire companies in a defined geographic area such as a district?
a. Section Chief
b. Battalion Chief
c. Captain
d. Assistant Chief
b. Battalion Chief
Which position serves as a liaison between the incident commander and the news media?
a. planning section chief
b. agency representative
c. public information officer
d. liaison officer
c. public information officer
Which of the following was one of the major U.S. fires of 1871?
a. Great Fire of Pittsburgh
b. Great Chicago Fire
c. Great Boston Fire
d. Great New Orleans Fire
b. Great Chicago Fire
What is limitation of backpack water vacuums?
a. they cannot be worn with SCBA
b. they cannot be used with dirty water
c. lift is limited to approximately 3 ft
d. they must be used in a well-ventilated area
a. they cannot be worn with SCBA
Operating a PIV handle is similar to operating a ______.
a. ball valve
b. pump panel pull-valve
c. nozzle bale
d. hydrant wrench
d. hydrant wrench
The output range for portable lights is generally _____ watts.
a. 500 to 750
b. 300 to 1500
c. 250 to 500
d. 500 to 1000
b. 300 to 1500
Which of the following are developed to provide definitive guidelines for present and future actions?
a. standard operating procedures
b. after-action reports
c. policies
d. regulations
c. policies
For whom should fire fighters consider that they work?
a. their team
b. their supervisors
c. the tax-paying citizens
d. themselves
c. the tax-paying citizens
Training and performance qualifications for firefighters are specified in which NFPA standard?
a. 1001
b. 1021
c. 1500
d. 472
a. 1001
Which development led to the widespread use of the mechanized pumping apparatus?
a. private insurance companies
b. jacketed hose
c. wagon mounted steam engines
d. internal combustion engines
d. internal combustion engines
The goal of _____ is to ensure that all members of an agency perform a given task in a uniform way.
a. the manual of operations
b. standard operating procedures
c. tactical objectives
d. policies
b. standard operating procedures
Which style of leadership does the fire department use?
a. distributed
b. paramilitary
c. decentralized
d. top centralized
b. paramilitary
Medical requirements for fire fighter are specified in which NFPA standard?
a. 904
b. 1582
c. 1962
d. 1002
b. 1582
Which type of company specializes in saving victims from fires, confined space, trenches, and high angle situations?
a. truck
b. rescue
c. rapid intervention
d. engine
b. rescue
The first portable light should be set up _____.
a. as close as possible to the seat of the fire
b. on the "C" side of the structure
c. on the "A" side of the structure
d. at the entry point into the structure
d. at the entry point into the structure
NFPA standards are ___________.
a. administrative law
b. regulatory law
c. model codes
d. consensus documents
d. consensus documents
What is a common salvage operation?
a. determining the cause and origin of the fire
b. covering ventilation openings
c. utility control
d. pulling ceilings
b. covering ventilation openings
How much does water weigh?
a. 10.5 lb per gallon
b. 12.2 lb per gallon
c. 7.5 lb per gallon
d. 8.3 lb per gallon
d. 8.3 lb per gallon
What does the "S" stand for in SOP?
a. Specific
b. Standard
c. Sequential
d. Special
b. Standard
Truck companies are sometimes referred to as ____ companies.
a. ladder
b. rescue
c. rapid intervention
d. engine
a. ladder
Which type of company is responsible for securing a water source, deploying handlines, and putting water on the fire?
a. pumper
b. truck
c. engine
d. initial attack
c. engine
Which national organization writes codes and standards for fire protection?
a. FEMA
b. OSHA
c. USFA
d. NFPA
d. NFPA
Where was the first fire insurance company formed in America?
a. Charleston, SC
b. Boston, MA
c. New York, NY
d. Chicago, IL
a. Charleston, SC
Which of the following is another term for deck gun?
a. turret pipe
b. deluge set
c. playpipe
d. monitor
a. turret pipe
Portable monitors, deck guns, and ladder pipes are examples of _______.
a. aerial streams
b. master stream devices
c. handlines
d. deluge sets
b. master stream devices
A master stream device that is permanently mounted on an engine and plumbed directly into the pump is a _____.
a. playpipe
b. deluge set
c. deck gun
d. monitor
c. deck gun
A vehicle fueled by CNG or LPG is fully involved in fire. Which of the following should be used to fight the fire?
a. carbon dioxide
b. unmanned master stream
c. 1 3/4" hose stream
d. 2 1/1" hose stream
b. unmanned master stream
How should fire fighters approach a vehicle fire?
a. 90 degree angle from the side
b. 45 degree angle from the side
c. directly from the front
d. directly form the rear
b. 45 degree angle from the side
What is the correct method to stop the flow of gas into a structure applied by an outside storage cylinder?
a. close the valve on the cylinder
b. disconnect the cylinder
c. rotate the quarter-turn valve at the meter
d. delegate the task to the gas service
a. close the valve on the cylinder
What is the most common hazard associated with confined spaces?
a. carcinogenic materials
b. explosion
c. electrical shock
d. atmospheric conditions
d. atmospheric conditions
What is the minimum flow from a master stream device?
a. 450 gpm
b. 350 gpm
c. 750 gpm
d. 500 gpm
b. 350 gpm
When shutting down electrical service to a structure, you should _______.
a. apply a lockout device
b. test an outlet
c. notify the utility company
d. remove the breakers
a. apply a lockout device
An elevated master stream device mounted at the tip of an aerial ladder is a _________.
a. rung gun
b. snorkel
c. ladder pipe
d. dry chemical
c. ladder pipe
What is the best item to aid extinguishment of smoldering fire in tightly packed combustible materials?
a. water fog
b. piercing nozzle
c. class A foam
d. dry chemical
c. class A foam
Which statement is correct about simultaneous offensive and defensive operations at the same building?
a. simultaneous offensive and defensive operations may be a useful tactic for large industrial buildings
b. simultaneous offensive and defensive operati
c. simultaneous offensive and defensive operations are dangerous and should not be done
Which special hazard is found on hybrid vehicles?
a. slow-drain capacitors
b. high voltage cables
c. compress gas cylinders
d. sulfuric acid
b. high voltage cables
Which hazardous material is commonly found in vehicle batteries?
a. sulfuric acid
b. pentaic acid
c. hydrofluoric acid
d. hydrochloric acid
a. sulfuric acid
Which color are the high voltage cables in a hybrid vehicle?
a. red
b. orange
c. red/white
d. black/white
b. orange
Which cancer causing material do transformers contain?
a. polyphenyl chlorinates
b. polychlorinated vinyls
c. polychlorinated biphenyls
d. biphenyl chlorinates
c. polychlorinated biphenyls
Which type of extinguishing agents should be used on electrical fires?
a. class A
b. class C
c. class D
d. class B
b. class C
Commonly used master stream devices flow _______.
a. 500 to 1200 gpm
b. 500 to 2000 gpm
c. 350 to 2500 gpm
d. 350 to 1500 gpm
d. 350 to 1500 gpm
Defensive firefighting operations are conducted from which location?
a. exterior
b. roof
c. interior
d. exposure
a. exterior
It there is no life-safety hazard, which type of fire attack should be used in a building under construction?
a. offensive
b. blitz
c. indirect
d. defensive
d. defensive
Which hazard is of particular concern with fires involving stacked or piled material?
a. toxic exposure
b. collapse
c. rekindle
d. interference with sprinkler systems.
b. collapse
What happens during a blitz attack?
a. the building of origin is considered unsavable
b. opposing hose lines are used in a coordinated attack
c. a master stream is used for an offense operation
d. fire attack is made regardless of ventilation status
c. a master stream is used for an offense operation
How much risk to fire fighters' lives is acceptable in attempting to minimize damage to property that is already severely damaged?
a. a little
b. a lot
c. a moderate amount
d. none
d. none
Why is it necessary to limit the lowest stream angle of a portable monitor?
a. to prevent instability of the monitor
b. to reduce stress on the supply lines
c. to ensure the safety of crews and equipment operating nearby
d. to minimize flooding around the
a. to prevent instability of the monitor
A burning liquid that is pouring over the edge of a container is known as a _____ fire.
a. continuous
b. flowing
c. cascading
d. three dimensional
d. three dimensional
Which firefighting attack, if successful, will result in the least amount of property damage?
a. defensive
b. combination
c. indirect
d. offensive
d. offensive
Large handlines flow approximately ______.
a. 250 gpm
b. 150 gpm
c. 350 gpm
d. 200 gpm
a. 250 gpm
When can one fire fighter safely handle a large handline?
a. when using the handline for exposure protection
b. when the handline is stationery and well anchored
c. when using a 50 psi nozzle
d. under no circumstances
b. when the handline is stationery and well anchored
Which of the following is an example of two dimensional fire?
a. ground cover fire
b. roof fire
c. flammable liquid spill on open ground
d. fire contained within a void space
c. flammable liquid spill on open ground
Which hazard presents the greatest risk for a fire in modern vehicle?
a. components containing pressurized gas
b. laminated glass
c. bursting tires
d. exploding fuel tanks
a. components containing pressurized gas
What is the minimum size hose line for a vehicle fire?
a. 1 1/2"
b. 1 3/4"
c. 2 1/2"
d. 1
a. 1 1/2
What is the maximum diameter of a small handline?
a. 2"
b. 2 1/2"
c. 1 1/2"
d. 1 3/4
a. 2
Which statement about using hose streams on an elevated transformer fire is correct?
a. you should use just enough water to, but to extinguish, the fire
b. class B foam is the ideal extinguishing agent
c. water should be applied in short bursts
d. this te
d. this technique may cause splashing and spread of toxic liquids
What is the minimum number of fire fighters needed to advance and maneuver a 2 1/2" handline inside a building?
a. 2
b. 4
c. 1
d. 3
d. 3
Which fire-extinguishing agent would be best choice for use on delicate electronic equipment?
a. carbon dioxide
b. aqueous film-forming foam
c. ordinary dry chemical
d. multipurpose dry chemical
a. carbon dioxide
In a direct attack, water should be applied until ______.
a. all visible flame is extinguished
b. water droplets fall from the ceiling
c. the smoke level begins to drop
d. the fire darkens down
a. all visible flame is extinguished
What is the correct method to stop the flow of gas delivered via utility pipeline into a structure?
a. delegate the task to the utility company
b. turn off the valve at the meter
c. close the valve on the cylinder
d. pinch the pipe closed using grounded p
b. turn off the valve at the meter
HIPPA applies specifically to _____.
a. healthcare providers
b. certified or registered medical personnel
c. EMS providers
d. "covered entities
d. "covered entities
What is a disadvantage of combination fire department/EMS systems?
a. responsibility for patient care is delegated to less qualified personnel
b. a fire company may be out of service for a long time while waiting for an ambulance
c. fire department person
b. a fire company may be out of service for a long time while waiting for an ambulance
What does the "E" stand for in the acronym CME?
a. education
b. enforcement
c. emergency
d. event
a. Education
What is another term for written medical standing orders?
a. algorithms
b. policies
c. protocols
d. procedures
c. protocols
An EMS system where the fire department provides medical first response and another agency provides patient transportation is a ______ system.
a. tiered
b. combination
c. contract
d. split
b. combination
Which agency is common provider of EMR/EMT training?
a. American Red Cross
b. American Heart Association
c. Community College
d. local health and human services agency
c. Community College
Who serves as liaison between the medical community, hospital, and the EMS providers?
a. local department of health designee
b. agency EMS program coordinator
c. Medical Director
d. regional EMS program coordinator
c. Medical Director
In general, which type of EMS delivery has been found to provide the highest quality of care?
a. fire department EMS
b. it varies by community
c. separate EMS agency
d. combination
b. it varies by community
What is an occlusive dressing used for?
a. treating burns
b. preventing infection
c. stopping bleeding
d. sealing chest wounds
d. sealing chest wounds
Which acronym refers to required ongoing education for EMS providers?
a. ROE
b. OME
c. CEU
d. CME
d. CME
Who provides online medical control?
a. the most qualified responder
b. the company officer
c. an EMS physician
d. an EMT-Paramedic
c. an EMS physician
Which of the following is exclusively a Paramedic level skill?
a. use of an AED
b. extrication
c. ambulance operation
d. administering medications
d. administering medications
What is the minimum level of training necessary to provide care to a victim in an ambulance?
a. EMR
b. EMT
c. First Responder
d. Paramedic
b. EMT
Through which organization are Emergency Medical Responders nationally registered?
a. U.S. Department of Health and Human Services
b. FEMA
c. International Red Cross
d. National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians
d. National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians
With which group would discussion of confidential patient information be acceptable?
a. friends and neighbors of the patient
b. other EMS or fire personnel not involved in patient care
c. EMS crews from another shift
d. none of the above
d. none of the above
Administering intravenous fluids and medications are skills performed by a firefighter trained to the _____ level.
a. advanced life support
b. transitional life support
c. basic life support
d. intermediate life support
a. advanced life support
How long is the typical Emergency Medical Responder (EMR) course?
a. 24 hours
b. 30 hours
c. 40 hours or more
d. 16 hours
c. 40 hours or more
What is the minimum level of training necessary to administer oxygen?
a. Paramedic
b. First Responder
c. EMT
d. EMR
c. EMT
Which item is required for EMS provider recertification?
a. continuing medical education (CME)
b. clinical experience hours
c. continuous service hours
d. a specified minimum number of patient contacts
a. continuing medical education (CME)
Who usually decides which agencies will provide EMS?
a. the local emergency planning committee (LEPC)
b. the chief fire official
c. an accreditation committee
d. elected officials
d. elected officials
Which level of training is designed specifically for people such as police officers, teachers, and daycare providers who encounter medical emergencies as part of their jobs?
a. emergency medical technician
b. standard first aid
c. emergency medical respon
c. emergency medical responder
Each EMS system has a medical director with _____ credentials.
a. physician
b. critical care nurse
c. EMS administrator
d. EMT Paramedic
a. physician
Approximately ____ percent of U.S. fire departments provide some level of EMS to their communities.
a. 85
b. 95
c. 65
d. 75
b. 95
Training personnel to serve in both firefighting and EMS roles is referred to as _____.
a. cross-training
b. division of labor
c. functional training
d. manpower sharing
a. cross-training
Which statement about citizens who call 911 for medical aid is generally correct?
a. they tend to wait too long to call for help
b. they have little or no medical training
c. their reports to the dispatcher are reliable and accurate
d. they are inclined t
b. they have little or no medical training
The elements of HIPAA that most directly affect EMS providers are those that deal with _______.
a. patient confidentiality
b. bloodborne pathogens
c. insurance fraud
d. liability of individual providers
a. patient confidentiality
Which agency establishes the national curriculum for EMS courses?
a. Department of Transportation (DOT)
b. Department of Health and Human Services (HHS)
c. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA)
d. Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA)
a. Department of Transportation (DOT)
Which acronym refers to a level of emergency medical service provision?
a. ALS
b. FSTC
c. EOA
d. ASUR
a. ALS
What is the best perspective to maintain when treating a patient?
a. treat the patient as you would want to be treated if you were in his or her position
b. your obligation to the community comes before your obligation to the patient
c. you must accept th
a. treat the patient as you would want to be treated if you were in his or her position
Approximately ____ percent of fire departments in the United States provide patient transportation.
a. 45
b. 55
c. 35
d. 65
b. 55
What does the "D" stand for in the acronym AED?
a. device
b. delivery
c. defibrillator
d. detector
c. Defibrillator
What is an example of indirect medical control?
a. phone/radio contact
b. standing orders
c. combination EMS system
d. continuing medical education
b. standing orders
Why should EMS providers have a good working knowledge of hospital procedures and policies?
a. they may be subject to assignment to a hospital in a disaster situation
b. they may be asked to testify in court as a witness to hospital actions
c. during busy
d. they may be asked to assist hospital personnel during victim transfer
What is the lowest level of training qualified to perform BLS skills?
a. advanced first aid
b. emergency medical responder
c. emergency medical technician
d. first responder
b. emergency medical responder
Advanced life support personnel operate as the extension of ______.
a. the agency
b. the first responders
c. a physician
d. the public health system
c. a physician
In a fire department EMS system, at which level of training are the first response and transport services provided?
a. either one can be BLS or ALS
b. first response is BLS and transport ALS
c. both are ALS
d. first response is ALS and transport is BLS
a. either one can be BLS or ALS
Keeping EMS providers updated on changes in the field is the function of ______.
a. the national registry process
b. continuing medical education classes
c. treatment protocols and procedures
d. a continuous quality improvement program
d. a continuous quality improvement program
Which of the following is an Emergency Medical Responder (EMR) skill?
a. use of an AED
b. attending patients during ambulance transport
c. use of airway adjuncts
d. administration of oxygen
a. use of an AED
Which of the following is exclusively a paramedic-level skill?
a. moving trauma victims
b. automated defibrillation
c. monitoring heart rhythms
d. treating shock
c. monitoring heart rhythms
Which of the following is the acronym for the federal law protecting the privacy of victims?
a. FLSA
b. HIPAA
c. FOIA
d. FPPA
b. HIPAA
Fire fighters should regard the citizens of their community as _______.
a. consumers
b. taxpayers
c. customers
d. clients
c. customers
An Emergency Medical Technician training course is a minimum of ____ hours.
a. 80
b. 110
c. 60
d. 150
b. 110
What is the defining characteristic of a fire department EMS system?
a. delivery of ALS level care
b. provision of first tier medical response
c. training of all personnel to a specified level
d. provision of both medical and transport services
d. provision of both medical and transport services
Emergency medical services are provided at two levels. What is one of those?
a. First Responder
b. Basic Life Support
c. Advanced first aid
d. Basic first aid
b. Basic Life Support
What is an advantage of having the medical first response provided by the fire department?
a. fewer personnel required to provide care
b. access to additional funding resources
c. immediate care is available for injured fire fighters
d. reduced wait times
d. reduced wait times for patient transport
Which of the following is a form of online medical control?
a. standing orders
b. treatment protocols
c. ALS level personnel
d. physician contact by phone
d. physician contact by phone
Which level of EMS service delivery consists primarily of patient assessment, oxygen delivery, and moving/lifting of patients?
a. intermediate life support
b. basic life support
c. advanced life support
d. transitional life support
b. basic life support
Which type of burn is also known as a second degree burn?
a. sunburn burn
b. full thickness burn
c. superficial burn
d. partial thickness burn
d. partial thickness burn
What is the term for discoloration of the parts of a deceased person's body closest to the ground?
a. myasthenia gravis
b. morbid coagulation
c. dependent lividity
d. chromatis mortis
c. dependent lividity
What is the legal term for discontinuing CPR without either the order of physician or hand-off of the victim to someone of equal or superior training?
a. abandonment
b. negligence
c. dereliction
d. nonfeasance
a. Abandonment
What is the term for the stiffening of muscles that occurs after death?
a. necrosis
b. morbidity
c. lividity
d. rigor mortis
d. rigor mortis
HIV, HBV, and HCV are ____.
a. carcinogens
b. bloodborne pathogens
c. blood clotting factors
d. chemical warfare agents
b. bloodborne pathogens
Who determines the required immunizations for fire fighters?
a. agency medical director
b. personal doctor
c. local health officer
d. CDC
a. agency medical director
What is a total lack of respirations called?
a. cheynes-stokes respirations
b. kussmaul breathing
c. respiratory arrest
d. hypoventilation
c. respiratory arrest
What is the purpose of the head tilt-chin left technique?
a. open the airway
b. protect the spine
c. feel the carotid pulse
d. examine the pharynx
a. open the airway
During rescue breathing, what should be done with firmly attached dental appliances?
a. they should be removed if gentle pressure alone is sufficient to detach them
b. they should be removed
c. single or double bridges should be left in place; all other a
d. nothing
What is a component of the three part method of assessing the adequacy of breathing?
a. open
b. shake
c. listen
d. count
c. listen
What is a function of the circulatory system?
a. transport carbon dioxide to the lungs
b. absorb carbon dioxide from the alveoli
c. absorb oxygen from body tissues
d. transport oxygenated blood to the lungs
a. transport carbon dioxide to the lungs
For infant CPR, which pulse is checked?
a. pedal
b. radial
c. carotid
d. brachial
d. brachial
Which type of bleeding is characterized by a steady flow of dark red blood?
a. capillary
b. arterial
c. serous
d. venous
d. venous
Which piece of protective equipment is of particular importance when caring for a victim with a cough?
a. gown
b. surgical mask
c. goggles
d. HEPA respirator
d. HEPA respirator
In two rescuer CPR on an infant, compressions should be performed with the ______.
a. heel of one hand
b. ring and middle fingers
c. two thumbs/encircling hands technique
d. ring, middle, and index fingers
c. two thumbs/encircling hands technique
What are the tiny air sacs at the end of an airway called?
a. bronchioles
b. alveoli
c. mediastia
d. pulmonary capillaries
b. alveoli
What is the initial treatment for a chemical burn?
a. flush the contaminated area
b. brush the material off the victim
c. apply a sterile dressing
d. administer oxygen
b. brush the material off the victim
Which part of the body is especially prone to turning pale or blue as a result of inadequate breathing?
a. lips
b. ears
c. underside of the wrists
d. schlera
a. lips
What is placed directly on a wound to control bleeding and prevent further contamination?
a. bandage
b. splint
c. tourniquet
d. dressing
d. dressing
What is the term for a heart that is not contracting?
a. shock
b. cardiac arrest
c. heart attack
d. stroke
b. cardiac arrest
Which part of the circulatory system carries blood to the heart?
a. arteries
b. capillaries
c. veins
d. arterioles
c. veins
During triage, what color is the tag placed on a victim who has first priority?
a. blue
b. green
c. red
d. white
c. red
Which type of bleeding is characterized by the blood oozing out?
a. arterial
b. venous
c. capillary
d. internal
c. capillary
How does the use of a pressure point control bleeding?
a. clotting factors are held in place
b. a nerve is tricked into constricting an artery
c. a fluid dam is created in the soft tissue
d. a major blood vessel is compressed against a bone
d. a major blood vessel is compressed against a bone
Which CDC policy is based on the assumption that all victims are potential carriers of bloodborne pathogens?
a. universal precautions
b. pathogen control
c. standard precautions
d. exposure control
a. universal precautions
When performing an abdominal thrust, where does the fire fighter place the thumb side of the fist?
a. midway between the belly button and the xiphoid
b. below the belly button
c. on the sternum
d. on the belly button
a. midway between the belly button and the xiphoid
A rapid, weak pulse is most commonly associated with _____.
a. respiratory difficulty
b. shock
c. stroke
d. TB
b. shock
What is HBV?
a. virus
b. vaccine
c. type of respirator
d. bacterium
a. virus
What is decapitation?
a. the traumatic opening of the skull
b. the herniation of the brain through the lower skull opening
c. evisceration of the gray matter
d. the separation of the head from the rest of the body
d. the separation of the head from the rest of the body
Which emotional problem accounts for 20 percent of violent attacks?
a. autism
b. hyperactivity
c. attachment disorder
d. depression
d. depression
Which term means the sorting multiple victims to establish priority of care?
a. mass casualty assessment
b. triage
c. prioritization
d. classification
b. triage
What prevents food or water from entering the trachea?
a. tympanum
b. epiglottis
c. arytenoid cartilage
d. vallecula
b. epiglottis
After rescuers have checked and corrected a victim's airway, what should they check and correct next?
a. circulation
b. level of consciousness
c. breathing
d. bleeding
c. breathing
What occurs when air is forced into the stomach instead of the lungs during rescue breathing?
a. cardiac tamponade
b. subcutaneous emphysema
c. aspiration pneumonia
d. gastric distention
d. gastric distention
What is the second step to take in controlling external bleeding?
a. pressure points
b. direct pressure
c. elevation
d. tourniquet
c. elevation
What is the most common cause of cardiac in children?
a. a congenital defect
b. meningitis
c. cardiac myopathy
d. a breathing problem
d. a breathing problem
Which is a correct statement about a victim vomiting during CPR?
a. it is a sign of effective CPR
b. it is a common occurrence
c. it is usually a result of incorrectly performed compressions
d. if it happens, CPR should continue without interruption
b. it is a common occurrence
What is the medical term for windpipe?
a. trachea
b. epiglottis
c. larynx
d. esophagus
a. trachea
What does the medical term "shock" mean?
a. a severe systemic infection
b. failure of the nervous system
c. a sudden overwhelming emotional reaction
d. failure of the circulatory system
d. failure of the circulatory system
What should rescuers do if they hear a crackling sound while performing CPR?
a. nothing; continue compressions
b. check and correct hand position
c. decompress the abdomen
d. decrease compression depth slightly
b. check and correct hand position
What is the correct handling of an amputated body part?
a. place it in a basin filled with an ice/saline mixture
b. place in a clean plastic bag and keep it cool
c. place it in a basin or bag filled with ice
d. wrap it in a towel or dressing soaked in ste
b. place in a clean plastic bag and keep it cool
What is the most common cause of total lack of respirations in adults?
a. heart attack
b. drowning
c. choking
d. trauma
a. heart attack
Which technique should you use to open the airway when you suspect the victim may have a spinal injury?
a. jaw thrust
b. neck left
c. head tilt
d. head tilt - neck lift
a. jaw thrust
Where does gas exchange occur?
a. pulmonary arteries
b. alveoli
c. meninges
d. bronchioles
b. alveoli
What is the medial term for tearing away of body tissue?
a. evisceration
b. degloving
c. separation
d. avulsion
d. avulsion
Which function do red blood cells perform?
a. provide energy for metabolism
b. form clots
c. transport oxygen
d. fight infection
c. transport oxygen
What is the dome-shaped muscle between the chest and the abdomen?
a. diaphragm
b. peritonenum
c. omentum
d. abdominal facia
a. diaphragm
What is the correct procedure when a victim regurgitates during CPR?
a. suction the oropharynx between ventilations
b. roll the victim on his or her side and clear the vomit
c. continue CPR without interruption
d. increase the ventilation pressure
b. roll the victim on his or her side and clear the vomit
To effectively manage a cardiac arrest, a minimum space of ___ is needed on all side of the victim?
a. 2 ft
b. 6 ft
c. 1 ft
d. 3 ft
d. 3 ft
Which type of respirator is required to prevent exposure to tuberculosis?
a. HEPA respirator
b. N90 respirator
c. powered air-purifying respirator
d. standard surgical mask
a. HEPA respirator
Which NFPA standard contains information on a fire department infection control program?
a. 1561
b. 1701
c. 1521
d. 1500
d. 1500
Microorganisms capable of causing disease are called _____.
a. pathogens
b. microbes
c. septogens
d. contagion
a. pathogens
What is the most common source of airway obstruction?
a. a nonfood object
b. the tongue
c. food
d. vomitus
b. the tongue
In which situation would you raise the legs of a victim in shock?
a. head injury
b. spine injury
c. arm injury
d. leg injury
c. arm injury
What is a sign of effective CPR?
a. the victim's pupils dilate when exposed to light
b. the victim's skin takes on a pink color
c. there is gurgling with each exhalation
d. the victim vomits
b. the victim's skin takes on a pink color
What is a cause of shock by pump failure?
a. vasodilation
b. heart attack
c. spinal injury
d. systemic infection
b. heart attack
CPR should be withheld in which situation?
a. long-standing progressive disease process
b. penetrating trauma to the head
c. unwitnessed arrest
d. rigor mortis
d. rigor mortis
Which technique is used to assist a conscious infant with a severe airway obstruction?
a. check thrusts
b. back slaps
c. abdominal thrusts
d. both back slaps and chest thrusts
d. both back slaps and chest thrusts
What is the relationship between HIV and AIDS?
a. the relationship between the two has not been established
b. HIV is the virus that causes AIDS
c. AIDS is the virus that causes HIV
d. HIV and AIDS are to different diseases entirely
b. HIV is the virus that causes AIDS
Which type of shock is caused by a severe allergic reaction to a foreign substance?
a. allergenic
b. anaphylactic
c. neurogenic
d. septic
b. anaphylactic
Which tool is best suited for breaking tempered glass?
a. maul
b. glass saw
c. axe blade
d. spring-loaded punch
d. spring-loaded punch
What is the voltage of the electrical system on most conventional vehicles?
a. 24 volts
b. 12 volts
c. 36 volts
d. 6 volts
b. 12 volts
How can a vehicle powered by compressed natural gas (CNG) be identified?
a. the gas cylinder will be visible between the rear axle and bumper
b. a high pressure filling coupling in place of the gasoline fill spout
c. a small CNG decal on the lower corner
d. CNG stickers on the front and back of the vehicle
Which alternative fuel is often used in buses and delivery vans?
a. propane
b. liquefied petroleum gas
c. methanol
d. compressed natural gas
d. compressed natural gas
Which hazard is of particular concern with hybrid vehicles?
a. secondary battery
b. fuel cell stack
c. high-voltage components
d. drive battery
c. high voltage components
What is the term for a vehicle that operates using a battery-powered electric motor combined with a conventional gasoline engine?
a. alternative fuel
b. fuel cell
c. hybrid
d. electric
c. hybrid
What is the most efficient and widely used tool used to open a jammed vehicle door?
a. rabbet tool
b. pry axe
c. come along
d. hydraulic spreader
d. hydraulic spreader
Which hazard is unique to CNG and LPG powered vehicle fires?
a. slow-drain capacitors
b. potential for three-dimensional fire
c. BLEVE
d. highly toxic products of combustion
c. BLEVE
What is the primary indicator of the point of origin in a structure fire?
a. depth of smoke stains
b. color of smoke
c. shape of floor char
d. burn pattern on a wall
d. burn pattern on a wall
Which of the following is the most likely indication of accelerant use?
a. burnt blankets and rags
b. charring on the underside of a door
c. door propped open
d. multiple points of origin
b. charring on the underside of a door
Which statement about evidence that is in plain view is correct?
a. the evidence may be secured without a warrant
b. probable cause must be established prior to seizure of the evidence
c. the evidence cannot be seized without a warrant
d. the evidence is
a. the evidence may be secured without a warrant
When should fire fighters begin making observations for use in a fire investigation?
a. during salvage/overhaul
b. during dispatch and response
c. upon arrival
d. during suppression
b. during dispatch and response
Placing an electric heater too close to combustible materials is an example of which subtype of electrical fire cause?
a. worn-out or defective
b. defective installation
c. user negligence
d. improper use
d. improper use
According to NFPA statistics, approximately how many home structure fires were reported in the United States in 2010?
a. 257,500
b. 925,300
c. 38,400
d. 482,000
d. 482,000
Who usually performs fire cause investigation?
a. the chief fire official
b. the incident commander
c. specially trained fire personnel
d. law enforcement personnel
c. specially trained fire personnel
A fire caused by a person falling asleep with a lit cigarette is an example of a(n) ______ fire.
a. negligent
b. unintentional
c. causal
d. accidental
d. accidental
What is indicated by a fire that flares up when water is applied to it?
a. presence of an ignitable liquid
b. use of trailers
c. structural alterations
d. an incendiary device
a. presence of an ignitable liquid
A pot left unattended on a stove that catches fire is an example of an act of _______.
a. negligence
b. omission
c. misfeasance
d. inadvertence
b. omission
According to NFPA statistics, the value of direct property damage caused by structure fires in the US in 2010 was ____.
a. $13.3 billion
b. $5.1 billion
c. $22 billion
d. $9.7 billion
d. $9.7 billion
Prior to any official statement by his or her department, how should a fire fighter respond to an inquiry about the cause of a fire?
a. "Findings will be make public at the earliest possible time"
b. "the fire is under investigation"
c. "no comment"
c. "t
b. "the fire is under investigation
Which is the least common case of residential fire?
a. smoking
b. intentional
c. heating equipment
d. cooking
a. smoking