4N051 SSgt WAPS - Full SKT

Anterograde (Posttraumatic) Amnesia

Inability to remember events after an injury.

Basilar Skull Fractures

Usually occur following diffuse impact to the head (such as falls, motor vehicle crashes); generally result from extension of a linear fracture to the base of the skull and can be difficult to diagnose with a radiograph (x-ray).

Battle's Sign

Bruising behind an ear over the mastoid process that may indicate a skull fracture.

Cerebral Edema

Swelling of the brain.

Closed Head Injury

Injury in which the brain ahs been injured but the skin has not been broken and there is no obvious bleeding.


A temporary loss or alteration of part of all of the brain's abilities to function without actual physical damage to the brain.

Connecting Nerves

Nerves in the spinal cord that connect the motor and sensory nerves.

Coup-Contrecoup Injury

Dual impacting of the brain into the skull; coup injury occurs at the point of impact; Contrecoup injury occurs on the opposite side of impact, as the brain rebounds.


the action of pulling the spine along its length.

Epidural Hematoma

An accumulation of blood between the skull and the dura mater.

Eyes-Forward Position

A head position in which the patient's eyes are looking straight ahead and the head and torso are in line.

Four-Person Log Roll

The recommended procedure for moving a patient with a suspected spinal injury from the ground to a long backboard.

Intervertebral Disk

The cushion that lies between two vertebrae.

Intracerebral Hematoma

Bleeding within the brain tissue (parenchyma) itself; also referred to as an intraparenchymal hematoma.


Intracranial Pressure.

Intracranial Pressure (ICP)

The pressure within the cranial vault.

Involuntary Activities

Actions of the body that are not under a person's conscious control.

Linear Skull Fractures

Account for 80% of skull fractures; also referred to as nondisplaced skull fractures; commonly occur in the temporal-parietal region of the skull; not associated with deformities to the skull.


Three distinct layers of tissue that surround and protect the brain and the spinal cord within the skull and the spinal canal.

Open Head Injury

Injury to the head often caused by a penetrating object in which there may be bleeding and exposed brain tissue.

Primary (Direct) Injury

An injury to the brain and its associated structures that is a direct result of impact to the head.

Raccoon Eyes

Bruising under the eyes that may indicate a skull fracture.

Retrograde Amnesia

The inability to remember events leading up to a head injury.

Secondary (Indirect) Injury

The "after effects" of the primary injury; includes abnormal processes such as cerebral edema, increased intracranial pressure, cerebral ischemia and hypoxia, and infection; onset is often delayed following the primary brain injury.

Subarachnoid Hemorrhage

Bleeding into the subarachnoid space, where the cerebrospinal fluid circulates.

Subdural Hematoma

An accumulation of blood beneath the dura mater but outside the brain.


A partial or incomplete dislocation.


Traumatic Brain Injury

Traumatic Brain Injury (TBI)

A traumatic insult to the brain capable of producing physical, intellectual, emotional, social, and vocational changes.

Voluntary Activities

Actions that we consciously perform, in which sensory input or conscious thought determines a specific muscular activity.

developmental disability

insufficient development of the brain resulting in some level of dysfunction or impairment. Can include intellectual, hearing, or vision impairments that surface during infanthood or childhood

autism spectrum disorder (ASD)

a group of complex disorders of brain development characterized by difficulties in social interaction, repetitive behaviors, and verbal and nonverbal communication

down syndrome

a genetic chromosomal defect that can occur during fetal development and that results in intellectual impairment as well as certain physical characteristics such as a round head with a flat occiput and slanted wide set eyes. Increased maternal age and fam

these are the characteristics of a developmentally disabled patient

may appear slow to understand, limited vocabulary
immature behavior

characteristics of autism

severe behavioral problems, repetitive motor activities,
impairment in verbal and nonverbal skills, difficulty making eye contact, has trouble answering open ended questions and monotone speech

these are the most common forms of hearing loss

sensorineural deafness and conductive hearing loss

sensorineural deafness

a permanent lack of hearing caused by a lesion or damage of the inner ear

conductive hearing loss

hearing loss caused by a faulty transmission of sounds waves. can be caused by an accumulation of wax within the ear canal or a perforated eardrum

tracheostomy tube

a plastic tube placed within the tracheostomy site (stoma)

ventilator malfunction

if this malfunction occurs, remove the patient from this devise and begin bag-valve-mask ventilations via the tracheostomy hole

internal cardiac pacemaker

this is a device implanted under the patients skin to regulate the heart rate. (document the type of pacemaker)

left ventricular assist devices (LVAD)

this is a special piece of medical equipment that takes over the function of one or both heart ventricles. it is used as a bridge to heart transplantation while a donor heart is located. may be difficult to palpate a pulse in patients who have this

central venous catheter

a catheter that has its tip placed in the vena cavato and provides venous access (pick-line) used for home care patients, chemotherapy, long term antibiotic or pain management, total parental nutrition (TPN) hemodialysis, or high concentration glucose sol

gastrostomy tubes

these may be placed into the stomach for patients who cannot ingest fluids, food or medication by mouth.

this transport position should be used for patients with gastric tubes and difficulty breathing

sitting or lying on the right side with the head elevated 30 degrees


tubes that drain excess cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from the brain to another part of the body outside of the brain such as the abdomen; lowers pressure in the brain. used for patients with chronic neurologic conditions. located beneath the skin on the side

signs/symptoms of distress for kids with shunts

bulging fontanelles (infants) headache, projectile vomiting, AMS, irritability, high pitched cry, fever, nausea, difficulty walking, blurred vision, seizures, redness along the shunt track, bradycardia, and heart arrhythmias

vagal nerve stimulator

this is a treatment used for seizures that are not controlled with medication. it stimulates the vagus nerve at predetermined intervals to prevent seizure activity. surgical implant used in children over 12. located under the patients skin about the size


a surgical procedure to create an opening (stoma) between the small or large intestine and the surface of the body


interaction with the ___________ is important because they are
experts on caring for the patient and can help determine baseline behavior for the patient


a surgical procedure to create an opening (stoma) which connects the urinary system to the surface of the skin and allows urine to drain through the abdominal wall instead of through the urethra


a surgical procedure to create an opening (stoma) into the trachea; a stoma in the neck connects the trachea directly to the skin


an opening through the skin and into an organ or other structure

spina bifida

a development defect in which a portion of the spinal cord or meninges may protrude outside of the vertebrae and possible even outside of the body usually at the lower third of the spine in the lumbar area. this is a birth defect caused by incomplete clos


a complex condition in which a person has an excessive amount of body fat.


a surgical procedure to create an opening (stoma) between the small intestine and the surface of the body.

cerebral palsy

this is a brain / group of disorders characterized by poorly controlled body movement. limbs are often underdeveloped and prone to injury.

intellectual disability

results in the inability to learn and socially adapt at a normal developmental rate

characteristics of intellectual disability

patients may appear slow to understand or have a limited vocabulary. may behave immaturely compared to their peers. if severely disabled, may not have the ability to care for themselves, communicate, understand or respond to surroundings

pervasive developmental disorder (PDD)

characterized by impaired social or communication skills, repetitive behaviors, or a restricted range of interests.

Atlantoaxial Instability (AAI)

this is characterized by excessive movement at the junction between the atlas (C1) and axis (C2) as a result of either a bony or ligamentous abnormality. Neurologic symptoms can occur when the spinal cord or adjacent nerve roots are involved. 15% of peopl

behind-the-ear-type hearing aide

these are contained in plastic cases that rest behind the ear

conventional body type hearing aides

these are an older style used for profound hearing loss

in-the-canal & completely in-the-canal hearing aides

these are contained in a plastic case that fits partly or completely inside of the ear canal

in-the-ear type hearing aides

these are contained in a shell that fits in the outer part of the ear


an unsteady gait

mild to severe symptoms of Cerebral Palsy

poor posture, uncontrolled spastic movements of the limbs, visual and hearing impairments, difficulty communicating, epilepsy (seizures), intellectual disabilities, unsteady gait which may necessitate a wheelchair or walker


difficulty swallowing


this is a condition in which fluid accumulates in the brain. found typically in young children, enlarging the head and sometimes causing brain damage.


inability to voluntarily move one or more body parts (stroke, trauma and birth defects)


increased sensitivity is called

facial paralysis

This can also cause communication challenges

sever obesity

this is when a person is 2-3 times over the ideal weight

these are associated health problems with obesity

mobility difficulties, diabetes, hypertension, heart disease, stroke

tracheal stoma

this provides a path between the surface of the neck and the trachea. passes from the neck directly into the major airway and bypasses the nose and mouth


D - displacement, dislodged or damaged tube
O - obstruction of tube (secretions, blood, mucus, vomitus)
P - pneumothorax
E - equipment failure (kinked tubing, ventilator malfunction, empty oxygen supply)

mechanical ventilators

these are used when patients cannot breath without assistance.

apnea monitors

these are used for infants who are premature and have severe gastroesophageal reflux that causes choking episodes. have a family history of SIDS, have experienced an apparent life-threatening event (ALTE) used 2 weeks - 2 months after birth. an alarm will

automated implanted cardioverter defibrillator

a pacemaker may also include this to monitor heart rhythm

non-stop pacemaker

this is set at a non-stop pace of 70 bpm

demand pacemaker

this sends a pacer spike under a set rate as needed

external defibrillator vest

this is a vest with built in monitoring electrodes and defibrillation pads which is worn by the patient under their clothing.

ventricular peritoneum shunt

this drains excess fluid from the ventricles of the brain into the peritoneum of the abdomen

ventricular atrium shunt

this drains excess fluid from the ventricles of the brain into the right atrium of the heart.

palliative care

this is the type of care used with pain medications


This term is used when someone is 30% or more over their ideal body weight

possible causes of cerebral palsy

this can stem from the following; damage to the developing fetal brain while in utero, oxygen deprivation at birth, or traumatic brain injury at birth

the sign for SICK

when a complete hearing impaired patient uses sign language and puts their hand on there head and stomach this means?

the sign for HURT

when a complete hearing impaired patient uses sign language and extends the index fingers of both hands, brings the fingers toward each other twice using a jabbing or twisting movement, this means?

abruptio placenta

a premature separation of the placenta from the wall of the uterus

amniotic sac

The fluid-filled, baglike membrane in which the fetus develops.

apgar score

A scoring system for assessing the status of a newborn that assigns a number value to each of five areas of assessment.

birth canal

The vagina and cervix

bloody show

A small amount of blood at the vagina that appears at the beginning of labor and my include a plug of pink-tinged mucus that is discharged when the cervix begins to dilate.

breech presentation

A delivery in which buttocks come out first.


Narrowest portion of the uterus that opens into the vagina.


The appearance of the infant's head at the vaginal opening during labor.


Seizures (convulsions) resulting from severe hypertension in a pregnant woman.

ectopic pregnancy

A pregnancy that develops outside the uterus, typically in a fallopian tube.


The fertilized egg that is the early stages of a fetus.


The lining of the inside of the uterus.

fetal alcohol syndrome

A condition of infants who are born to women who consume alcohol during pregnancy; characterized by growth and physical problems, mental retardation, and a variety of congenital abnormalities.


The developing, unborn infant inside the uterus


The dome-shaped top of the uterus.

gestational diabetes

Diabetes that develops during pregnancy in women who did not have diabetes before pregnancy


A sensation felt by a pregnant patient when the fetus positions itself for delivery.

limb presentation

A delivery in which presenting part of a single arm, leg, or foot.


A dark green material in the amniotic fluid that can indicate distress or disease in the newborn, the meconium can be aspirated into the infant's lungs during delivery; the infant's first bowel movement


The passage of the fetus and placenta before 20 weeks; spontaneous abortion.


A woman who has had previous pregnancies.

nuchal cord

an umbilical cord that is wrapped around the infant's neck


The tissue attached to the uterine wall that nourishes the fetus through the umbilical cord

placenta previa

A condition in which the placenta develops over and covers the cervix.


A condition of late pregnancy that involves headache, visual changes, and swelling of the hands and feet; also called pregnancy-induced hypertension.

pregnancy-induced hypertension

A condition of late pregnancy that involves headache, visual changes, and swelling of the hands and feet; also called preeclampsia.


The position in which an infant is born; the part of the infant that appears first.


A woman who is experiencing her first pregnancy

prolapse of the umbilical cord

A situation in which the umbilical cord comes out of the vagina before the infant.

spina bifida

A development defect in which a portion of the spinal cord or meninges may protrude outside of the vertebrae and possibly even outside of the body, usually at the lower third of the spine in the lumbar area.

supine hypotensive syndrome

Low blood pressure resulting from compression of the inferior vena cava by the weight of the pregnant uterus when the mother is supine.

umbilical cord

The conduit connecting the mother to infant via the placenta; contains two arteries and one vein.

vertex presentation

A delivery in which the head comes out first.

If a patient's mechanical ventilator malfunctions, you should remove the patient from the ventilator and:
A) place the patient on a nasal cannula.
B) place the patient on a nonrebreathing mask.
C) begin ventilations with a bag-valve mask.
D) contact medic

C) begin ventilations with a bag-valve mask.

irway management can be challenging in patients with Down syndrome because their:
A) teeth are misaligned and they have a large tongue.
B) occiput is round, which causes flexion of the neck.
C) tongue is relatively small and falls back in the throat.
D) m

A) teeth are misaligned and they have a large tongue.

When assessing or providing care to a patient with an intellectual disability, you should:
A) explain procedures while in the process of performing them.
B) be observant for signs of fear or reluctance from the patient.
C) move swiftly and deliberately to

B) be observant for signs of fear or reluctance from the patient.

General techniques for communicating with hearing-impaired patients include:
A) exaggerating your lip movements to ensure the patient understands.
B) speaking directly into the patient's ear with an increased voice pitch.
C) removing any hearing aids and

D) positioning yourself approximately 18 inches directly in front of the patient.

When enlisting the help of an interpreter who signs, it is important for you to ask the interpreter to:
A) report exactly what the patient signs and not to add any commentary.
B) voice what he or she is signing while communicating with the patient.
C) doc

A) report exactly what the patient signs and not to add any commentary.

Cerebral palsy is a condition that results from damage or injury to the:
A) brain.
B) spinal cord.
C) voluntary muscles.
D) peripheral nervous system.

A) brain.

When caring for patients with cerebral palsy, it is important to remember that:
A) they are unable to walk and are totally dependent upon you.
B) their limbs are often underdeveloped and are prone to injury.
C) hearing aids are usually ineffective for pat

B) their limbs are often underdeveloped and are prone to injury.

A tube from the brain to the abdomen that drains excessive cerebrospinal fluid is called a:
A) shunt.
B) G-tube.
C) CS tube.
D) cerebral bypass.

A) shunt.

Which of the following does NOT usually contribute to or cause obesity?
A) Rapid metabolism
B) High caloric intake
C) Low metabolic rate
D) Genetic predisposition

A) Rapid metabolism

General care for a patient with a tracheostomy tube includes all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) ensuring adequate oxygenation and ventilation at all times.
B) removing the tube if the area around it appears to be infected.
C) suctioning the tube as needed t

B) removing the tube if the area around it appears to be infected.

Which of the following statements regarding patients with developmental disabilities is correct?
A) Speaking with the patient's family is the least effective way to determine how much the patient understands.
B) Patients with developmental disabilities ar

B) Patients with developmental disabilities are susceptible to the same disease processes as other patients.

Down syndrome is a genetic defect that occurs as the result of:
A) an extra pair of chromosomes.
B) a separation of chromosome 21.
C) a triplication of chromosome 21.
D) a sperm that contains 24 chromosomes.

C) a triplication of chromosome 21.

Two thirds of children born with Down syndrome have:
Incorrect Response
A) diabetes mellitus.
B) intracranial bleeding.
C) unilateral paralysis.
D) congenital heart disease.

D) congenital heart disease.

An important aspect in the assessment of a patient who experienced a previous brain injury involves:
A) presuming that he or she has cognitive impairment until proven otherwise.
B) contacting the patient's physician to determine the extent of the brain in

D) speaking with the patient and family to establish what is considered normal for the patient.

When caring for a patient who is visually impaired, it is important to:
A) allow a service dog to remain with the patient at all times, even if the patient is critically ill.
B) stand to the side of the patient when speaking if his or her peripheral visio

D) tell him or her what is happening, identify noises, and describe the situation and surroundings.


Loss or damage of the superficial layer of skin as a result of a body part rubbing or scraping across a rough or hard surface.


An injury in which part of the body is completely severed.


An injury in which soft tissue is torn completely loose or is hanging as a flap.


Injuries in which soft-tissue damage occurs as a result from thermal heat, frictional heat, toxic chemicals, electricity, or nuclear radiation.

closed injuries

Injuries in which damage occurs beneath the skin or mucous membrane but the surface remains intact.

compartment syndrome

Swelling in a confined space that produces dangerous pressure; may cut off blood flow or damage sensitive tissue.

contact burn

A burn caused by direct contact with a hot object.


The presence of infectious organisms or foreign bodies on or in objects such as dressings, water, food, needles, wounds, or a patient's body.


A bruise from an injury that causes bleeding beneath the skin without breaking the skin.

crush syndrome

Significant metabolic derangement that develops when crushed extremities or body parts remain trapped for prolonged periods. This can lead to renal failure and death.

crushing injury

An injury that occurs when a great amount of force is applied to the body.


The inner layer of the skin, containing hair follicles, sweat glands, nerve endings, and blood vessels.


Bruising or discoloration associated with bleeding within or under the skin.


The outer layer of skin that acts as a watertight protective covering.


The displacement of organs outside of the body.


The fiberlike connective tissue that covers arteries, veins, tendons, and ligaments.

flame burn

A burn caused by an open flame.

flash burn

A burn caused by exposure to very intense heat, such as in an explosion.

full-thickness (third-degree) burns

Burns that affects all skin layers and may affect the subcutaneous layers, muscle, bone, and internal organs, leaving the area dry, leathery, and white, dark brown, or charred.


A mass of blood in the soft tissues beneath the skin.


A sharp, smooth cut.


A jagged, open wound.

mucous membranes

The lining of body cavities and passages that communicate directly or indirectly with the environment outside the body.

occlusive dressings

A dressing made of Vaseline-impregnated gauze, aluminum foil, or plastic that protects a wound from air and bacteria.

open injuries

Injuries in which there is a break in the surface of the skin or the mucous membrane, exposing deeper tissue to potential contamination.

partial-thickness (second-degree) burns

Burns affecting the epidermis and some portion of the dermis but not the subcutaneous tissue; characterized by blisters and skin that is white to red, moist, and mottled.

penetrating wound

An injury resulting from a sharp, pointed object.


Describes an animal that is infected with rabies.

rule of nines

A system that assigns percentages to sections of the body, allowing calculation of the amount of skin surface involved in the burn area.

scald burn

A burn caused by hot liquids.

steam burn

A burn caused by exposure to hot steam.

superficial (first-degree) burns

Burns affecting only the epidermis; characterized by skin that is red but not blistered or actually burned through.

thermal burns

Burns caused by heat.

Greenstick (fracture)

an incomplete fracture that passes only partway through the shaft of a bone but may still cause substantial angulation; occurs with children

Comminuted (fracture)

a fracture in which the bone is broken into more than two fragments.

Pathologic (fracture)

a fracture of weakened or diseased bone, seen in patients with osteoporosis or cancer, generally produced by minimal force.

Epiphyseal (fracture)

a fracture that occurs in a growth section of a child's bone and may lead to growth abnormalities.

Oblique (fracture)

a fracture in which the bone is broken at an angle across the bone. This is usually the result of a sharp angled blow to the bone.

Transverse (fracture)

a fracture that occurs straight across the bone. This is usually the result of a direct blow or stress fracture caused by prolonged running.

Spiral (fracture)

a fracture caused by a twisting force, causing an oblique fracture around the bone and through the bone. This is often the result of abuse in very young children.

Incomplete (fracture)

a fracture that does not run completely through the bone; a non-displaced partial crack.

significant forces required to cause fractures or dislocations may be:

-direct blows
-indirect forces
-twisting forces
-high energy injuries

Musculoskeletal Injury Grading System / Minor Injuries:

-minor sprains
-fractures or dislocations of digits

Musculoskeletal Injury Grading System / Moderate Injuries:

-open fractures of digits
-non-displaced long-bone fractures
-non-displaced pelvic fractures
-major sprains of a major joint

Musculoskeletal Injury Grading System / Serious Injuries:

-displaced long-bone fractures
-multiple hand and foot fractures
-open long-bone fractures
-displaced pelvic fractures
-dislocations of major joints
-multiple digit amputations
-laceration of major nerves or blood vessels

Musculoskeletal Injury Grading System / Severe, Life-Threatening Injuries (survival is probable):

-multiple closed fractures
-limb amputations
-fractures of both long bones of the legs (bilateral femur fractures)

Musculoskeletal Injury Grading System / Critical Injuries (survival is uncertain):

-multiple open fractures of the limbs
-suspected pelvic fractures with hemodynamic instablility

Do not use Traction Splints for any of these conditions:

-injuries of the upper extremity
-injuries close to or involving the knee
-injuries of the hip
-injuries of the pelvis
-partial amputations or avulsions with bone separation
-lower leg, foot, or ankle injury

Do not use the PASG (pneumatic antishock garment) if these conditions exist:

-pulmonary edema
-acute heart failure
-penetrating chest injuries
-groin injuries
-major head injuries
-a transport time of less than 30 minutes

acromioclavicular (AC) joint

A simple joint where the bony projections of the scapula and the clavicle meet at the top of the shoulder.

articular cartilage

A pearly layer of specialized cartilage covering the articular surfaces (contact surfaces on the ends) of bones in synovial joints.


The heel bone.

closed fracture

A fracture in which the skin is not broken.

compartment syndrome

Swelling in a confined space that produces dangerous pressure; may cut off blood flow or damage sensitive tissue.


A grating or grinding sensation caused by fractured bone ends or joints rubbing together; also air bubbles under the skin that produce a crackling sound or crinkly feeling.


Disruption of a joint in which ligaments are damaged and the bone ends are completely displaced.

displaced fracture

A fracture in which bone fragments are separated from one another and not in anatomic alignment.


Bruising or discoloration associated with bleeding within or under the skin.


The outer and smaller bone of the two bones of the lower leg.


A break in the continuity of a bone.

glenoid fossa

The part of the scapula that joins with the humeral head to form the glenohumeral joint.


Blood in the urine.


The place where two bones come into contact.

nondisplaced fracture

A simple crack in the bone that has not caused the bone to move from its normal anatomic position; also called a hairline fracture.

open fracture

Any break in a bone in which the overlying skin has been damaged.

pelvic binders

Used to splint the bony pelvis to reduce hemorrhage from bone ends, venous disruption, and pain.

point tenderness

Tenderness that is sharply localized at the site of the injury, found by gently palpating along the bone with the tip of one finger.

position of function

A hand position in which the wrist is slightly dorsiflexed and all finger joints are moderately flexed.


Return a dislocated joint or fractured bone to its normal position; set.

retroperitoneal space

The space between the abdominal cavity and the posterior abdominal wall, containing the kidneys, certain large vessels, and parts of the gastrointestinal tract.

sciatic nerve

The major nerve to the lower extremities; controls much of muscle function in the leg and sensation in most of the leg and foot.


A bandage or material that helps to support the weight of an injured upper extremity.


A flexible or rigid appliance used to protect and maintain the position of an injured extremity.


A joint injury involving damage to supporting ligaments, and sometimes partial or temporary dislocation of bone ends.


Stretching or tearing of a muscle; also called a muscle pull.


A partial or incomplete dislocation.


A bandage that passes around the chest to secure an injured arm to the chest.


The shin bone, the larger of the two bones of the lower leg.


The bleeding control method used when a wound continues to bleed despite the use of direct pressure and elevation; useful if a patient is bleeding severely from a partial or complete amputation.


Longitudinal force applied to a structure.

zone of injury

The area of potentially damaged soft tissue, adjacent nerves, and blood vessels surrounding an injury to a bone or a joint.

Which Air Force Doctrine Document (AFFD) is the primary guide used by the Air Force Medical Service commanders to accomplish their mission? (001)

AFDD 4-02, Medical Operations.

Why is Medical Doctrine necessary? (001)

Guides commanders in using assets.

What type of doctrine guides organization and employment of forces within distinct objective, but is broad in its functional areas and operational environment? (001)


Tactical doctrine can be explained best by which of the following examples? (001)

A car buyer because they can choose specific qualities to fit their individual needs such as speed
or safety factors.

What kind of change to casualty survival rates occurs when aeromedical evacuation (AE) is available? (002)

Significantly increase

Which Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) increment has no beds? (002)

EMEDS Basic.

Who is qualified to perform a critical incident stress debriefing (CISD)? (002)

Mental Health personnel and Aerospace Med Specialist with additional training.

Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) Basic requires both routine aeromedical evacuation (AE) support and urgent AE support within how many hours of notification? (002)

24 hours for routine AE support, and 12 hours for urgent AE support.

What is total number of personal assigned to the Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) +25? (002)


The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) has which skill level? (003)


Who develops and maintains currency of the career field education and training plan (CFETP)? (003)

Air Force career field manager

What figure in an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identifies career grouping? (004)


Who may request a 4N0X1 Job Inventory? (005)

Career field manager

How often is the 4N0xx Job Inventory normally completed? (005)

Every 3 years

Who is responsible for completing the graduate Assessment Survey (GAS)? (005)


Why is it required for 4N0X1 personnel to complete sustainment training? (006)

Maintain skills.

Required Specialty Verification Program (RSVP) is designed to sustain Air Force specialty code (AFSC) training in what location? (006)

Deployed setting.

What timeframe is best to conduct inservice training within your unit? (007)

On training days

The Master Training Plan (MTP) is used to outline? (008)

training goals and milestones for enlisted within the assigned area

Duty section job description and the upgrade training plan is kept in the? (008)

Master Training Plan (MTP).

Your first step for creating and editing an Master Training Plan (MTP) in your Air Force Training Record (AFTR) is to select with option from AFTR Data/MTP menu? (008)

Create/Edit MTP.

What is the fourth step in Air Force Training Record (AFTR) for editing an specialty training standard (STS) Master Training Plan (MTP) tasks? (008)

The user must enter in a Start Month, End Month, Training Days, Training Method, Evaluation
Method, and Training Aid

What two parts divide the Master Training List (MTL) section? (009)

STS on the left and MTL on the right

The Edit Master Training List (MTL) menu option allows which certification level requirement to be edited? (009)

. MTL tasks 5 and 7.

The first step when creating/editing the Duty Task List (DTL) in your Air Force Training Record (AFTR) is to select the? (010)

Create/Edit DTL option from the AFTR Data/Duty Position menu.

Some additional factors must be considered when determining training requirements. What are they? (011)

Deployment requirements, AEF tasks, and other factors driving the training need must also be
considered when determining training requirements.

Who or whom do you contact, if there is a training requirement for which you have no trainer or certifier? (012)

Base Training Office.

The total training program leads to? (013)

higher skill level.

The steps to evaluate a 4N0X1's competency on a task involves reviewing the? (013)

behavior exhibited while completing the task; the conditions where the task was performed;
and the standards that fall under each task.

Which personal provides specifics training information for particular tasks or knowledge? (014)

Your OJT trainer or supervisor.

What does task knowledge identify? (014)

Your ability to identify facts, state principles, analyze or evaluate the subject

To fully understand task knowledge, what step is used to assess your ability?(014)

Name parts, tools, and simple facts about the task.

To fully understand subject knowledge, the steps to assess your ability include? (014)

analyzing facts and principles and draw conclusions about the subject.

What information is updated when each task is successfully learned and demonstrated by the trainee in Air Force Training Record? (AFTR) (015)

Start and complete date with trainee, trainer, and certifier initials (if applicable).

Each time an Airman changes duty positions (transfers from another base to work center), the supervisor must perform? (015)

an initial evaluation.

After achieving training and knowledge, what is the 1st question you should ask yourself to determine proficiency level? (016)

Can I do simple parts of the task?

After achieving training and knowledge, what is the last question you should ask yourself to determine proficiency level? (016)

Can I do the complete task quickly and accurately? Can tell or show others how to do the task?

The Air Force training record (AFTR), AF Form 623, AF Form 803, and training critiques or surveys are used to document? (017)

training effectiveness.

If training is effective, what should trainees remember? (017)

The requirements to successfully complete the job.

What is one of the methods used to develop and evaluate training effectiveness? (017)

Analyze if everyone actively participated in training process

Name one of the three shred-outs of the 4N0X1 career field? (018)

Neurology technician.

Your first step in successful recommendation for formal training begins? (019)

with meeting the requirements in the Enlisted Classification Directory, Education and Training
Course Announcements (ETCA), and AFI 36-2626

What educational and training steps must be completed to apply for technical training instructor? (019)

National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians (NREMT) certification; QTPs for
assigned position; complete all duty position training requirements

What must you meet prior to applying for retraining? (019)

Eligibility requirements.

What is one criterion used by the Quality Retraining Program (QRP) board to rank Airmen applying for retraining? (019)

Last three EPRs.

The overall objective of taking advantage of retraining opportunities is to balance the? (019)

career force of each Air Force speciality code (AFSC) as needed

To access your electronic training record in the Air Force Training Record (AFTR), log into the Advanced Distributive Learning System (ADLS), the click on? (020)

Training Records.

The procedures to update the User Location for MACJCOM, Base, Unit, or Work center is preformed by clicking? (021)

My Profile and editing Root and Sub Organizations

If training status code changes, whom do you contact to update the code in the user training information? (021)

Unit training manager.

What section is used in Air Force Training Record (AFTR) to update career development course (CDC) start and complete dates? (022)

AF 623 Part II

The Training Type drop down menu is used to view the entire training Record and? (022)

Qualification Training

What's the first button trainee's click to sign off 623A entries in the Air Force Training Record (AFTR)? (023)


What is the first step trainees make in searching for 1098 items to update the Air Force Form 1098? (024)

Click the SEARCH RECORD button.

What is the first step trainees use to sign off a task as a trainee on Job Qualifications Standard (JQS) if a task already has a start date? (025)

. Select a task and click the TRAINEE button

Which form is used to access Job Qualification Standard (JQS) continuation items? (026)

AF Form 797.

The purpose of an AF Form 803 involves what two evaluation steps? (026)

Conduct and document completion of task evaluations during training

What button do you click to add new file information to the Air Force Training Record (AFTR) User File? (027)


What system is the primary tool used to make manpower, budget and other important resource allocation decisions for medical personnel? (028)

Medical Expense and Performance Reporting System.

Who approves or disapproves an Authorization Change Request? (029)

Major command (MAJCOM).

Who is responsible to lead their teams and establish clear standards for the Work Centers? (030)


When setting priorities, what category is used to assign an urgent priority? (031)

Category A

What are the responsibilities of the scheduler within a unit or clinic to make sure all shifts are adequately covered? (032)

Use all Air Force instructions, OIs, and local guidance to prepare a duty schedule.

Who is responsible for final approval of the enlisted duty schedule within a unit or clinic? (032)

Nurse managers and NCOICs

What references and guidance does the scheduler use to prepare a duty schedule for the unit or clinic? (032)

Air Force instructions (AFI), operating instructions (OI), and local guidance.

What duty schedule provides a continual rotation, but the least amount of flexibility? (032)


What type of information can you provide all new personnel on preparation of duty schedules? (033)

Authority, responsibility, and delegation; length of cycle rotation and direction-forward,
backward; deadlines for posting; guidelines for changes and/or exchanging hours; reporting
schedule changes.

What mandatory formations do you keep in mind when making a schedule? (033)

Mobility exercises.

Performance can be broken down into what types of criteria? (034)

Qualitative and quantitative.

Who is responsible for the control, care, use, and safeguarding of public property under control of the Air Force? (035)

Each individual.

By training new personnel on proper equipment, what is the supervisor likely to prevent? (035)

Equipment damage and injury to a patient

What is the name of the product that is generated through the Defense Medical Logistics Support System (DMLSS) and lists information pertaining to all supply and equipment items that have been issued to or turned in from a section? (036)

Activity issue/turn-in summary

What actions should the property custodian take if a backorder item is no longer needed? (036)

Attempt to cancel the order through MEMO

What should you do if an item has been on backorder for more than 30 days? (036)

Ask Medical Equipment Management Office (MEMO) personnel to check on the order.

How often are medical and nonmedical equipment inspections usually conducted? (037)


What is the primary source for recording medical or nonmedical equipment repair? (037)

AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt or custodian actions/custodial report listing.

Who should you contact to obtain the most current procedures and local policy for medical or nonmedical equipment problems or concerns? (037)

Biomedical equipment repair technician

Which are the two primary categories of items that require report of survey (ROS) documentation if lost, damaged, or destroyed? (038)

Supply system stocks and property record items

Pecuniary liability is generally limited to a maximum of one-month's base pay of? (038)

a person who lost or damaged property.

A report of survey (ROS) is referred to the legal office for review when? (038)

. financial responsibility is assessed.

What form is used when an individual admits pecuniary liability and wants to make a cash payment? (038)

DD Form 1131.

Which of the following defines nonmaleficence? (039)

The duty to do no harm.

Each medical treatment facility (MTF) must develop a local policy that includes circumstances requiring the presence of a third party during an examination or treatment at the request of the provider or patient for which of the following responsibilities?


Which category of personnel does the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) affect? (040)

Anyone handling patient information.

For general guidance regarding the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) use? (040)

DOD Regulation 6025.18-R

Which is an appropriate way to help relieve a patient's stress? (041)

Remain honest and in control to decrease the patient's anxiety

Which procedure is not a useful social media tip when Airmen and their families are communicating online? (042)

No precautions are taken while off-duty.

Which model is the correct type for Patient Centered Medical Home (PCMH)? (043)

Team-based model.

What is the purpose of Team Huddles and how often do they occur within a Patient Centered Medical Home (PCMH)? (043)

Intended for problem solving and updating the team's work plan; daily.

What updates are completed nightly by CarePoint? (043)

Lab and screening tests with updates to both action lists and patient counts

Enrollment information from the Defense Enrollment and Eligibility Reporting System (DEERS) is sent to the medical treatment facility (MTF) at least? (044)


If you are trying to determine the deployment status of a unit, what system should you use that will support Force Health Protection, Population Health, and Military Health System (MHS) optimization? (044)

. Armed Forces Health Longitudinal Technology Application

When patient care is not documented what can be assumed about the patient's treatment? (044)

No care or treatment was accomplished.

What step does a medical technician provide in the workflow process? (045)

Uses a common AIM form to enter data into AHLTA.

Who starts the Tri-Service workflow form documentation? (045)

The patient signs in and data is entered in an encounter worksheet or SF600 overprint.

What does the abbreviation NEC stand for when used in International Classification of Diseases (ICD-9)? (046)

Not elsewhere classified.

When do Preventive Health Assessment (PHA) member's status turn yellow in Aeromedical Services Information Management System (ASIMS)? (047)

When PHA is due within 3 months

When do Preventive Health Assessment (PHA) status turns red and what items may be overdue? (047)

Member needs to complete immunizations, PHAs, dental, and deployment health assessments
(DHAs). It turns red on day 456.

What are the principles of population health management? (048)

Support the DOD and our nation's security.

What is the purpose of case management? (048)

Promote quality, safe, and cost-effective care

What is the purpose of utilization management (UM)? (048)

Identify, monitor, evaluate, and resolve issues.

What is the correct anatomical position of the spine as it relates to the sternum?


line projecting at right angles to the plane of motion best describes which of the following body movements?

axis of joint rotation

moving the forearm toward the head by bending the elbow is an example of?


why is it important to ensure medical abbreviations, documentation and terminology are written accurately ?

provide clear and concise pt info

you have just completed screening a pt with an appt for blurred vision right right eye. How should you document this info correctly?

pt complains of blurred vision right eye

you would NOT find which component in the cytoplasm of a cell?


What cytoplasm components are responsible for cell contraction?


what part of the cell provides the PRIMARY source for cellular energy?


which phase of mitosis would signify that the nucleus is actually dividing?


the complicated process responsible for the distinction of cell characteristics is known as?

cell differentiation

what type of tissue is te major component of glands?


what type of tissue can change its shape?


because of its striated appearance , which tissue is similar to skeletal muscle tissue?

cardiac muscle

aqueous humor fills the space between the cornea and the ?


what par of the eye is largely responsible for viewing dimly lit images?


what nerve is the pathway to vision?


what substance ensures the eyeball maintains its round shape?

Vitreous humor

the auditory ossicles are located in the ?

middle ear

in the ear, movement of the stapes causes stimulation of fluid within the ?


which of the following is a nasal air passageway?

middle meatus

odors are describes as belonging to which of these groups?

7 primary odors, combination of at least 2 of them

what are the enlarged smell receptors that extend into the nasal cavity?

olfactory bulbs

the layer of the epidermis that is next to the deepest layer is the

stratum spinosum

the white area at the base of a finger or toe nail is called the


what substance is secreted by the sebaceous gland


in which function of the integumentary system would blood vessels constrict?

body temp regulation

pigmentation is attributed to?


where would you find very little compact bone in the skeletal system?

bone ends

where are nerves and blood vessels contained in the bone?

medullary cavity

what bones are usually located within tendons where pressure is frequently applied?


what is the name of the triangular shaped bone that lies over the anterior portion of the knee joint?


what type of muscle is the skeletal muscle

voluntary ;striated

the muscle layer that lies just below the epimysium is the ???


what attaches skeletal muscle to the bone?


what type of joint joins the distal end of the tibia and fibula?


what type of joint connects the sternum and first rib?


what fluid acts as a joint lubricant and a nutrient supplier for cartilage within the joint?


what is the process that forms blood cells called?


the valve that leads from the right atrium to the right ventricle is the ?

tricuspid valve

what is the term for thick muscular portion of the heart?


what is the valve between the left atrium and left ventricle?


what cells are responsible for the clotting action in blood?


the pressure in the blood vessels when the heart is at rest between contractions is the ?


oxygenated blood travels from the lungs back to the heart through the ?

pulmonary vein

what vein returns blood back to the heart from the lower body?

inferior vena cava

what is the only vein that carries oxygenated blood ?


vessels that lead out of the lymph nodes are called?

efferent lymphatic vessels

what is the largest lymphatic organ?


what part of the lymph system acts as the filter?


what are the 2 infection fighting organisms associated with the lymph nodes?

lymphocytes and macrophages

where does lymph from the right lymphatic duct empty?

right subclavian vein

once excess fluid from the body tissue enters lymphatic capillaries, it is known as?


the superior portion of the pharynx that contains the eustachian tubes is the ?


the larynx is composed of how many cartilages ?

3 single/ 3 paired

what part of the lower respiratory system does air travel to and from the lungs through a cylindrical tube composed of cartilage ?


during inhalation , the intercostal muscular contraction permits the ribs to move?

forward and slightly upward

the amount of air remaining in the lungs after the strongest possible exhalation is known as ?

residual air

the small spaces between neurons are called the ?


what type of neuron has one axon extending from one end of the soma and one dendrite extending from the other?


what is the primary function of the cerebellum other than coordinating muscular movements?

control activity of the brain itself

the part of the brain stem that connects to the spinal cord is the?

medulla oblongata

what is 1 of the functions of the interior of the cerebrum?

storing knowledge

what is the name of the large intersection of the interlaced spinal nerves?


what cranial nerve is responsible for the sensation of sight?


what cranial nerve controls the lateral rectus eye muscle?


the fight or flight reaction is controlled by the ?

sympathetic nervous system

what part of the peripheral nervous system is responsible for involuntary body functions?


the layer of the alimentary canal that is responsible for movement of substances through the canal is the ?


the ileocecal valve in the small intestine connects to the?


what is the mucous membrane that attaches the tongue to the floor of the mouth?


what is the difference of primary teeth and the number of permanent teeth a person will keep ?


where will undigested chyme go after leaving the ileum?


which organ absorbs beneficial water for use by the body?


what liquid is produced by the liver and stored in the gallbladder?


kidneys are in the posterior abdominal cavity and extent from the ?

thoracic to the lumbar spinal region

approximately how many nephrons are within each kidney?

1 million

how many inches long would you expect the ureter to be in a 30 yr old male?


backflow of urine into the ureters is prevented by the ?

flap of mucous membrane

the urge to urinate is usually first experienced when the bladder contains approximately how many millimeters of urine?


what part of the kidney filters blood to remove waste and regulate water and electrolyte concentrations?


the testes ate 2 oval shaped structures that are made of ?

connective tissue

what is the tubule that leads from the urinary bladder to the exterior of the body?


growth of body hair on a male is a?

secondary sex characteristic

where ae the sperm cells produced?


fluid is secreted from the seminal vesicles to help carry sperm through the?

ejaculatery duct

the lower third of the uterus is called?


what happens to the ovum after a sperm fertilizes it?

travels to uterus and attaches to endometrium

the second phase of the menstrual cycle begins when?

ovum is released from one of the ovaries

what is the term used to describe the first menstrual cycle that occurs once the puberty is reached?


the pituitary gland is divided into what 2 sections called?

anterior lobe and the posterior lobe

which organ secretes the adrenotropic hormone?

anterior lobe of the pituitary gland

which hormone accounts for the majority of the thyroid hormones?


what makes up the majority of the adrenal gland?

adrenal cortex

what hormone secreted by the adrenal medulla has little effect on blood sugar level?


which hormone would you expect the islets of langerhans to secrete?


What organization is responsible for establishing the hospital accreditation evaluation criteria?

The Joint Commission

As a minimum, how frequently should area-specific general operating instructions be reviewed?

Every 2 years

Which of the following most accurately describes an organism that causes infection and disease?


Which infectious agents are primitive one-celled, plant-like organisms that reproduce rapidly?


Which infectious agent includes two structural categories known as yeasts and molds?


What condition must be present for a virus to multiply?

Susceptible tissue

Which stage of infection is the period of time between the invasion of the infectious agent into the body and the onset of symptoms of the particular disease?


Which of the following best states the purpose of the standard precautions recommended by the CDC?

Reduce the risk of transmission of microorganisms from both recognized and unrecognized sources of infection in hospitals

What should you do if the clothes you are wearing at work become contaminated?

Change into clean clothes, bag the dirty clothes and launder them in hot soapy water

One of the most common and serious complications a females may develop from gonorrhea is?

Pelvic inflammatory disease

A health care provider notifies Pubic Health of a suspected communicable disease by

using the telephone or locally derived form

Which medical term means the absence of infection?


Which substance is used to inhibit the growth and development of microorganisms on living tissue?


When using a mask in an isolation unit, put the mask on

Before entering, and take it off before leaving

What is the shelf life for sterilized equipment using the event-life method?

When package integrity is compromised

Which is not a commonly used disinfecting agent?

Hydrochloric acid

What is the temperature range of the sterilization cycle in a peracetic acid sterilizer?

Between 122-131 degrees F

Which item may not be placed in a hydrogen peroxide plasma sterilizer?

Count sheets

What are the standard identifiers associated with the Nation Patient Safety Guidelines?

Patient's full name and date of birth

What are the foundations of safe and effective healthcare?

Proactive risk identification, assessment, and control

The very low-density lipoproteins transport

Triglycerides that are synthesized in the liver from carbohydrates to adipose cells

Nursing actions that facilitate self-actualization is pertinent during which aspect of the nursing care?


A toddler is expected to weigh four times the birth weight at

24 months

Which is a characteristic of late adulthood?

Muscle atrophy

What controllable factor did Florence Nightingale link with health and the environment?

Pure water

Which of the following is most likely to be a part of a work site wellness program?

Blood pressure screenings

A good source of protein is


Clinical signs of B12 deficiency are first noted by

Pernicious anemia

Pregnant women who overdose on B6 may have caused newborns to be born with


Vitamin C can be found naturally in all of the following foods except


A sign of vitamin A deficiency include

night blindness

Which ailment is not treated by vitamin K?

Heparin overdose

What percentage of the body's weight are minerals responsible for?


Signs of sodium chloride deficiency can be seen

Through an excessive amount of fluid loss

When administering potassium intravenously, you should

mix the potassium thoroughly before administration

Calcium can be found in all of the following sources except


Which route is injectable iron administered?


Electrolytes that release hydrogen ions in water are called


What symptoms may occur with blood pH alkalosis?

Dizzy and agitated

Complex carbohydrates are called


What organ is primarily responsible for controlling lipid metabolism?


Amino acids are the small molecular building blocks of


Which is an accurate definition of leukocytes?

Protect against disease at the cellular level

The life span of lymphocytes is


What cells do lymph nodes contain in large number to fight invading microorganisms?

Lymphocytes and macrophages

The primary central gland of the lymphatic system is the

Thymus gland

Nathan has broken out with the chickenpox for the first time. His body's response is called a

Primary immune response

During which stage of healing are immature fiber cells and capillaries formed?


For many patients who suffer from severe injuries or medical conditions, their first psychological reaction is

Shock and disorientation

Which signs or symptoms of nervous system impairment would you look for in a intoxicated patient?

Impaired vision, uncoordinated movement, behavioral changes

Which fluid imbalance is characterized by dry mucous membranes, weak and rapid pulse, orthostatic hypotension, and a low central venous pressure?


What electrolyte deficit or excess can cause dysrhythmias, leading to cardiac or respiratory arrest?


Which acid-based imbalance is caused by hyperventilating?

Respiratory alkalosis

Deficiency in respirations such as slow or irregular, shallow respirations can lead to an excessive accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood which results in a condition called

Respiratory Acidosis

The basic purpose of infusion therapy is to

Administer fluids into the circulatory system

What is the best way for a medical technician to ensure the sterility of an intravenous solution?

remove protective devices yourself

In a piggyback setup, what prevents the mixing of primary and secondary infusions?

Back-check valve

To reduce the possibility of infection and vessel damage on patients schedule for long term therapy, how often should you change a patient's intravenous site?

Every 48 to 72 hours

In cubic centimeters, what is the slowest possible flow rate per hour you may set for an intravenous

10 to 50 cc

Which urine test is done to determine the hydration level of the patient?

Specific gravity

What steps should you take if you identify a small object while straining urine?

Place it in a sterile urine cup and notify the nurse

After obtaining a blood sample, instruct the patient to maintain pressure over the venipuncture site for

2 to 3 minutes

What should be done prior to operating a glucose meter?

Read the operating instructions

In the objective information section of the paperwork, it is important to identify that patient's

pulse rate

A proctoscopy is an inspection of the


When educating the patient with pseudofolliculitis barbae on proper shaving methods, you should instruct the patient to avoid all of the following except shaving

In the direction of hair growth

The eye can generally see wavelengths between

400 and 750 nm

At what ages is visual acuity at its best?


When performing a pulmonary function test on a patient, according to Air Force standards, abnormal functions are present if the predicted forces expiratory volume at once second (FEV1) or forced vital capacity (FVC) percentage is less than?


During pulmonary function testing, the minimum number of practice attempts and acceptable tracings an examinee must perform are

2; 3

Any artificial products or features which appear on an electrocardiogram tracing are called


What term is used to describe any variance in the normal electrical rate or sequence of cardiac activities discovered on electrocardiogram tracings?


If you are performing an electrocardiogram on someone who is rated, a copy of that electrocardiogram must be sent to the

US Air Force Central Electrocardiographic Library

What is another term for orthostatic hypotension?

Postural Hypotension

Notify the nurse or physician immediately if the patient's oxygen saturation (SaO2) falls below

97 percent

When can the minor surgery procedure begin?

After the consent form is signed

When cutting through thick muscular skin of the back, a provider would most likely use a

Mayo scissors

When cleaning a two inch laceration on a healthy active duty male's right forearm, you notice some foreign material in the wound, what would be the next step?

Flush the wound

After you have applied a topical anesthetic to a wound that requires treatment, what should you do next?

Assess sensory awareness

How much vacuum must suction units provide when the tube clamped?

300 mm Hg

When performing a crash cart check, what should you do after ensuring the defibrillator or cardiac monitor operate?

Annotate date and time on a rhythm strip

When transmitting information about a patient over the radio, what information should not be broadcast?


In the Air Force, you can use lights and sirens on an ambulance call only

when local protocol authorizes it

The action of assessing the scene of an accident to provide valuable information to the emergency medical technician is called

scene size-up

When there is an apparent vehicle fire, how many feet should the ambulance be parked from the affected vehicle?


When performing an initial assessment on a patient and the patient responds by spontaneously opening his or her eyes or answers clearly, how would you assess the patient's mental status?


If the patient is not alert and his or her breathing is slower than eight breaths per minute, provide

ventilations with BVM and high-flow oxygen

As a general rule, apply a cervical collar if there is any blow above the


A rapid trauma assessment if performed on a patient with

a significant mechanism of injury, and focuses on the area of the body where the greatest threats to the patient are

When you ask a medical patient what may have triggered his or her pain, you are questioning about


While gathering a history of illness, when you ask a medical patient if the pain is constant or intermittent, what are you trying to determine?


What are your responsibilities as an emergency medical technician at the scene of a hazmat incident?

Caring for the injured and monitor and rehabilitating the hazmat team members.

Which device is commonly used for patient transfers in wartime and disaster situations?

Army field litter

If an individual walks in to a medical treatment facility and asks for assistance bringing in a family member, you should ask

what is wrong with the patient to determine the appropriate transfer device.

If you are treating a severely injured patient with a life-threatening problem, it may be appropriate to skip the

detailed physical exam

In minutes, what is the recommended interval for reassessment of an unstable patient?


Which acronym is used by emergency medical technicians in the field to describe a possible fracture?

Painful, swollen deformity

Which classifications of fracture are considered more serious because greater blood loss or contaminated is possible?


While working in the emergency room, a patient comes in and states that he or she has splashed a chemical in his or her eye, what should you determine first?

If the patient is wearing contact lenses and which type

In what anatomical location is the pacemaker lead inserted when using temporary external pulse generator system?

Right atrium

Deficiency in respirations such as slow or irregular shallow respirations can lead to an excessive accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood which results in a condition called

Respiratory acidosis

Which individual is not authorized to see and treat patients?

Registered nurses

What considerations determine the steps in the routine admission process?

Patient's condition and the facility policy

What would be the responsibility of the medical technician during a routine patient admission to a nursing unit?

Obtain patient's vital sighs, height, and weight

Which statement allows a patient to depart from the medical facility for a short period of time, usually between 24 and 48 hours?


How many pounds of baggage are allowed for a patient being aeromedically evacuated to another facility?


A patient who is authorized to live outside the hospital while still receiving treatment is considered

Subsisting out

If an inpatient chart with doctor's orders for vital signs every four hours was blank for the day, you would assume the

Vital signs were not completed

What is the proper method of annotating shift change totals on the DD Form 792, Intake and Output Worksheet?

Circle the last accumulated total

Which nursing activity is the main aspect of resolving nursing diagnoses?


Relative to the nursing process, what is a client goal?

A realistic and measurable statement of the expected change in patient behavior

What is a way to help relieve most of the patient's concerns prior to surgery?

Preoperative teaching

What has a significant impact on the patient's perceived quality of care and treatment?

Professionalism and caring attitude of staff

What is the best reason for prepping the skin prior to surgery?

Reduces the chance of infection

Without provider approval, what is the maximum number of minutes antiembolism stocking may be removed?


What precaution is taken for a postoperative patient who received a radioisotope implant?

Isolation is necessary

Which position is the bed placed in preparation to receive a postoperative surgical patient?


Which exercise is not commonly used for postoperative patients?

Standing hamstring stretches

Which form is used to document a patient's blood transfusion?

Standard Form 518

How is whole blood normally supplied?

450cc units

What is the guideline for the maximum minutes of time from pickup to the transfusion start of blood products?

30 minutes

If a patient you are monitoring is receiving a blood transfusion and you notice distended neck and veins and dyspnea. What should you do first?

Stop the transfusion

Which pain management method must be closely monitored because it can result in a depressed respiratory system?

Administration of narcotics

Ideally, in what position is a patient placed before performing oropharyngeal suctioning?


Orthopedic deformities, such as clubfoot or wryneck, are categorized as


A fracture that results from disease, such as metastatic cancer of the bone, is called


The semi-recumbent position should be avoided over long periods of time in patients with orthopedic disorders because it

promotes flexion deformities of the hip

Which term is used to describe the sound that bones make as they rub together?


Pin care is required with what type of reduction of the bone?

Open reduction, external fixation

What actions, if any, should you take if your patient complain that his or her short leg cast feels tight?

Bivalve the cast

The cramping, burning, or crushing pain complained about by amputees in their missing limb is referred to as a

Phantom limb pain

What equipment is essential to have at the postoperative bedside after surgical amputation of a limb?


Turning a patient on a Stryker frame quickly after a spinal cord injury can cause

Cardiac arrest

Rehabilitation for a patient with a spinal cord injury is normally

a lifelong process

The side of the body that is affected by a stroke is determined by the

side of the brain that was traumatized

During which child development stage is separation anxiety the most stressful?


The normal adaptive mechanism used by children when they lose their sense of control is


When caring for a child with nausea and vomiting, a primary concern would be


Which reason is not appropriate for restraining a child?

You have other tasks to do, and no time to sit with the child

When providing skin care for the elderly, it is important to avoid using


How would you help stimulate the appetite of an elderly patient?

Cater to the patient's customs

What is a sign of uremia?


The first stage of dying is


All that a person is, feels, and does is generally termed


What affects an individual's feeling about themselves?


Which psychiatric term defines an irresistible urge to perform apparently meaningless actions?


Which psychiatric term defines a mood disorder identified by feelings of elation and well-being, flight of ideas, and physical over-activity?


Your behavior or actions in the presence of a patient who is anxious should be


A patient who feels unloved, unneeded, inferior, and hurt displays a behavior of


When does the rehabilitation process begin with a mentally ill patient?

As soon as the patient is admitted

What is the primary rehabilitation need of a mentally ill patient?

Strengthening the patient's defenses

When observing and reporting on mentally ill patients, the most important factor to consider is


Psychotherapy usually includes all of the following treatments except

Electroconvulsive therapy

What action, if any, should you take if you notice a child shows signs of abuse, such as burns and bruises?

Report the suspected abuse

What occurs in the third and final phase of spousal abuse?

Spouse states it will never happen again

Which drug classification causes euphoria, excitement, dilated pupils, diaphoresis, tachycardia, and rapid breathing?


What is the priority when providing care to a patient that has abused a substance?

Monitor vital signs and sustain life

For patients who suffer from pain, the best way to ensure a successful exercise activity program is to

begin the program early in the patient's hospital stay

When planning activities for patients with psychological problems, your primary goal should be to

develop a good rapport

What should you do to help patients who become angry and hostile?

Allow them to channel their hostility through verbal expression

To aid in preventing decubitus ulcers, patient positioning should be changed every

Two hours

Why should your feet be parallel when you are standing?

Maintain balance and prevent back, hip, and leg strain

To use the internal girdle of support, you must

simultaneously contract abdominal and buttocks muscles

Which factors determine the technique you will use to move the patient up in bed?

Size and capabilities of the patient

When turning a patient, what is the most important precaution to take whether you are pushing or pulling a patient?

Raise the far siderail

The person in charge of a bed to stretcher transfer should be positioned

At the head of the bed on the stretcher side

Which devices can be used to slide a patient from the bed to a stretcher?

Drawsheet and roller board

When helping a patient to ambulate, how should you stand and where should you place your hands?

Bedside and a little behind the patient with one hand on the patient's waist and one hand under the patient's near arm

Which is a safe, stable gait that can be used by patients who can bear some weight on both legs?


Which type of patient exercise is provided for patients who are either unable or not allowed to exercise?


Care must be taken to ensure patients do not strain while holding their breath when performing isometric exercises as that may cause

heart attack

What diet is usually ordered for patients who have difficulty chewing or swallowing or need to alter the amount of residue in the digestive tract?


The diet that is inadequate in all nutrients and should not be given for more than three days is the

Clear liquid

Which precaution should be taken just prior to performing a procedure that uses the patient's nasogastric tube?

Check for tube placement

What should the solution temperature be during gastric gavage?

Room temperature

During catheterization of a patient, how inches is the catheter inserted for placement in the urinary bladder?

2 to 3

When measuring urine output of an infant, one gram of diaper weight is equal to

one milliliter

For administration of an enema, the patient is preferably positioned

on his or her left side

Colostomy irrigations are performed to

established fecal control

What is the normal arterial oxygen saturation range?

95 to 98 percent

What condition occurs if CO2 builds up and mixes with water in the blood stream?

Respiratory acidosis

When using an oxygen tent, how frequently should oxygen concentrations and temperature be checked?

1 to 2 hours

For patients using a non-rebreathing mask, the inspired oxygen concentration is

60 to 90 percent

What actions should you take when moving a patient on a venturi mask?

Monitor in transport and reassess patient on arrival

What complications could occur to the patient following a thoracentesis?

Shock, bleeding, and dyspnea

Closed-check drainage is a drainage system used to

re-expand a collapsed lung

What cardiac related condition may be caused by a fall in cardiac output resulting in cerebral ischemia?


The physiological function that the heart sound S1 ("lub") is associated with is

closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves

When preparing a patient for insertion of a central venous pressure line, what maneuver is taught to the patient to decrease the chance of an air embolism?


What position should a patient be placed in for insertion of a central venous pressure line into a neck vein?


As a minimum, how many minutes should you irrigate a patient's eye with chemical burns?

20 minutes

How are corneal abrasions detected?

Fluorescein stain

There is a high rate of success if a dentist carries out a tooth replacement procedure within how many minutes of the accident?

30 minutes

Damage to the epidermis with possible damage to the dermis and its appendages is classified as what type of burn?

Partial thickness

A burn is classified as moderate if it involves

full-thickness burns that involve 2 to 10 percent of the body surface

When caring for a patient with electrical burns at a facility, your first priority is

management of the patient's airway

How would you apply a dressing with the intention of debriding a wound?

Wet to dry

What is the proper sequence for cleaning a wound?

Remove old dressing, don sterile gloves, wipe from the wound out

What reflex action would be caused if you leave a heat treatment in place for a prolonged period of time?

Reflex vasoconstriction

How do you apply moist heat?

Moisten a towel and place between heat application and patient

A specialist who can guide a provider in prescribing drug is best defined as a

Clinical pharmacist

Out of the several names given each medication, which of these drug names is given by the manufacturer?

Trade name

Which statement is true regarding the role of a medical service technician in medication administration?

Technicians are permitted to administer medications under the supervision of a nurse or physician

Which statement is not considered one of the patients' legal and ethical rights?

Choose the method of administration

What form should be filled out when reporting a medication error?

AF Form 765

How many ways can a provider initiate a drug order?


What do many medical treatment facilities use to avoid errors when copying a drug order?

Computer-generated product

Drug administration is controlled primarily by

federal law

Narcotics, such as codeine, cocaine, and amphetamines, which have a high potential for abuse, but have acceptable medical uses are classified as

Schedule 2

What law requires a periodic inventory of all controlled substances?

Controlled Substances Act

As a minimum, how often should controlled temperature drug storage areas be monitored?

Once per day

Penicillin administered to treat an infection is an example of what category of drugs?


The process by which a drug is transported from the site of entry to the circulatory system is known as


A patient's weight is a factor in drug action due to

body fat absorption

Why are oral medications that are taken before meals generally faster acting?

Lower digestive system content

Which statement is true regarding how ambient temperature can affect drug action?

Warmer temperatures increase circulation and cause rapid drug action

Which of these is a common reference source for drugs?

Physician Desk Reference

A finely ground drug that can be used internally or used externally describes a type of medication preparation called a


What type of medication has a cleansing action that produces watery evacuation of intestinal content?


Which element is not required on a medication order?

Patient's age

Before administering any medication, you are responsible for all of the following except

for ensuring A1C Jones is available for work the next day

How many pounds are equal to 65kg?


Dr. Young has ordered Mrs. Green to receive 5mg/kg of Ancef twice a day. Mrs. Green weighs 65kg. The medication Ancef is supplied in vials 50 mg/mL. How many mLs of the Ancef will be given for each dose?


Lt Col McNamara ordered a single dose Phenergan 12.5 mg, to be administered intramuscularly to A1C Jones for nausea and vomiting. The Phenergan is supplied in 50 mg/2mL pre-filled syringes. How many mLs would you administer?


The method of parenteral medication administration that involves injecting a drug into a muscle is


Name the parts of a needle

Hub, shaft, and bevel

What administration method delivers medication directly into a patient's digestive system?


To prevent contamination and accidental spills, liquid medications being administered to inpatients are usually poured at what location?

At the patient's bedside

Which statement is a disadvantage of inhalation medication?

Monitoring the precise amount of drug administration is difficult

When administering eye medications, ensure the patient's treated eye is lower than the other in order to

prevent the solution from running into the patient's unaffected eye

Into what body cavity are otic medications administered?

External auditory canal

To administer ear drops in a patient under three years of age, you gently pull the earlobe

down to straighten the canal

Vaginal suppositories are

administered to combat infection

When administering a vaginal douche, how high above the patient's vagina do you hang the bag?

12 to 18 inches

Which medication's primary action is pain relief?

Analgesics, sedatives and hypnotics

Opioid antagonists are used in the treatment of

opioid overdose

Nonopioid analgesics are available

over the counter

Anti-inflammatory actions are associated with

preventing the formation of prostaglandins

A common side effect of sedatives and hypnotic medications is

a depressed state of rapid eye movement phase of sleep

Which over the counter central nervous system stimulant is frequently taken in prolonged high doses producing habituation and psychological dependence?


What is not a side effects of tricyclics?

pupil constriction

Antianxiety medications are prescribed for

the treatment of insomnia

Antipsychotic medications are categorized as

major tranquilizers

Extrapyramidal side effects common to typical phenothiazine antipsychotic medication is a result of

blocking dopamine receptors

Which pulse point should be checked before administration of digitalis?


Toxic side effects of digitalis include the following except


Adrenergic blockers are used in low doses for patients with

lung conditions that cause bronchospasms

Calcium channel blockers should not be taken with

grapefruit juice

The drug of choice when treating premature ventricular contractions associated with a myocardial infarction is


Quinidine is used primarily as prophylactic therapy to

maintain normal rhythm after cardioversion

What is the most common side effect of antihypertensives?

Postural hypotension

Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors are taken in conjunction with diuretics or vasodilators, what affect is produced?

Potentiate hypotension

Central-acting alpha-adrenergic inhibitors are usually combined with


What is the primary side effect of central-acting alpha-adrenergic inhibitors?

Sodium and water retention

What antidote is administered for serious bleeding complications while under coumarin (Coumadin) therapy?

Vitamin K

Mr. Johnson has undergone a hip replacement and is receiving heparin treatment. Mr. Johnson's daughter has received education from the nurse at the hospital regarding the heparin treatment. What patient education instructions would Mr. Johnson's daughter

Do not aspirate

While undergoing heparin treatment, Mr. Johnson's diet should be monitored closely for foods rich in vitamin


The most serious complication of thrombolytic therapy is


Antacids containing aluminum or calcium carbonate have the common side effect of?


What is a potential side when antacids are taken concurrently with coumarin derivatives?

Increase bleeding time

Which medication acts as an absorbent and protectant to achieve a drying effect to the gastrointestinal tract?


Cathartics are categorized as


What type of laxative is sorbitol?


When should Dramamine be taken when orally administered?

30 minutes before expected motion

Among the endocrine medication, what drug action category do adrenal corticosteroids fall within?


Which endocrine therapy drugs are used to prevent organ transplant rejection?


A major contributor of young children developing type 2 diabetes is

increased obesity

With type 1 diabetes, the pancreas

in unable to produce enough insulin to control blood sugar

Insulin may potentiate a hypoglycemic effect when taken concomitantly with

alcohol or salicylates

What are the actions of sulfonylurea medications?

Increase the insulin production of the pancreas and better peripheral insulin activity

Aminoglycosides are used for

short term treatment

Patients who are allergic to penicillin are also most likely to be allergic to


When a patient is receiving penicillin for treatment of severe strep throat, what further patient-education is appropriate if the patient is also taking oral contraceptives for birth control?

Use a back up method of birth control while taking the penicillin

If after five days of the penicillin treatment the patient develops diarrhea, what advice would be appropriate?

Add yogurt or buttermilk to her diet and monitor the number of episodes

Which medication can interact with quinolones to potentiate cardiac arrest?


Which vaccine should not be administered to individuals allergic to eggs or egg products?


Hepatitis A is contracted through the transmission of

contaminated food or water

Which vaccine do all recruits receive a booster for upon entering the Air Force?


What vaccines are given to individuals deploying to Africa?

Yellow fever and typhoid

Which childhood disease was nearly eradicated worldwide by 1972 and in the early 2000s the vaccine was reintroduced as a mobility vaccine for military personnel?

Small pox

Which viral disease do mosquitoes transmit?

Yellow fever

What type of medication would be prescribed for a patient with allergies to grass and tree pollen?


What patient-education would be appropriate for a patient who has been prescribed Tessalon perles to help stop coughing?

Do not chew the capsule

What food or drink is known for its high potential to change intestinal tract enzymes and interfere with the effectiveness of certain antibiotics, antifungals, antihistamines and sedative-hypnotic drugs?

Grapefruit juice

During catheterization of a male patient, at what angle is the penis held, and how many inches is the catheter inserted?

90 degrees, 6 to 10 inches

Opioids are contraindicated with

head injury treatment

Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors lower blood pressure by

Decreasing vasoconstriction

accessory muscles

The secondary muscles of respiration. They include the neck muscles (sternocleidomastoids), the chest pectoralis major muscles, and the abdominal muscles.


To listen to sounds within an organ with a stethoscope.

AVPU scale

A method of assessing the level of consciousness by determining whether the patient is awake and alert, responsive to verbal stimuli or pain, or unresponsive; used principally early in the assessment process.

blood pressure

the pressure that is exerted by the blood against the walls of blood vessels


slow heart rate (less than 60 bpm)

breath sounds

An indication of air movement in the lungs, usually assessed with a stethoscope.

capillary refill

A test that evaluates distal circulatory system function by squeezing (blanching) blood from an area such as a nail bed and watching the speed of its return after releasing the pressure.


A noninvasive method to quickly and efficiently provide information on a patient's ventilatory status, circulation, and metabolism; effectively measures the concentration of carbon dioxide in expired air over time.

carbon dioxide

Carbon dioxide is a component of air and typically makes up 0.3% of air at sea level; also a waste product exhaled during expiration by the respiratory system.

chief complaint

The reason a patient called for help; also, the patient's response to questions such as "What's wrong?" or "What happened?


To form a clot to plug an opening in an injured blood vessel and stop bleeding.

colorimetric devices

Capnometer or end-tidal carbon dioxide detectors are devices that use a chemical reaction to detect the amount of carbon dioxide present in expired gases by changing colors (qualitative measurement rather than quantitative).


The delicate membrane that lines the eyelids and covers the exposed surface of the eye.


A grating or grinding sensation caused by fractured bone ends or joints rubbing together; also air bubbles under the skin that produce a crackling sound or crinkly feeling.


a bluish discoloration of the skin resulting from poor circulation or inadequate oxygenation of the blood.


deformities, contusions, abrasions, punctures, burns, tenderness, lacerations, swelling


Characterized by profuse sweating.

diastolic pressure

occurs when the ventricles are relaxed; the lowest pressure against the walls of an artery

End Tital CO2

the amount of carbon dioxide present in an exhaled breath

focused assessment

A type of physical assessment that is typically performed on patients who have sustained nonsignificant mechanisms of injury or on responsive medical patients. This type of examination is based on the chief complaint and focuses on one body system or part


damage to the skin and tissues caused by extreme cold

full-body scan

A systematic head-to-toe examination that is performed during the secondary assessment on a patient who has sustained a significant mechanism of injury, is unconscious, or is in critical condition.

general impression

The overall initial impression that determines the priority for patient care; based on the patient's surroundings, the mechanism of injury, signs and symptoms, and the chief complaint.

Golden Period

The time from injury to definitive care, during which treatment of shock and traumatic injuries should occur because survival potential is best.


Involuntary muscle contractions (spasms) of the abdominal wall in an effort to protect an inflamed abdomen; a sign of peritonitis.

history taking

A step within the patient assessment process that provides detail about the patient's chief complaint and an account of the patient's signs and symptoms.


abnormally high blood pressure


abnormally low blood pressure


A condition in which the internal body temperature falls below 95�F (35�C), usually as a result of prolonged exposure to cool or freezing temperatures.

Incident Command System

A system implemented to manage disasters and mass- and multiple-casualty incidents in which section chiefs, including finance, logistics, operations, and planning, report to the incident commander. Also referred to as the incident management system.


Yellow skin or sclera that is caused by liver disease or dysfunction.

labored breathing

The use of muscles of the chest, back, and abdomen to assist in expanding the chest; occurs when air movement is impaired.

mechanism of injury

a force or forces that may have caused injury

nasal flaring

Flaring out of the nostrils, indicating that there is an airway obstruction.

nature of illness

The general type of illness a patient is experiencing.


Onset, Provocation, Quality, Region/Radiation, Severity, Timing.


The mental status of a patient as measured by memory of person (name), place (current location), time (current year, month, and approximate date), and event (what happened).


to examine by touch

paradoxical motion

The motion of the chest wall section that is detached in a flail chest; the motion is exactly the opposite of normal motion during breathing (ie, in during inhalation, out during exhalation).


circulation of blood within an organ or tissue

Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)

Clothing or specialized equipment that provides protection to the wearer.

pertinent negatives

Negative findings that warrant no care or intervention.

Primary Assessment

A step within the patient assessment process that identifies and initiates treatment of immediate and potential life threats.


The pressure wave that occurs as each heartbeat causes a surge in the blood circulating through the arteries.


A crackling, rattling breath sound that signals fluid in the air spaces of the lungs; also called crackles.


A step within the patient assessment process that is performed at regular intervals to identify and treat changes in a patient's condition, A patient in unstable condition should be reassessed every 5 minutes, whereas a patient in stable condition should


the way in which a patient responds to external stimuli, including verbal stimuli, tactile stimuli, and pain stimuli


Movement in which the skin pulls in around the ribs during inspiration


Coarse, low-pitched breath sounds heard in patients with chronic mucus in the upper airways.

SAMPLE history

A brief history of a patient's condition to determine signs and symptoms, allergies, medications, pertinent past history, last oral intake, and events leading to the injury or illness.

scene size-up

A step within the patient assessment process that involves a quick assessment of the scene and the surroundings to provide information about scene safety and the mechanism of injury or nature of illness before you enter and begin patient care.


The white portion of the eye; the tough outer coat that gives protection to the delicate, light-sensitive inner layer.

Secondary Assessment

A step within the patient assessment process in which a systematic physical examination of the patient is performed. The examination may be a systematic full-body scan or a systematic assessment that focuses on a certain area or region of the body, often

shallow respirations

Respirations that are charcterized by little movement of the chest wall (reduced tidal volume) or poor chest excursion


Objective findings that can be seen, heard, felt, smelled, or measured.

sniffling position

an upright position in which the patient's head and chin are thrust slightly forward to keep the airway open

spontaneous respirations

Breathing that occurs with no assistance.

Standard Precautions

Protective measures that have traditionally been developed by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention for use in dealing with objects, blood, body fluids, and other potential exposure risks of communicable disease.


A harsh, high-pitched, crowing inspiratory sound, such as the sound often heard in acute laryngeal (upper airway) obstruction; may sound like crowing and be audible without a stethoscope.

subcutaneous emphysema

The presence of air in soft tissues, causing a characteristic crackling sensation on palpation.


Subjective findings that the patient feels but that can be identified only by the patient.

systolic pressure

The increased pressure in an artery with each contraction of the ventricles (systole).


rapid heart rate over 100 beats per minute

tidal volume

Amount of air that moves in and out of the lungs during a normal breath(500ml)


The process of establishing treatment and transportation priorities according to severity of injury and medical need.

tripod position

An upright position in which the patient leans forward onto two arms stretched forward and thrusts the head and chin forward.

two- to three-word dyspnea

A severe breathing problem in which a patient can speak only two to three words at a time without pausing to take a breath.


narrowing of blood vessels

vital signs

The key signs that are used to evaluate the patient's overall condition, including respirations, pulse, blood pressure, level of consciousness, and skin characteristics.

acute coronary syndrome

A term used to describe a group of symptoms caused by myocardial ischemia; includes angina and myocardial infarction.

*acute myocardial infarction

A heart attack; death of heart muscle following obstruction of blood flow to it. Acute in this context means "new" or "happening right now.

angina pectoris

Transient (short-lived) chest discomfort caused by partial or temporary blockage of blood flow to the heart muscle.


The front surface of the body; the side facing you in the standard anatomic position.


the main artery, which receives blood from the left ventricle and delivers it to all the other arteries that carry blood to the tissues of the body

aortic aneurysm

A weakness in the wall of the aorta that makes it susceptible to rupture.

aortic valve

The one-way valve that lies between the left ventricle and the aorta and keeps blood from flowing back into the left ventricle after the left ventricle ejects its blood into the aorta; one of four heart valves.


An irregular or abnormal heart rhythm.


absence of contractions of the heart


A disorder in which cholesterol and calcium build up inside the walls of the blood vessels, forming plaque, which eventually leads to partial or complete blockage of blood flow.


one of two upper chambers of the heart The right atrium receives blood from the vena cava and delivers it to the right ventricle. The left atrium receives blood from the pulmonary veins and delivers it to the left ventricle


the ability of cardiac cells to contract without stimulation from the nervous system

autonomic nervous system

part of the nervous system that controls the involuntary activities of the body such as the heart rate, blood pressure, and digestion of food


slow heart rate (less than 60 bpm)

cardiac arrest

a state in which the heart fails to generate effective and detectable blood flow; pulses are not palpable and cardiac arrest, even if muscular and electrical activity continues in the heart.

cardiogenic shcok

a state in which not enough oxygen is delivered to the tissues of the body, caused by low output of blood from the heart. It can be a severe complication of a large acute myocardial infarction, as well as other conditions

*cardiac output

A measure of the volume of blood circulated by the heart in 1 minute, calculated by multiplying the stroke volume by the heart rate.

congestive heart failure (CHF)

A disorder in which the heart loses part of its ability to effectively pump blood, usually as a result of damage to the heart muscle and usually resulting in a backup of fluid into the lungs.

*coronary arteries

The blood vessels that carry blood and nutrients to the heart muscle.


to shock a fibrillating (chaotic beating) heart with specialized electrical current in an attempt to restore a normal, rhythmic beat.

dependent edema

Swelling in the part of the body closest to the ground, caused by collection of fluid in the tissues; a possible sign of congestive heart failure.


Widening of a tubular structure such as a coronary artery.

dissecting aneurysm

A condition in which the inner layers of an artery, such as the aorta, become separated, allowing blood (at high pressures) to flow between the layers.

hypertensive emergency

An emergency situation created by excessively high blood pressure, which can lead to serious complications such as stroke or aneurysm.


death of a body tissue, usually caused by interruption of its blood supply


the part of the body or any body part closer to the ground


A lack of oxygen that deprives tissues of necessary nutrients, resulting from partial or complete blockage of blood flow; potentially reversible because permanent injury has not yet occurred.


The inside diameter of an artery or other hollow structure.


heart muscle


A blockage, usually of a tubular structure such as a blood vessel.

parasympathetic nervous system

the part of the autonomic nervous system that controls vegetative functions such as digestion of food and relaxation


The flow of blood through body tissues and vessels.

Posterior (dorsal)

back surface of the body

*stroke volume

The volume of blood ejected with each ventricular contraction.


The part of the body or any body part nearer to the head.

sympathetic nervous system

the part of the autonomic nervous system that controls active functions such as responding to fear (known as fight or flight)




rapid heart rate over 100 beats per minute


A blood clot that has formed within a blood vessel and is floating within the bloodstream.


one of two lower chambers of the heart. The left ventricle receives blood from the left atrium (upper chamber) and delivers blood to the aorta. The right ventricle receives blood from the right atrium and pumps it into the pulmonary artery

ventricular fibrillation

Disorganized, ineffective twitching of the ventricles, resulting in no blood flow and a state of cardiac arrest.

ventricular tachycardia

A rapid heart rhythm in which the electrical impulse begins in the ventricle (instead of the atrium), which may result in inadequate blood flow and eventually deteriorate into cardiac arrest.

trauma emergencies

emergencies that are the result of physical forces applied to a patients body

index of suspicion

an awareness that unseen life-threatening injuries may exist when determining the mechanism of injury

mechanism of injury

the forces or energy transmission, applied to the body that cause injury

three types of collisions in a crash

vehicle collision, human collision, internal collision


the measure of force over distance

kinetic energy

the energy of a moving object,
reflects the relationship between mass of an object and velocity (speed) at which it is traveling, velocity (speed) is the more damaging factor

multisystem trauma

describes a person who has been subjected to multiple injuries involving more than one body system, requires rapid treatment and transportation

common passenger injuries

lower extremity fractures, flail chest, head trauma

coup-contrecoup brain injury

brain injury that occurs when force is applied to the head and energy transmission through the brain tissue causes injury to the opposite side of the impact. From the anterior to the posterior

frontal collisions contact points

dashboard at the knees
chest or abdomen at steering wheel

rear-end collision contact points

whiplash if no headrest
passengers only wearing lap belts may have thoracic and lumbar spine injuries

lateral collision

lateral whiplash
doorpost or window contact points
chest and abdominal injuries

rollover crash

ejection and partial ejection are significant MOIs with unrestrained passengers
centrifugal force
spinal cord injury

rotational collisions

similar to rollovers
can include lateral impact

car vs pedestrian

-estimate the speed of the vehicle that struck the patient
-determine if the patient was ejected
-what surface did the patient land on
-at what distance or whether the patient was struck or pulled under the vehicle
-evaluate the vehicle for structural dam

car vs bicycle

-estimate the speed of the vehicle that struck the patient
-evaluate damage to and the position of the bicycle
-determine if the patient was ejected
-what surface did the patient land on
-at what distance or whether the patient was struck or pulled under

car vs motorcycle

-look for deformity of the motorcycle
-the side of most damage
-the distance of the skid in the road
-the deformity of stationary objects or other vehicles
-extent and location of deformity in the helmet
-presume cervical column or spinal cord injuries

significant fall

more than 15' or 2-3 times the patient's height
suspect internal injuries
consider medical causes (sycope)

fall considerations

height of the fall
type of surface
part of the body that hit first


any object propelled by force, such as a bullet by a weapon


the path a projectile takes once it is propelled


a phenomenon in which speed causes a bullet to generate pressure waves, which cause damage distant from the bullets path

temporary cavitation

caused by the acceleration of the bullet and causes a stretching of the tissues

permanent cavitation

caused by the bullet path and remains once the bullet has passed through the tissue

primary blast injuries

these injuries are due entirely to the blast, damage to the body is caused by the pressure wave generated by the explosion

secondary blast injuries

damage to the body results from being struck by flying debris, such as shrapnel from the device or from glass or splinters which have been set in motion by the explosion

tertiary blast injuries

these injuries occur when the patient is hurled by the force of the explosion against a stationary object.

Quaternary blast injuries

this category of miscellaneous injuries includes burns from hot gases or fires started by the blast

tympanic membrane

the eardrum; a thin, semi-transparent membrane in the middle ear that transmits sound vibrations to the internal ear by means of auditory ossicles (ruptures at pressures of 5 to 7 pounds per square inch above atmospheric pressure

arterial air embolism

air bubbles in the arterial blood vessels

injuries to the head

require frequent neurologic examinations, changes in pupillary size and reactivity can take time

injuries to the neck and throat

can result in airway problems, jugular vein distention, tracheal deviation, swelling, and crushing can cause subcutaneous creptitation

injuries to the chest

fractured ribs or sternum, cardiac bruising, large vessel tear, lung bruising, pneumothorax, open chest would can cause air pressure problems

injuries to the abdomen

solid organs may tear, lacerate or fracture
hollow organs may rupture and leak

platinum ten

on-scene time for critically injured patients should be less than 10 minutes

Level I Trauma Center

comprehensive regional resource capable of providing total care for every aspect of an injury, 24 in house coverage by general surgeons, University based

Level II Trauma Center

capable of providing initial definitive care for all injuries, 24 hour immediate coverage by general surgeon

Level III Trauma Center

provide assessment, resuscitation and stabilization, must have transfer agreement with higher level center, 24 hour immediate coverage by emergency medical physician

Level IV Trauma Center

provide advanced trauma life support prior to transfer to a higher level trauma center

trauma score

a score calculated from 1 to 16 with 16 being the best possible score. it relates to the likelihood of patient survival with the exception of severe head injury. it takes into account the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score, respirator rate, respiratory expans

revised trauma score

a scoring system used for patients with head trauma

pulmonary blast injuries

pulmonary trauma resulting from short-range exposure to the detonation of explosives

Potential energy

the product of mass, gravity, and height which is converted into kinetic energy and results in injury such as from a fall.

penetrating trauma

injury caused by objects such as knives and bullets that pierce the surface of the body and damage soft tissue, internal organs and body cavities

medical emergencies

emergencies that require EMS attention because of illnesses or conditions not caused by an outside force

Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score

an evaluation tool used to determine level of consciousness which evaluates and assigns points values (scores) for eye opening verbal response and motor response which are then totaled; effective in helping predict patient outcomes


resistance that slows a projectile such as air


the slowing of an object

blunt trauma

an impact on the body by objects that cause injury without penetrating soft tissues or internal organs and cavities

energy can be


the amount of kinetic energy (moving object)that is converted to do work on the body dictates the _____________ of the injury


types of motorcycle impacts

head-on collision
angular collision
controlled collision

types of motor vehicle (car) crashes

head-on (frontal) crashes
read-end crashes
lateral (side impact) crashes
rollover crashes
rotational (spinning) crashes

what are the three collisions in a frontal impact

car striking object
passenger striking vehicle
internal organs striking solid structures of the body

medium-velocity penetrating injuries may be caused by a

handgun and some rifles

in a motor vehicle crash as the passengers head hits the windshield, the brain continues to move forward until it strikes the inside of the skull resulting in a _________________ injury


your quick primary assessment of the patient and evaluation of the ____ ____ _____ can help to direct lifesaving care and provide critical information the hospital staff

mechanism of injury MOI

which of the following is the most common cause of death from a blast injury


significant include to the possibility of sever injuries in motor vehicle crashes include

death of a passenger

damage to the body that resulted from a pressure wave generated by an explosion is found in what type of blast


airbags decrease injury to

chest, face and head

optimally on scene time for critically injured patients should be less than

ten minutes

the most common life threatening event in a rollover is ____________ or partial ejection of the passenger from the vehicle


Newton's third law

for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction

patients suffering complaining of chest tightness, coughing up blood and subcutaneous emphysema following and explosion may be suffering form a

pulmonary blast injury

patients suffering from an open wound to the neck may experience

significant bleeding
air embolism
subcutaneous crepitation

work is defined as

the force acting over distance

injuries to the aorta are relatively common in _____________ _______ from a motor vehicle crash

lateral impacts

penetration or perforation to the chest wall is called an

open chest wound

energy that is available to cause injury doubles when an objects weight doubles but __________________when its speed doubles


The formula for Kinetic Energy is

KE= 1/2 mass x Velocity(2)

airbags provide the final capture point of the passengers and decrease the severity of _______________ injuries


solid organs

liver, spleen, pancreas and kidneys

the _____________ ____________ __________________ uses eye opening, verbal response and motor response to rate a patients level of consciousness

Glaskow Coma Scale

air collection between the lung tissue and the chest wall is commonly referred to as


Newton's First Law

This states that an object at rest tends to stay at rest and an object in motion tends to stay in motion, unless acted on by some force.

three factors to consider when evaluating a fall

-the height of the fall
-the surface struck
-the part of the body that hit first followed by the path of energy displacement

why is it important to determine the type of gun and ammunition used.

the size (mass) and speed (velocity) of the projectile affect the potential danger. if the mass is doubled the potential energy doubles. if the velocity doubles the potential energy quadruples.


a condition in which the musculoskeletal system can fail under relatively low stress because the bones are structurally weakened

low energy penetrations

these injuries are caused by the sharp edges of the object moving through the body and are therefore close to the object's path (knives, ice pick etc.)

high velocity injuries

these are caused by military weapons


pinpoint reddish-purple hemorrhages that show up on the skin, large hematomas may be found. perforation or rupture of the bowel and colon is a risk.