ECG TEST

Which of the following BEST describes universal and standard precautions?

Standard precaution conbine universal and body substance isolation

When might you be required to perform a 'stat' ECG?

When a patient has chest pains or changes in his or her cardiac rhythm

Telemedicine monitoring is generally used to evaluate which of the following?

Artificial pacemaker functioning

Which of the following is NOT a reason for performing an ECG?

reporting the blood pressure results of a stress test incorrectly resulting in a myocardial infarction to the patient

In addition to recording the ECG and preparing the report, an ECG technician must be able to:

Determine if the tracing is accurate and recognize if interference caused abnormalities during the recording process

On the ECG waveform, what is the beginning of the atrial depolarization to the beginning of the ventricular depolarization, or the time it takes the impulse to travel from the SA node to the AV node?

P R Interval

responsible for transporting blood to the lungs.

Pulmonary Veins

What is the state of cellular stimulation in the heart that causes it to contract?

Depolarization

Trace the pathway for the transport of blood during systemic circulation, starting with oxygenated blood from the lungs.

Left atrium, mitral valve, left ventricle, aortic semilunar valve aorta, through the body, superior and inferior vena cava

The horizontal axis represent TIME

1 mm=0.04 seconds 5 mm=0.2 second

The vertical represent VOLTAGE

horizontal measured in millivolts (1/1000 part of volt . But expressed in millimeters , 0.1m V=1mm

VERTICAL AXIS 1 small square

0

VERTICAL AXIS 1 Large square

0

VERTICAL AXIS 2 large square

-1mV

HORIZONTAL AXIS 1 small square

0

HORIZONTAL AXIS 1 large square

0

HORIZONTAL AXIS 5 large square

0

P wave is for the

SA node

after the P wave is

AV node

Q wave is

bundle branches

S wave is

purkinjie

T wave is

Dupp

Between the QS waves is

Lubb

What is the J point and why is it used?

A point on the QRS complex where the depolarization is completed and repolarization starts

Which of the following BEST describes "excitability

The ability of the heart muscle cells to responded to an impulse or stimulus

regarding pulmonary circulation?

Pulmonary circulation is the transportation of blood to and from the lungs, blood is oxygenated in the lungs during pulmonary circulation

coronary circulation?

Circulation of blood to and from the heart muscle

What does the isoelectric line of the ECG tracing indicate

No electrical activity

On the waveform, what does the QRS complex represent?

Ventricular depolarization and the resulting ventricular contraction

Which of the following parts of the conduction system conducts impulses down both sides of the interventricular septum

Bundle branches

Which two types of leads are unipolar (measure electrical activity in one direction only)?

Chest and augmented leads

When calculating heart rates, which method is the only one to use for irregular rhythms?

6 second method

Which of the following is the correct label for the augmented lead that usually produces a negative deflection?

aVR

Which of the following is NOT a function of the ECG machine?

Validation of ECG interpretation

What is the main difference between single- and multi-channel ECG machines?

The multi-channel ECG machine is able to record more than one lead tracing at a time

What is the most common output for a 12-lead ECG?

Printed format

At the normal paper speed, how much time do the five heavy lines on the ECG graph paper represent?

one second

Which of the following is NOT a consideration for handling and storing printed ECG's?

They require no special handling and can be stored for up to 50 years

What is the usual setting for the artifact filter to reduce artifact due to muscle tremor?

40Hz

What part of the ECG machine serves as a receiving device for the input function?

sensors

Augmented leads are unipolar leads. Why are they called augmented leads?

The ECG machine increases the size of the tracing

Which control on the ECG regulates how fast or slow the paper runs during the procedure?

Speed control

What occurs during signal processing inside the ECG machine?

The electrical

How should you modify the ECG procedure for a pregnant patient?

Place the patient slightly on her left side and note the number of months of pregnancy on the ECG report

What is the ICD-9 code?

Diagnostic codes used to ensure reimbursement by the patient's insurance company

three sites assist in electrode placement. They are the angle of Louis, suprasternal notch, and what other site?

Intercostal space

Which of the following MOST accurately describes the placement of the V6 electrode?

On the midaxillary line in line with V4

What is the proper positioning for yourself and the patient during an ECG?

Working from the left side of the bed or exam table with the patient's on his back with the arm and legs supported

Describe the difference between a routine ECG and continuous cardiac monitoring.

Cardiac monitoring users 3 leads with different placements

An ECG is required during a Code Blue. What special considerations should you take?

You should be available but out of the way, Take only the ECG machine into the room, and leave the electrodes in place

Which of the following statements is TRUE or CORRECT regarding the room or machine used for an ECG?

The room should be away from electrical equipment and x-ray machines, electrical equipment should be turned off

You must locate the angle of Louis and the second rib that is adjustment to this landmark when placing the chest electrodes. Then count down to the 4th intercostal space. Which lead do you place on the left sternal border?

V2

The baseline for the ECG you just performed is drifting off center. This is called wandering baseline. Which of the following is NOT a cause for this type of artifact?

Adequate electrode gel

If you were performing an ECG on a patient who had his left lower leg amputated (removed), where should you put the leg electrodes?

Place both left and right electrodes on the upper legs close to the trunk

If all required information is not on the form, what should you do?

Ask the patient or obtain the information from the medical record

The ECG waveform has various components that determine the type of cardiac rhythm. What are these components?

Waves, segments, and intervals

In which condition do the P-P and R-R intervals progressively widen, then narrow, following the patient's breathing pattern?

Sinus Dysrhythmia

What rhythm originating in the sinus node is affected by the breathing pattern of the patient?

Sinus Dysrhythmia

When evaluating the QRS measurement of an ECG tracing, which of the following questions does NOT need to be answered

Does each P wave have a QRS complex following it

What method would you use to determine the heart rate for the ECG tracing

Multiply times 10 the number of P waves or QRS complex in a six second strip

When identifying the P wave configuration, why do you ask the question, "Does each P wave have a QRS complex following it?

if there is less than or more than P wave for every QRS complex, it could indicate that the atria and ventricles are not contracting together

What is the condition in which impulses over the vagus nerve cause a decrease in heart rate?

Vagal tone

On the ECG tracing, the place at which depolarization is complete and repolarization starts is known as the:

J point

What is the normal range for the PR interval, and why is measuring it a necessary step during ECG evaluation?

Range 0.12 - 0.20 second. to determine if the electrical current is being delayed or initiated from a location other than the SA node

What is the most common monitoring lead?

lead ll

What is the major health risk for patients that have atrial fibrillation?

Thrombus formation and embolism

Multifocal atrial tachycardia is usually triggered by an acute attack of emphysema, mitral valve regurgitation, or:

Congestive heart failure

What treatment is usually indicated for patients with atrial flutter?

Oxygen therapy

Atrial dysrhythmias are caused by what kind of impulse in either the right or left atrium?

Ectopic

What rhythm causes the atria to quiver, similar to a bowl of Jell-O?

Atrial fibrillation

Wandering atrial pacemaker (WAP) is a normal finding in children, older adults, and well-conditioned athletes. It may also be related to these conditions

Organic heart disease and drug toxicity

What rhythm is similar to finding a shortcut to school, bypassing the normal traffic route to get to the destination faster?

Atrial flutter

What is unique about multifocal atrial tachycardia?

MAT has clearly changing P wave and heart rate of 101 to 150 bpm

The loss of atrial kick contributes to what percent decrease in cardiac output?

10% to 30%

Atrial dysrhythmias occur from conditions that cause pressure on the atria. Some of these conditions are:

Myocardial infarction, valvcular problems, and neurological influences

Electrical impulses that originate in the atria and initiate an early impulse that interrupts the inherent regular rhythm are called

Premature atrial complexes (PAC's

What is the term that refers to the cardiac cell that functions as an ectopic beat?

Focus

Multifocal atrial tachycardia (MAT) may occasionally be confused with:

Wandering atrial pacemaker

What treatment is usually attempted for patients with atrial fibrillation?

Medication and / or electrical cardioversion

Wandering atrial pacemaker rhythm has at least how many differently shaped P waves?

Three

A PAC is a cardiac complex that occurs too soon and has a positively deflected P wave. What is unique about this dysrhythmia?

It does not posses any normal features

The ejection of blood from the atria into the ventricles immediately prior to ventricular systole is

Atrial kick

Which atrial dysrhythmia has capital "F" waves and a classic sawtooth or picket fence appearance?

Atrial flutter

How would frequent premature atrial complexes (PACs) affect a patient with coronary artery disease?

Low cardiac output

What causes the inverted P wave morphology found with junctional rhythms?

Electrical impulses are coming from the AV node instead of the SA node, causing depolarization of the atria to flow retrograde

What is the heart rate range for accelerated junctional rhythm?

60 to 100 bpm

What symptoms might occur in a patient with junctional escape rhythm?

Hypotension, confusion, and disorientation

Which of the following dysrhythmias is NOT considered part of the supraventricular tachycardia classification?

ventricular tachycardia

What is a single early electrical impulse that originates in the atrioventricular junction, occurring before the next expected sinus impulse and causing an irregularity in the rhythm?

Premature junctional complex(PJC

What is unique about junctional escape rhythm?

The P wave may occur before, during or after The QRS complex

The term "retrograde" means:

move backwards

Which dysrhythmia is NOT associated with supraventricular tachycardia?

Ventricular tachycardia

What is the difference between accelerated junctional rhythm and junctional tachycardia rhythm?

Heart Rate

The criteria needed to classify a dysrhythmia as supraventricular tachycardia is

Heart rate between 150 and 300 bpm

What is unique about premature junctional complexes (PJCs)? (

PJCs have an irregular rhythm, the P wave is wave is inverted and may appear before during or after the QRS complex

The effect of junctional tachycardia on a patient depends on:

The Heart rate of the rhythm

When do junctional escape rhythms occur?

When the SA nodes fails to initiate electrical activity causing one of the backup pacemaker sites to take over

Why is it unlikely that a patient would have symptoms of low cardiac output with accelerated junctional rhythm?

Because the heart rate is the same as normal sinus rhythm

What is the heart rate for junctional escape rhythm? (

40 to 60 bpm

When is junctional tachycardia considered to be serious and life-threatening for a patient?

After a recent myocardial infarction

What symptoms would a patient have if PJCs occur more than four to six times per minute?

Hypotension, irregular pulse

What symptom might a patient complain of when experiencing supraventricular tachycardia?

Palpitation

What is the difference between accelerated junctional rhythm and junctional escape rhythm?

Heart Rate

Which of the following heart block dysrhythmias is identified by a repetitious prolonging PR interval pattern after each blocked QRS complex? (

Heart Rate

Which heart block dysrhythmia is known as the 'classical' heart block?

Second degree heart block, typeII

Which heart block dysrhythmia is also known as 'complete heart block'?

Third degree heart block

What is the cause of a heart block dysrhythmia?

The electrical current has a difficulty traveling down the normal conduction pathway

Electrical separation of the atria and ventricles is often referred to as:

AV dissociation

In which heart block dysrhythmia are ALL electrical impulses originating above the ventricles blocked and prevented from reaching the ventricles?

Third degree heart block

What heart block rhythm is usually due to inflammation around the AV node, and is often a temporary condition that will resolve itself and return to a normal heart rhythm?

Second degree heart block, Mobitz l

Which heart block dysrhythmia has regular P-P and R-R intervals, with both having the same rate?

First degree heart block

When would you use the mnemonic 'Lengthen, Lengthen, drop equals Wenckebach'?

To determine the different between a second degree type l or type ll heart block

Which of the following heart block dysrhythmias is identified by missing QRS complexes and a consistent PR interval measurement?

Second degree heart block, type ll

Which of the following heart block dysrhythmias is identified by regular P-P and R-R intervals that are firing at two distinctly different rates?

Third degree heart block

Which heart block rhythm has a PR interval that measures greater than 0.20 second and measures the same duration each time?

First degree heart block

Which heart block dysrhythmia is highly unstable and considered a critical condition?

Second degree heart block, type ll

Which heart block dysrhythmia can quickly progress to a third degree heart block and a possible Code Blue situation?

Second degree heart block, type l

QRS complexes that measure 0.12 second or greater with a rate between 20 and 40 bpm indicate that the impulses causing ventricular depolarization are coming from the:

Purkinje fibers

What does or does not occur in heart block rhythms? (

The electrical current is delayed or blocked along normal conduction pathways at or above the AV junction

Frequent nonconducted QRS complexes are likely to cause signs of

Low cardiac output

In which heart block dysrhythmia would the patient probably be unconscious and require immediate medical intervention? (

Third degree heart block

P-P intervals are _____ in all heart block dysrhythmias.

Regular

Which ventricular dysrhythmia has a heart rate between 40 and 100 beats per minute?

Accelerated Idioventricular

Which ventricular dysrhythmia has a heart rate less than 20 beats per minute?

Agonal

What symptoms might a patient experience with PVCs?

Dizziness thumping or skipping sensation

Which of the following rhythms is likely to result in a cardiac arrest?

Ventricular fibrillation

Which of the following is a correct statement about premature ventricular complexes (PVCs)?

PVC's may be unifocal or multifocal in origin

PVCs can occur due to bradycardia or hypoxic states. What must be done to determine which is causing a patient's PVCs?

Blood sample must be drawn to evaluate a hypoxic state

How are agonal rhythm and asystole the same?

Both rhythm have an absence of P wave, The patient is unconscious, are life threatening and require basic and advanced life support

Which of the following dysrhythmias is NOT considered to be a medical emergency?

Occasional PVC's

Which ventricular dysrhythmia has a heart rate between 20 and 40 beats per minute? (

Idioventricular

Why does it take longer than normal to depolarize the ventricles during a ventricular dysrhythmia?

Because the current is initiated within the purkinje fibers, and the electrical stimulation occurs from the ventricular cell to cell condition

QRS complexes that measure 0.12 seconds or greater with a rate between 20-40 bpm indicate that the impulses causing ventricular depolarization are coming from the

Purkinje fibers

Ventricular fibrillation is typically described as:

Chaotic

Which of the following indicates that a cell-by-cell stimulation is occurring to depolarize the ventricles and that the dysrhythmia is originating in the ventricles?

A QRTS complex measurement of 0.12 second or greater

What is the difference between ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation?

Ventricular tachycardia has 3 or more PVC's and rate of greater than 100 bpm Ventricular fibrillation

Ventricular rhythms occurring within the range of the Purkinje network are occasionally referred to as ventricular escape rhythms. Ventricular escape rhythms occur because:

The higher pacemaker sites within the heart have failed

If the dysrhythmia is one that originates from above the ventricles and you notice a wide QRS complex, which rhythm could this be?

Bundle branches block

When the QRS complex measures _____, a bundle branch block must be considered.

0.12 second or greater

What occurs when the pacemaker does not send electrical impulses to the myocardium?

Malfunctioning ( failure to pace

How is a right bundle branch block (RBBB) distinguished from a left bundle branch block (LBBB)?

Leads V1 is referenced and if the QRS is positively deflected it is a RBBB, if the QRS is negative it is a LBBB

What is the advantage of atrioventricular pacing?

It mimics the normal cardiac condition system and allows for the atria to contract completely prior to the ventricles to allow for the an atrial kick

Which pacemaker rhythm has a pacing spike before P waves?

Atrial pacemaker rhythm

What portion of the heart do electronic pacemakers mimic?

SA node

When is a ventricular pacemaker used?

When conduction in the ventricles is not working properly

When is an atrial pacemaker used alone?

When the conduction system from AV node through the ventricles is intact and functioning

Which of the following best describes a lack of ventricular spike and normal QRS complex on an ECG tracing of a patient with an AV sequential pacemaker

The patient own conduction system kick in and inhibited the pacemaker

Which pacemaker rhythm has a pacing spike before the QRS complex?

Ventricular pacemaker

What happens when one or both of the ventricular pathways are not functioning properly due to damage or a delay from cardiac disease, drugs, or other conditions?

A bundle branch block occurs

Which of the following is NOT one of the components to be evaluated on a pacemaker tracing?

The QT interval

What term refers to the ability of the heart muscle to respond to electrical stimulation and depolarize the myocardial tissue?

Capture

Which term indicates the stimulation of electrical current from the pacemaker generator?

Pacing spike

Which pacemaker complication shows a pacing spike, but no waveform immediately following it?

Loss of capture

What additional patient information is needed on the ECG tracing when a bundle branch block is discovered?

Blood pressure reading

What is the target heart rate used during exercise electrocardiography?

220 minus the patients age

How do you determine how many pre-test recordings of BP and12-lead ECGs you obtain?

Check with facility policy

During exercise electrocardiography, the patient becomes very diaphoretic (sweaty) and is breathing heavily; his blood pressure is 156/102. What should you do?

Immediately report these symptoms to the licensed practitioner

Which of these patients would have a Persantine�-thallium stress test?

68 year old patient confined to his bed after cardiac surgery

You will instruct the patient when the appointment is made in preparation for an exercise electrocardiography. Which of the following is a correct statement?

Check the order and instruct the patient regarding medication she or she should or should not take prior to the procedure

What is the purpose of an exercise electrocardiography test

To evaluate how the heart and blood vessels respond to physical activity

Why might the physician request the rate pressure product (RPP)?

This estimates oxygen utilization

Prior to initiating an exercise stress test, you will have to take and record a series of blood pressures and 12-lead ECGs. What are the most common patient positions, in order, when these are obtained?

Supine sitting after hyperventilation, and standing

On the consent form for Ms. Kallir's treadmill stress test, a large X is marked on the signature line. Explain why you would or would not continue with the procedure.

Yes complete the test. Ms. kallir is unable to sing her name

Which of the following would NOT alleviate the patient's fears during exercise electrocardiography?

Explaining the location of the crash cart

What would you tell a patient who asked you how long a thallium stress test would last?

4 to 5 hours

During exercise electrocardiography, which of the following occurs in approximately 5% of healthy adults, and is it more common in men or women?

false positive results women

What is the rate pressure product (RPP)?

Systolic BP times heart rate

Which of the following conditions would prevent a patient from participating in exercise electrocardiography?

Severe anemia

If the treadmill stress test is inconclusive, what does this mean and what should be done?

Results are questionable and more test will be do

Which statement is correct regarding the patient who achieves target heart rate (THR)?

The results are more reliable when the patient nears or achieves the THR

How do you abrade the skin in preparation for electrode placement?

Rub firmly and briskly at each electrode site with a skin rasp

Which of the following is NOT a reason for ambulatory monitoring?

Evaluate for heart disease during a routine physical examination

What is the purpose of ambulatory monitoring?

Document electrical activity of the heart during normal activity

What is the advantage of continuous monitoring over intermittent monitoring?

continuous monitoring provides a complete tracing and records before, during, and after the patient activates the event marker

During ambulatory monitoring, what is a scanner used for?

To analyze results and provide a printout for interpretation

Which patient will be asked to keep a diary?

Mr. Fisher, whose is physician ordered holter monitoring for him this morning

When asked by a patient or the parent of a patient whether ambulatory monitoring is painful, what would be your BEST response

The monitoring is not painful, however there may be some discomfort while the electrodes are in place

Why would a patient use an "event marker" during ambulatory monitoring?

To mark ECG tracing when symptoms occurs

Which of the following does NOT need to be avoided during ambulatory monitoring?

Microwave oven

Which of the following is a true or correct statement regarding patient education for ambulatory monitoring?

Wear a loose fitting shirt, preferably one that buttons down, the front and you will be more comfortable during the procedure

What is the purpose of ambulatory monitoring?

Document electrical activity of the heart during normal activity

Transtelephonic monitors are mainly used to monitor patients with what device?

Permanent pacemaker

Who is responsible for interpreting the ambulatory monitoring results

Cardiologist

Which of the following dysrhythmias would not be evaluated using a post-system event monitor

Ventricular fibrillation

How are lead wires coded to ensure proper placement for ambulatory monitoring

Colors

What is the last thing you do before having the patient put on his or her shirt during ambulatory

Run a baseline ECG tracing

Which of the following are angina symptoms?

Shortness of breath, sweating, bad indigestion jaw pain, cough arm pain,sense of impending doom, anxiety,dizziness, nausea, pressure in chest

What percentage of patients having a myocardial infarction present with ST segment elevation?

75 % - 80%

Which of the following are common cardiac symptoms in women? (

Shortness of breath, weakness unusual fatigue

The right coronary artery has two branches. The posterior descending artery supplies blood to which part of the heart?

The wall of both ventricles

Besides women, what other patient groups present atypically?

Diabetics and elderly patient

The chest pain a patient experiences when the heart muscle is not receiving enough oxygen due to a partial or complete blockage of a coronary artery is referred to as:

Angina

The coronary arteries have three layers. The outermost layer is called:

Tunica adventitia

Why does sudden death occur more often with NSTEMI patient?

Classic sings and symptoms of a heart attack are not present,12 leads ECG does not display the classic morphologic change,since the patient are asymptomatic they do not receive medical care

What three symptoms are indicative of right-sided heart failure and are considered ominous when they present together?

Jugular vein distention, hypotension normal breath sounds

What percentage of women having a heart attack have never experienced chest pain?

40 %

A lack of blood supply to an area of heart tissue due to a blockage in circulation in that area is known as:

Ischemia

The left coronary artery has two branches. The left descending artery supplies blood to which part of the heart?

Both Ventricles

What is the function of the tunica adventitia, the outermost layer of a coronary artery?

to keep the vessel open

Which procedure allows visualization of the coronary arteries and placement of a stent?

Cardiac catheterization

Other than a cardiac condition, a patient may have chest pain due to

Inflammation of the lungs, Gastric or esophageal irritation, Gallbladder problems

Which layer of the coronary artery comes in direct contact with the blood and is prone to disruption when atherosclerotic plaque is ruptured and peels away?

Tunica intima

The right coronary artery has two branches. The marginal artery supplies blood to which part of the heart

The walls of the right atrium and the right ventricle

Unstable angina is a warning sign that the cardiac disease has advanced or worsened. Which of the following are signs of unstable angina?

Change i severity and frequency, change in cause and duration, change in responsiveness to treatment or medication

he coronary arteries have three layers. The innermost layer is called:

Tunica intima

STEMI refers to the classic MI, which occurs as a result of a complete occlusion of a coronary artery. What changes occur in the ECG tracing?

ST segment depression or elevation, Twave inversion , Development of a pathologic Q wave

Why are the mnemonics O-P-Q-R-S-T and S-A-M-P-L-E important in the care and management of a patient with chest pain

They create a logical flow for the patient questioning and information gathering for prompt medical care

The left coronary artery has two branches. The circumflex artery supplies blood to which part of the heart?

The left atrium and left ventricles

What is the function of the tunica media, the middle layer of a coronary artery?

To dilate and constrict to maintain normal blood pressure and homeostasis

Pathologic Q waves seen in _____ anatomically contiguous leads indicate that some of the tissue in that part of heart is dead.

Two or more

Displacement of the heart is often seen in conditions such as:

Pregnancy birth defects, left ventricular hypertrophy

Identify the heart block on this ECG tracing:

Left bundle branch block

In which group of patients is right axis deviation considered normal?

Children and thin adults

Each lead of a standard 12-lead ECG looks at different portions of the heart. What portion of the heart is viewed with leads V3 and V4?

Anterior wall of the left ventricle

When totaled, how many millimeters are the minimum necessary to clinically suspect hypertrophy?

35

Each lead of a standard 12-lead ECG looks at different portions of the heart. What portion of the heart is viewed with leads II, III, and AVF?

Inferior wall of the left ventricle

Each lead of a standard 12-lead ECG looks at different arteries of the heart. Which artery and branch are viewed with leads II, III, and aVF?

Right coronary and marginal branch

What occurs when there is a reduction or interruption in blood flow and oxygen to the myocardium for a short time?

myocardial ischemia

ST segment elevation of 1 mm or more that is seen in two or more anatomically contiguous leads is indicative of:

Myocardial ischemia

In left axis deviation, in which direction does the QRS complex point?

lead l positive aVF negative

Which of the following most accurately describes the difference between LBBB and RBBB?

The QRS complex is negative for LBBB and positive for RBBB

What two leads should you use to determine the presence of axis deviation?

Leads l and aVF

Which leads should you use when analyzing a 12-lead ECG for the presence of left ventricular hypertrophy?

V1, V2, V5, and V6

Each lead of a standard 12-lead ECG looks at different arteries of the heart. Which artery and branch is viewed with leads V3 and V4?

Left coronary and left anterior descending

If the axis is normal, in which direction does the QRS complex point?

lead l negative aVF positive

Each lead of a standard 12-lead ECG looks at different arteries of the heart. Which artery and branch are viewed with leads V1 and V2

Left coronary and septal branch

Each lead of a standard 12-lead ECG looks at different portions of the heart. What portion of the heart is viewed with I, aVL, V5, and V6?

Lateral wall of the left ventricle

Each lead of a standard 12-lead ECG looks at different portions of the heart. What portion of the heart is viewed with leads V1 and V2?

Septal wall

Each lead of a standard 12-lead ECG looks at different arteries of the heart. Which artery and branch is viewed with leads I, aVL, V5, and V6?

left coronary and left circumflex

RBBB

Right bundle branch block ,

LBBB

Left bundle branch block

On the ECG tracing, the place at which depolarization is complete and redpolarization start is known ass the

J point

What is the most common monitoring lead

Lead II

Different between a route ECG and Continuous Cardiac monitoring

Cardiac monitoring use 3 leads with different placements

12 leads

routine EKG will consist of

3 Leads

What is Einthoven's triangle?
When doing an exercise Stress Test, what is the minimum number of leads that you have to monitor?

Telemetry monitoring

Loop monitor

5 Leads

HOLTER MONITOR, STRESS TEST

mount a completed EKG for a patient's chart

Know your office policy, ensure the pt identifiers have been entered onto the EKG, some facilities require attaching stickers with bar codes to identify the pt and any test results.

anatomical landmarks for chest lead placement EKG

between the 5th and 6th midclivicular, mid point of left clavicle

Rate pressure product (RPP or Double product

multiply the systolic blood pressure by patient,s heart rate. This technique used to estimate oxygen utilization or myocardial work

Ectopicim Pulse

An electrical impulse that comes from outside of the normal pacemaker site or electrical conduction pathway

P wave (Upward small curve

Atrial depolarization with resulting atrial contraction

QRS complex (Q, R and S Waves

Ventricular depolarizastion and resulting ventricular contracting ( larger than the P wave, atrial repolarization occurs not seen

T Wave, Small upward - sloping curve

Ventricular repolarization

U Wave, Small upward curve

Repolarization of the bundle of his and Purkinje fiber ( not always seen, may be seen in instances of electrolyte imbalance

Lead I

0

Lead II

0

Waveform

refers to movement away from the isoelectric with either upward (positive deflection or downward ( negative deflection

Segment

Line between two waveforms

Interval

waveform plus a segment

Complex

several waveforms

Lead III

0

PR Interval, P wave and baseline prior to QRS complex

Beginning of atrial depolarization to the beginning of ventricular depolarization

QT interval, QRS complex, ST segment and T wave

Period of time from the start of ventricular depolarization to the end of ventricular repolarization

ST segment, End of QRS complex to the beginning of T wave

Time between ventricular depolarization and the beginning of ventricular repolarization

1st Degree heart AV block

PR interval is contant and measures greater than waves are half- inch before complex, other second 0.20 seconds P- waves are half - inch before complex,otherwise looks fairly normal

2nd degree heart AV block I&II

1. lengthens, lengthens gone line after p - wave
2. t - waves are upside down inverted

3rd degree heart block

P-P and R-R intervals are regular constant but firing at different rates, (Three mountains in the middle, P wave is closer and than it is far away

Agonal rhythm

Has a absence of P waves, A ventricular rate of less than 20 bpm all three pacmakers have died heart is dead

Atrial Fibrillation

Has CHAOTIC atrial electrical activity no P waves F waves instead with irregular R -
R intervals, Scribbles need a defibrillator, tantrum

Atrial flutter

saw tooth or a picket fence pattern, atrial pattern no P waves F waves instead that may be in a ratio 250 - 350 bpm person would be out of it

Junctional escape rhythm

Inverted or a absent P wave. The P - wave may occur before, during or after the QRS complex 40 - 60 bpm

Mat multifocal atrial tachycardia

supposed to look like mountains climbers

Premature Atrial Complex

Extra beat closer than the rest, shorten length Pac is a complex that occurs sooner than it should with a positively deflected P wave

Sinus arrest

Has regularly occurring, PQRST's both before and after the arrest period. No electrical activity during the arrest period, after 6 sec is considern life threating

Sinus Bradycardia

Wide bizarre complexes, slow heart rate less than 60 bpm, looks like 1st degree heart block can cause escape beat can be fix with medation or pacemaker

Sinus dysrhythmia

P-P and R-R intervals will progressively widen then narrow following the patients breathing pattern,change in breathing patterns different lengths, cause by breathing

Supraventricular Tachycardia

Remember for heart rates approaching 150 and higher, it will be very likely that the P wave will be buried. Be prepared to increase the paper speed for this rhythm

Ventricular fibrillation

Soldiers out of step, all scribbles, needs a defib, There are no P waves< QRS complex or T waves. The tracing has a CHAOTIC or disorganized appearance

Ventricular Tachycardia

Has wide and bizarre QRS complexes with classic saw tooth appearance, a rate in excess of 100 bpm with no P Looks like big mountains

Wandering Atrial pacemaker

WAP,has at least three different shaped P waves. The rhythm may be regular or irregular. Rate is typically between 60-100 bpm. Spike in the atrium, going going gone

Regular Rhythm

60-100 beats per minute

Torsades de pointe

What is the name of the smallest part of the lungs responsible gas exchange

Alveoli

Which of the following events is present during ventricular relaxation

Repolarization

AVR,aVL and aVF are know as the standard leads

Augmented Leads

An electrocardiogram is a recording of the

Electrical activity of the heart

Electodes are also referred to as

Sensors

The QRS complex associated with a complete(third degree Av block is always wide

False

Second degree AV block are example of incomplete AV blocks

True

During a first degree AV block, the PR intervals are completely variable because the atria and ventricles beat independently each other

False

Second degree AV block type I is likely to progress rapidly to a complete ( third degree AV block without warning

False

The lead from center of the heart to the positive left leg

AVF

The lead from right arm to the left leg

II

The lead from the left arm to the left leg

III

Murmur is an abnormal sound that may indicate

Structural heart disease

Proper electrode placement for Holter monitoring is

Anterior trunk of body

First degree AV block

PR constant, PR prolonged

Second degree AV block Mobitz

PR varies, PR progress

Third degree AV block

PR varies P waves have no constant relationship to QRS

A 60 year old male patient has history of on and off chest pain. His resting ECG is normal, is it decided to put him thru exercise stress test. Which of the following will be the target heart rate for this patient

160 beats per mintue

This part of the conduction system of the heart is located at the superior portion of the interventricular septum and has the ability to function as a pacemaker with an intrinsic firing rate 40-60 beats per mintue

AV node

Which of the following is an indication for stress testing

Evaluation of chest pain in patient with normal baseline EKG

What is the name of the smallest part of the lungs responsible for gas exchange

Villi

Which of the following is considered a negative Holter

Evaluation of chest pain a patient with normal baseline EKG

This is an arrhythmia produced by an electrical impulse originating from a site other than the sinus node

Ectopic rhythms

The vertical axis of the EKG paper measures

Voltage/Ampitude

In a properly standardized EKG machine, 1m V should produce a deflection of

10.mm

What is the significance of a PR interval measuring less than 0.12 or more than 0.20 second

The impulse followed an abnirmal pathway or was delayed in the ares of the AV node

The EKG does not provide information about

The mechanical ( contractile condition of the myocardium

What does the QRS complex represent

Ventricular depolarization

The left atrium is responsible for

Receiving oxygenated blood from pulmonary veins

How does the stylus mark the ECG paper

Heat

The normal running speed of the paper is

25mm/sec

Which of the following lists of the blood flow through the heart is arrange in the correct sequence

Superior vena cava, Right atria Right ventricle, Lungs, Left atria, left ventricle Aorta

What is the ratio of breaths to compression during performing CPR

2 to 30

Which of the following is the concept of HIPAA

Privacy

Sensors for lead II are

Right arm-left leg

The sensitivity switch controls the

Amplification

Rapid flutter waves that look like saw tooth appearance on the EKG tracing are called Atrial Flutter

True

Artifacts are not recorded on the EKG

Result when there are additional voltages on the patient

Grounding the electrocardiograph is necessary to reduce

AC artfact

In using a holter monitor, how many hours minimum does the patient wear the for

24 hours

The medical term for a blocked blood vessel by a thrombus is

Occluded

A symmetrical inverted T wave is characteristic of

Ischemia

Ischemia means

Decreased blood flow to an area

When analyzing a strip you should determine rhythm by looking at it

The P-R interval

Patient's EKG shows a regular heart rate of 58 bpm, but the rhythm is progressively getting longer over 3 cardiac cycles (PQRST complexes and then it then it repeat itself. The rhythm is referred to as

abnormal and irregular

If a patient's heart rate was 56 and the EKG did not show any P wave, where would the heart beat originate from

AV node

He body is erect with eyes forward, feet together, arms at the side, and palms forward in the

Anatomical position

Delay at the AV node

PR segment

Atrial depolarization

P wave

Ventricular depolarization

QRS complex

Ventricular repolarization

T wave

pause between ventricular depolarization and repolarization

ST segment

Several wave form

Complex

Baseline between the waves

Segment

Movement away from baseline

Wave form

A wave and segment

Interval

One large square is equal to what amount of time ( and distance on ECG

0.2 sec/5mm

What leads are considered inferior leads

II, III, aVF

In which leads would you see a positive Pwave

I, II, AVL, AVF, V4-V6

If there is a blockage between the AV node and the AV bundle, how will this affect the appearance of the ECG

There would be more P waves than QRS complexes

What electrical event of the heart is not recored on the standard 12 leads ECG trace

Atrial repolarization

In which leads would you see a positive P wave

I, II, ABL, AVF, V4-V6

In which leads would you see a BIPHASIC P wave

V1

Regarding the QRS complex, in which leads would you see a TALL R wave

V5,V6

Regarding the QRS complex, in which leads would you see a biphasic complex, reflection a transition zone

V3, V4

In what leads do you see an R wave progression

V1 to V6

What segment if elevated or depressed, reveals a sign of serious pathway

ST

Which of the following best represents the normal height of the T wave

1/3-2/3 height of corresponding R wave

What portion of the ECG represent the duration of ventricular systole

QT interval

What does the sympathetic system do to the heart and what receptors are associated with it

Constrict arteries( alpa 1 adrenergic receptors

What does the Parasympathetic system do to the heart and what recpetors are associated with it

Dilation of arteries (cholinergic receptors

Vasovagal syncope is a reflex of _____ response ( dilated systemic arteries causing hypertension ans slow SA node

Parasympathetic

Neurocardiogenic syncope paradoxical____ response to prolonged ____causing ___ and slowing of the pulse, resulting in loss of consciousness, (Tilt test that is positive confirm dx

Parasympathetic, standing vasodilation

What is the best match for the following definition a barely detectable rate change in sinus pacing related to inspiration and expiration

Sinus arrythmia

Upon inspiration your HR ___and upon expiration your HR

Increases, decreases

What disease shows a HR>100bpm and P waves of various shape

Multifocal Atrial Tachycardia

What is a another name for an automaticity focus that transientky escapes overdrive suppression to emit one beat (atrial, juctional otr ventricular

Escape beat

What would cause a interval P immediately before premature QRS

Premature junctional bear causing retograde atrial depolarization

If a PVC falls on a ___wave it could lead to serious arrhythmias.This is know as ___on ___phenomenon

T,R,T

The rate of Paroxysmal Tachycardia is typically

150-250 bpm

What is R A D

Right axis deviation

What is L A D

Left axis deviation or left anterior descending

What is the beat lead for determining RAD

LeadI

If you see a patient with a positive QRS in Lead I and negative QRS in Lead aVf what sort of axis do they have

L A D

What plane does axis rotation take place in

Horizontal

This ECG finding is pathognomic for which of the diseases below S1 Q3 T(interval 3

Pulmonary Embolism

You wouls typically see peaked, tent like T wave in what

Hyperkalemia

____is seen in ,subendocardial infarct and digitalis toxcity

ST segment depression

What would you most likely see in Left Ventricular Hypertrophy Right axis deviation

Deep S wave in V1 and large R wave in V5

Pulmonary Circulation

The transportation of blood to and from the lungs, blood is oxygenated in the lungs during pulmonary circulation

Systemic Circulation

The pathways for pumping blood throughout the body and back to the heart

Coronary Circulation

The circulation of blood to and from the heart muscle

aVL

Augmented Left Arm Lead. Lead aVL records electrical activity from the midpoint between the right arm and left leg to the left arm.

aVF

Augmented Foot Lead. Lead aVF records electrical activity form the midpoint between the right arm and left arm to the left leg.
Correct lead center of the heart to the positive pole of the left leg?

aVR

Augmented Right Arm Lead. Lead aVR records electrical activity from midway between the left arm and left leg to the right arm. Lead aVR is usually a negative deflection.
Portion of heart examined: the right side of the heart in a vertical plane

The ECG wace form is indicative of

Electrical pulse through the heart

If a current moves away from the positive electrode on a ECG the ECG wave form will have a ___ deflection

upward

Target Heart rate

200 minus age

normal stroke volume

60-100 ml/beat is a normal

Stroke volume depends on

volume of blood returning to the heart,force of the myocardium contraction, vascular resistance ( after load