Which Amendment prohibits unreasonable searches and seizures
A)The Fourth Amendment
What is the importance of the Fourteenth Amendment
A)It extends constitutional protections to state-level criminal justice.
Which of the following is not one of the three areas of due process requirements that are of relevance to the police
C)Double jeopardy
Landmark cases create changes in
C)civil law.
According to ________, evidence illegally seized by the police cannot be used in a trial.
A)the exclusionary rule
According to ________, any evidence that derives from an illegal search and seizure may be declared tainted and excluded from the trial.
B) good faith exception
Which Supreme Court ruling applied the exclusionary rule to the states
D) Mapp v. Ohio
According to the Supreme Court, in a search incident to arrest, where are the police permitted to search if they do not have a search warrant
B) The police may only search the area in the arrestee's immediate control.
In which of the following situations would the police not be legally permitted to conduct a warrantless search or seize evidence without a warrant
D) When authorized by the chief of police
A search warrant can only be issued if there is
C) probable cause.
Which of the following is not required for the police to seize contraband under the plain view doctrine
D) The officer must have obtained the property owner's verbal or written permission to search and to seize the contraband.
According to the Supreme Court, the police may conduct a "stop and frisk" without a warrant based on
B) reasonable suspicion.
When are the police allowed to conduct a search of someone who is not suspected of a crime
D) If there is an overriding concern for public safety
In the case of Illinois v. Gates, the Supreme Court established which test for evaluating whether information provided by an informant may be the basis for issuing a warrant
A) Totality of the circumstances test
________ involves tactics used by police interviewers that fall short of physical abuse but still pressure suspects to divulge information.
B) Inherent coercion
In Escobedo v. Illinois, the Supreme Court formally recognized a suspect's right to have an attorney present
C) during interrogation.
The "Christian burial speech" led to the creation of which exception to the Miranda requirements
A) Inevitable discovery
19-year-old Dzhokhar Tsarnaev, the surviving Boston Marathon bomber, was initially questioned by law enforcement officers before he was read his Miranda rights under which exception to Miranda
B) Public safety
When do the police have to read the Miranda warnings to a suspect
B) Before questioning an arrested suspect
Which federal law greatly expanded the ability of the police to intercept many forms of electronic communications
C) The USA PATRIOT Act of 2001
Evidence of relevance to a criminal investigation that is not readily seen by the unaided eye is known as ________ evidence.
B) latent
Which of the following is not a special characteristic of electronic evidence
C)It is non-latent.
A police subculture includes
B) shared values, beliefs, and forms of behavior.
Which is not a characteristic of the police working personality
D) Cheerful
The two key elements in the definition of police corruption are
D) misuse of authority and personal gain.
Which of the following activities fits the definition of police corruption
C) A police officer accepts a fee to ignore a violation of the law
The 1970s ________ Commission focused on combatting corruption in New York City.
C) Knapp
Which of the following is the most serious type of corruption
B) Denial of civil rights
Which of the following does the FBI consider an important strategy used to combat police corruption
A) Increased ethics training of both new and experienced officers
In most big-city police departments, which branch is tasked with investigating charges of wrongdoing involving members of the department
A) Internal Affairs Division
The courts have supported drug testing of police officers based on ________ that drug abuse is occurring
D) reasonable suspicion
The increasing formalization of police work and the accompanying rise in public acceptance of the police is known as
B) police professionalism.
The special responsibility to adhere to moral duty and obligation that is inherent in police work is called
A) police ethics.
Effective policing appears to depend more on a candidate's
C) innate personal qualities.
In general, the most common way for a police officer to die in the line of duty is as the result of
C) gunfire.
Programs such as the Collier County Spousal Academy are designed to help families of police officers cope with issues relating to
D) police officer stress.
________ refers to the application of more force than is required to compel compliance from a suspect.
B) Excessive force
In which 1989 case did the U.S. Supreme Court establish the standard of "objective reasonableness" in determining the appropriate use of deadly force by a police officer
A) Graham v. Connor
Prior to the Supreme Court ruling in Tennessee v. Garner, the use of deadly force by the police was governed by the ________ rule.
A) fleeing felon
The current standard for the use of deadly force by federal agents is
D) imminent danger.
A ________ weapon is designed to disable, capture, or immobilize, but not kill, a suspect.
A) non-deadly force
The ability of police officers to make choices such as whether or not to investigate is known as
B) discretion.
Which of the following is not a discretional decision that might be made by a patrol officer
A) The decision to stop and frisk a suspect
In 2003, the U.S. Department of Justice banned its practice of racial profiling in all federal law enforcement agencies, except in cases involving
C) terrorist suspects.
Which of the following situations could lead to a civil suit for police negligence
C) A police officer conducts a search without probable cause.
Law enforcement supervisors are
B) civilly responsible for the actions of their officers.
A federal civil suit alleging police misconduct that is filed against a local police officer is commonly known as a
B) Section 1983 lawsuit.
A federal civil suit alleging police misconduct that is filed against a federal law enforcement officer is commonly known as a
A) Title 42 lawsuit.
________ shields law enforcement officers from constitutional lawsuits if reasonable officers would believe their actions were lawful in light of clearly established law and the available information possessed by the officers.
A) Qualified immunity
The dual court system of the United States consists of which two types of courts
B) Federal and state courts
Courts that have the authority to review a decision made by a lower court are said to have ________ jurisdiction.
D) appellate
Which of the following is not part of the three-tiered court structure developed by states following the federal model
C) Trial de novo courts
The TV court show Judge Judy is an example of which type of court
B) Trial courts of limited jurisdiction
The term "trial de novo" refers to
B) cases that are re-tried on appeal.
A ________ is an informal hearing place used to hear victims' claims of minor wrongs such as petty theft or trespassing.
D) dispute resolution center
A ________ is a low-level court that focuses on quality-of-life crimes eroding neighborhood morale and is an official component of the formal criminal justice system.
B) community court
The federal court system was created by
A) Article III, Section 1 of the U.S. Constitution.
Which of the following is not one of the three levels of the federal judiciary
C) U.S. specialized courts
The U.S. District Courts are the
A) trial courts for the federal system.
How are federal judges selected
C) They are appointed by the President with the consent of the Senate.
One category of appeals heard by federal appellate courts are ________ appeals, which involve major questions of law and policy where there is considerable professional disagreement among the courts.
A) nonconsensual
What does the power of judicial review allow the Supreme Court to do
C) Review lower-court decisions and state and federal statutes
Which of the following is not a member of the courtroom work group
B) Jury
What is the Missouri Plan
A) A method of judicial selection based on merit
The decision as to whether or not to charge a suspect with an offense is an example of ________ discretion.
B) prosecutorial
________ is information having a tendency to clear a person of guilt or blame.
A) Exculpatory evidence
The federal Professional Misconduct Review Unit is responsible for disciplining federal ________ who engage in various types of misconduct.
C) prosecutors
The duties of the defense counsel include all of the following except
A) serving as a quasi-legal advisor to the police.
A defendant who is not indigent and who can afford private attorney fees will have which type of defense attorney
B) Retained counsel
Which of the following is not a responsibility of the bailiff
A) Creating a record of everything occurring during a trial
The role of the ________ is to create a record of all that occurs during a trial.
C) court reporter
An eyewitness who saw a crime being committed is an example of a(n) ________ witness
C) lay
A subpoena
D) is a written order requiring an individual to appear in court.
Which of the following individuals would probably not be required to serve on a jury
B) A physician
Who has been considered a "forgotten" person in the courtroom
A) The victim
What is the earliest stage of the court process at which the formal notice of charges is made
D) First appearance
Which of the following does not always occur at a first appearance
C) Defendants are given the opportunity for bail.
When is a probable cause hearing necessary
B) When the arrest was made without a warrant
Which of the following is not a type of risk that judicial officers consider when making pretrial release decisions
A) The risk to the defendant of remaining in jail until trial
Which of the following is a purpose of bail
D) To prevent unconvicted suspects from suffering imprisonment unnecessarily
Release on recognizance
D) permits release on the basis of a written promise to appear.
Which of the following statements regarding a deposit bail program is false
C) If the defendant appears in court as required, the full amount posted is returned.
Which of the following alternatives to bail does not place any money or other items at risk if the defendant fails to appear in court
A) Third-party custody release
An indictment is filed by the
A) grand jury.
If a grand jury is not used, the prosecutor files a(n) ________ against the accused.
A) charging document
Which of the following types of pleas is most similar to a guilty plea
A) Nolo contendere
Which of the following is not an advantage of plea bargaining for the accused
C) It results in a sentence more suitably addressing the accused's correctional needs.
Overall, approximately what percent of state criminal cases are resolved through plea bargaining
D) Almost 95 percent
The primary purpose of the criminal trial is to
A) determine the guilt or innocence of a defendant.
________ is established only when the prosecutor presents sufficient evidence to convince the judge or jury that the defendant is guilty as charged.
B) Legal guilt
American criminal trial courts operate under a structure known as
B) the adversarial system.
The right to a speedy trial is guaranteed by the ________ Amendment to the U.S. Constitution.
C) Sixth
Which of the following is not a type of juror challenge
A) Challenges for knowledge
During jury selection, challenges for cause
D) claim that an individual juror cannot be fair or impartial.
Removing the jurors from all possible outside influences is known as ________ the jury
A) sequestering
Fingerprints and tire tracks examples of ________ evidence.
B) real
If the prosecutor calls a witness to the stand, who conducts the redirect examination
B) The defense attorney
An oral or written request asking the court to make a specified finding, decision, or order is also known as
A) a motion.
The standard of proof required for conviction in a criminal trial is
C) beyond a reasonable doubt.
What is a hung jury
D) A jury that is unable to agree on a verdict
Court ________ would reduce the number of jurisdictions
B) unification
The just deserts model of sentencing emphasizes
B) retribution.
Which goal of sentencing focuses on separating offenders from society to reduce opportunities for further criminality
A) Incapacitation
Which of the following is not one of the main goals of contemporary sentencing
Restitution
General deterrence attempts to
discourage potential offenders from committing crimes.
________ is a type of sentencing plan that allows no leeway in the imposition of a sentence for a person convicted of a crime
Mandatory sentencing
Which of the following is a characteristic of restorative justice
Crime is seen as an act against the state and a violation of the law.
Which sentencing model tends to involve the greatest amount of judicial discretion
Indeterminate sentencing
Critics of the indeterminate model of sentencing emphasize all but which key sentencing principle
Just deserts
Proportionality means that
there should be a direct relationship between the severity of the sanction and the seriousness of the crime.
Which of the following is a mitigating circumstance
The offender acted under strong provocation.
Federal sentencing guidelines
provide a range of punishments for a specific crime.
What appears to be the most dramatic result of the recent emphasis on the use of mandatory sentencing and other get-tough policies
The use of incarceration as a sentencing option has increased significantly
What is the main priority of justice reinvestment
Prioritizing the use of alternatives to incarceration for nonviolent offenders
If a judge requests information on a convicted defendant's background, the probation or parole office will conduct a
presentence investigation.
What is the main limitation of the Crime Victims' Rights Act
It does not give victims the legal authority necessary to assert their rights in court.
Research into victim-impact statements has found that
sentencing decisions are rarely affected by them.
Which one of the following is not a traditional sentencing option
Parole
Which of the following is not an advantage of fines as a serious sentencing alternative
Fines can reduce the stress placed on state resources by the use of incarceration.
The day-fine system solves which objection to the use of fines
Fines are unfair because more affluent offenders can buy their way out of prison while indigent offenders are unable to pay fines.
Which country executes more people than the rest of the world combined
China
What effect did the USA PATRIOT Act have on the death penalty in the U.S.
The list of federal crimes punishable by death was expanded significantly.
Which of the following requires that a prison be brought before a judicial officer to determine if he or she is being lawfully imprisoned
Writ of habeas corpus
Which one of the following arguments regarding the death penalty is not an abolitionist rationale
Just deserts
The protectionist argument justifying capital punishment is fairly weak because the underlying social interest can also be met by which other sentencing option
Incarceration
The Supreme Court's decision in the case of Furman v. Georgia was a statement against
giving a jury the authority to impose a capital sentence.
In which case did the Supreme Court approve the separation of the determination of guilt from the determination of the sentence
Gregg v. Georgia
Based on the Supreme Court's ruling in Woodson v. North Carolina, when is a mandatory death sentence for first degree murder constitutional
Never � mandatory application of the death penalty is unconstitutional
General conditions of probation
C) apply to all probationers in a given jurisdiction.
What is the most common form of criminal sentencing in the US today
Probation
Which of the following is most likely to be a special condition of probation, rather than a general condition
C) The probationer must surrender his or her driver's license.
Which of the following statements about parole is false
B) Parole is a sentencing option available to a judge.
Parole boards make decisions regarding
discretionary parole.
Which of the following is not an advantage of probation and parole over imprisonment
Relative lack of punishment
________ hearings determine whether parolees have violated the conditions of their parole
B) Revocation
Which of the following is not one of the most frequent violations for which parole or probation revocation occurs
C) Commission of a serious crime while on parole or probation
Why was the case of Griffin v. Wisconsin so significant
D) Because it considers probation to be similar to incarceration and holds that the exclusionary rule does not apply
According to the Supreme Court in the case of Morrissey v. Brewer, procedural safeguards are required at
parole revocation hearings.
Which of the following is not a function of a probation or parole officer's work
Conduct investigations to assist prosecutors
Which of the following is a characteristic of the social work model of probation and parole
B) There is an emphasis on community protection.
Which of the following sentences is not an of an intermediate sanction
C) Simple probation
Which of the following is not an advantage of using intermediate sanctions
They are more directly related to the offense committed.
Which intermediate sanction resembles a military-style boot camp
Shock incarceration
What form of probation requires frequent face-to-face contacts between the probation officer and the probationer
B) Intensive probation supervision
Which form of house arrest using remote location monitoring is the most restrictive
C) Home incarceration
According to critics of parole, why are there so many parole violations
C) Prisoners are not properly reintegrated into society.
What does research suggest about SVORI programs
Participation in SVORI programs is associated with longer times to arrest.
What was the main purpose of the 2008 Second Chance Act
C) To reduce the number of parolees being returned to prison for technical violations
What is the primary purpose of probation
D) Rehabilitation
Lex talionis is also known as the law of
A) retaliation.
The stocks and the pillory are examples of what early form of punishment
C) Public humiliation
The first mass prison system, in which inmates lived, ate, and worked together in enforced silence, was known as the ________ system.
B) Pennsylvania
The ________ model of corrections emphasized indeterminate sentencing and rehabilitation.
B) reformatory
The modern practice of parole has its origins in the work of which reformer
C) Captain Alexander Maconochie
What made Maconochie's system of marks unique and innovative in corrections at that time
D) It put the responsibility for earning early release on the inmate.
Which system of inmate labor turned control of inmates over to non-correctional personnel
D) The lease system
What impact did the Ashurst-Sumners Act have on prisons
A) It placed a moratorium on free-market prison industries.
Which era of corrections was characterized by a lack of innovation and a focus on custody and institutional security
D) The punitive era
Why did some inmates oppose the treatment model
C) They were opposed to rehabilitation efforts.
Work release is representative of which era in the development of U.S. prisons
D) The community-based era
Which of the following is a policy for dealing with serious offenders that focuses on protecting society and does not attempt rehabilitation
A) Warehousing
Robert Martinson's "nothing-works" doctrine was an attack on
B) treatment.
The emphasis on individual responsibility was a key characteristic of the ________ model
C) justice
Which of the following prison programs is most characteristic of the just-deserts era of corrections
D) Chain gangs
A typical state prison today
A) is a massive high security facility housing thousands of inmates.
A journalist who is writing an article on prison overcrowding in the U.S. and wants to use the estimate that yields the highest level of overcrowding would probably choose which definition of prison capacity
A) Rated capacity
________ seeks to identify the most dangerous criminals and incarcerate them to protect society.
D) Selective incapacitation
What is the purpose of an external or initial classification system in corrections
D) To determine whether an inmate should be placed in a state or federal prison
In California, prisoners were racially segregated each time they entered a new correction facility, as a way of preventing gang-related violence. This unwritten policy was reviewed by the U.S. Supreme Court in 2005, in the case of Johnson v. California. W
D) The policy was unconstitutional because it did not serve a compelling state interest and was not relevant to the prison's legitimate security needs.
What is a federal ADMAX prison
D) An ultra-high-security prison
Which of the following is a characteristic of a medium security federal correctional institution
A) Provides inmate labor to off-site work programs
What was the original purpose of a jail
D) To hold suspects following arrest and pending trial
According to the text, the fastest-growing population of jail inmates is
A) women.
Which of the following is not a special problem faced by women in jail today
B) High levels of violence
Which of the following statements about new-generation jails is false
A) They result in higher rates of lawsuits brought by inmates
Why are regional jails becoming more popular
B) They are more economical.
Which of the following statements regarding prison privatization is true
D) Correctional officers working in private prisons are not covered by state laws that govern the activities of public correctional officers.
Social ________ is a condition said to exist when a group is faced with social change, uneven development of culture, maladaptiveness, disharmony, conflict, and lack of consensus.
D) disorganization
________ rights are guaranteed to all members of American society by the U.S. Constitution and are particularly important to criminal defendants facing formal processing by the criminal justice system.
C) Individual
In the 1990s, the perception that crime rates were increasing and that offenders were not being punished resulted in an increased focus on
B) individual accountability.
Currently, we are seeing a decrease in which types of crime
C) Traditional crimes
One who believes that under certain circumstances involving a criminal threat to public safety, the interests of society should take precedence over individual rights is a ________ advocate.
B) public order
________ is an ideal that embraces all aspects of civilized life and that is linked to fundamental notions of fairness and to cultural beliefs about right and wrong.
C) Social justice
What are the three major components of the Criminal Justice System
A) Police, Courts, Corrections
Which model best assumes that the system's components work together harmoniously to achieve justice
D) The consensus model
Which stage in the criminal justice process involves taking pictures and fingerprints of a suspect
D) Booking
Which of the following generally does not occur during a preliminary hearing
C) The defendant is asked to enter a plea
By returning an indictment, the grand jury has determined that
B) there is probable cause to formally charge the defendant with the crime..
The ________ Amendment to the U.S. Constitution gives every defendant the right to a trial by jury
C) Sixth
In which of the following situations may a bench trial occur
A) The defendant waives his or her right to a trial by jury.
An offender is convicted of multiple crimes and is sentenced for each offense. A ________ sentence permits the offender to serve all sentences at the same time.
C) concurrent
The ________ model emphasizes the efficient arrest and conviction of criminal offenders.
C) crime-control
________ refers to crime fighting strategies that have been scientifically tested and are based on social science research.
B) Evidence-based practice
________ describes the scientific study of the causes and prevention of crime and the rehabilitation and punishment of offenders
B) Criminology
Multiculturalism is one form of
B) diversity.
If you are looking for national crime statistics and want data on crimes reported to the police, you should use which of the following sources of data
A) The Uniform Crime Reports
Which agency is responsible for the National Crime Victimization Survey
D) Bureau of Justice Statistics
Why is the main reason why the Crime Index no longer included in the UCR
B) There are so many larcenies that this crime overshadows more serious index crimes.
For which of the following studies would you definitely want to use NIBRS rather than the UCR
D) A study examining multiple crimes that occur within a single incident
Which factor contributed to a dramatic increase in crime in the U.S. in the 1960s and 1970s
A) The baby boom
According to the text, what should we expect to see in the near future when we examine crime statistics
B) The decline in crime observed since the mid-1990s is expected to end and criminal activity will increase.
The ________ is a traditional measure of investigative effectiveness that compares the number of crimes reported or discovered to the number of crimes solved through arrest or other means.
C) clearance rate
All of the following are Part I violent crime offenses except
A) Prostitution.
Which of the Part I violent crimes is the least common
A) Murder
A ________ involves killing at least four victims at one location during one event.
A) mass murder
Most rapes are committed by
B) an acquaintance of the victim.
The unlawful, intentional inflicting, or attempted or threatened inflicting, of serious injury upon the person of another is the crime of
B) aggravated assault.
________ is defined as the unlawful entry of a structure to commit a felony or theft.
B) Burglary
________ refers to events where social media directs people � often teenagers � to go to retail stores and rob them.
D) Flash robs
________ is the unlawful taking or attempted taking, carrying, leading, or riding away of property, from the possession or constructive possession of another.
C) Larceny/Theft
Each of the following offenses falls under the category of larceny except
D) robbery.
________ involves obtaining key pieces of information, such as Social Security and driver's license numbers, to obtain credit, merchandise, and services in the victim's name.
A) Identity theft
For ________ offenses, the UCR only collects information on recorded arrests.
B) Part II
The dark figure of crime refers to
B) crime that is not reported to the police.
Which of the following crime victims would not be included in the sample of individuals surveyed for the NCVS
A) A 10-year old boy who was beaten up and whose bicycle was stolen
Which of the following is not a problem with the UCR program
A) The UCR does not include data on crimes committed against children under the age of 12.
A classification of crimes along a particular dimension, such as legal categories, offender motivation, victim behavior, or the characteristics of individual offenders is also known as
A) crime typology.
The use of the Internet, e-mail, and other electronic communication technologies to bully another person is known as
A) cyberstalking.
The elderly are more likely than younger people to
C) be victimized by strangers.
The economic downturn resulted in a significant increase in which type of crime
C) Mortgage fraud scams
Unlawful activity undertaken and supported by organized criminal groups operating across national boundaries is known as ________ organized crime.
B) transnational
A violation of social norms defining appropriate or proper behavior under a particular set of circumstances is known as
AA) deviance.
A ________ is a set of interrelated propositions that attempt to describe, explain, predict, and ultimately control some class of events.
D) theory
Theory testing usually involves the development of a(n) ________ based on what the theory predicts
C) hypothesis
________ is an eighteenth-century approach to crime causation and criminal responsibility that emphasizes free will and reasonable punishments.
A) The Classical School
Which of the following scholars is considered to be a Classical School criminologist
D) Cesare Beccaria
What is atavism
C) A condition characterized by features thought to be common in earlier stages of human evolution
According to somatotyping, ________ have the greatest likelihood of becoming criminal offenders.
B) predominantly mesomorphic individuals
Which approach to explaining crime addresses the gender ratio problem
D) Biosocial theories
Distinct portions of a cell's DNA that carry coded instructions for making everything the body needs are known as
B) genes.
Which abnormal chromosomal structure is associated with the concept of a "supermale
D) XYY
A psychological principle that holds that the frequency of any behavior can be increased or decreased through reward, punishment, and association with other stimuli is
B) conditioning.
________ refer(s) to the relatively stable characteristic patterns of thoughts, feelings, and behaviors that make a person unique, and that influence that person's behavior.
C) Personality
________ is a theory of human behavior, based on the writings of Sigmund Freud, that sees personality as a complex composite of interacting mental entities.
D) Psychoanalysis.
What is the central defining characteristic of a psychopath
D) Lack of empathy
Which of Eysenck's personality dimensions was most likely to be closely correlated with criminality
A) Psychoticism
________ is a sociological approach that emphasizes demographics and geographics and explains criminality as a product of society's impact on the individual.
B) The Chicago School
________ refers to a condition of normlessness that is said to exist when a group is faced with social change, uneven development of culture, maladaptiveness, disharmony, conflict, and lack of consensus.
D) Social disorganization
Which of Merton's categories would a law-abiding citizen most likely fall into
B) Conformist
________ is the process in which a person openly rejects something he or she wants but cannot obtain or achieve.
A) Reaction formation
________ theories emphasize the role of learning in crime causation.
A) Social process
________ theory focuses on the strength of the bond people share with individuals and institutions around them.
C) Social control
An offender neutralizes his guilt over the robbery of a convenience store by claiming that the victim routinely cheated customers and deserved to be targeted. This is an example of which technique of neutralization
D) Denial of injury
According to the Program of Research on the Causes and Correlates of Delinquency, very young subjects (as young as three years of age) are most likely to be found on the ________ pathway to delinquency.
A) authority conflict
________ criminology argues that the distribution of wealth and power in society is the primary cause of criminal behavior.
B) Radical
________ criminology suggests that social control agencies and citizens should work together to alleviate social problems and human suffering and thus reduce crime.
B) Peacemaking
Early feminist criminology argued that the differences in crime rates between men and women were due primarily to
C) socialization.
Which conflict theory is mainly deconstructionist
B) Postmodern criminology
In many states, ________ principles are used to interpret many legal issues.
B) common law
The concept of ________ expresses the belief that an orderly society must be governed by established principles to maintain order.
A) Rule of law
Which of the following is an example of procedural law
C) A law that specifies when a search warrant may be issued to the police
Which of the following types of law is based on the assumption that acts injure not just individuals, but society as a whole
D) Criminal law
Typically civil lawsuits seek
B) compensation.
________ is a legal principle that ensures that previous judicial decisions are considered when settling similar future cases.
A) Precedent
Your friend has been convicted of a crime and been sentenced to a six month period of incarceration. Your friend most likely committed a(n)
C) misdemeanor.
Which of the following is an inchoate offense
A) Conspiracy
A crime consists of several elements, including the criminal act or
A) Actus Reus.
On your way to work, you hit and kill a pedestrian because you were texting while driving. Which type of mens rea most likely exists in this situation
B) Negligent
Which type of crime does not require mens rea
D) A strict liability offense
________ requires that the criminal act and the mental state occur together in order for a crime to take place.
C) Concurrence
The principle of legality holds that a(n) ________ law, which holds someone legally responsible for acts committed before the law was passed, is not binding.
C) ex post facto
To establish the ________ of a crime, the state must show that a criminal law was violated and that someone violated it.
A) corpus delicti
A legal defense in which the defendant admits to committing the act in question but claims it was necessary in order to avoid some greater evil is called a(n)
C) justification.
Which of the following is an example of a procedural defense
D) The defendant is able to prove that he was denied his right to a speedy trial.
Self-defense falls into which category of defenses to a criminal charge
D) Justification
Which defense has been used in cases involving wives who have killed their husbands after suffering years of abuse
C) Duress
The ________ holds that individuals cannot be held criminally responsible for their actions if at the time of the crime they did not know what they were doing or did not know that their actions were wrong.
C) M'Naughten rule
In most GBMI jurisdictions, which of the following is not required for the jury to return a finding of "guilty but mentally ill
D) The defendant is found to have exhibited psychopathic tendencies prior to the crime.
Diminished capacity is a
D) defense.
Mental incompetence refers to the offender's mental condition
C) immediately prior to prosecution.
In which of the following situations can an offender claim the constitutional protection of double jeopardy
C) After the offender was acquitted, new evidence conclusively proving his guilt was uncovered and the prosecutor calls for a new trial.
Which U.S. Constitutional Amendment guarantees the right to a speedy trial
B) Sixth
Which Amendment prohibits unreasonable searches and seizures
A) The Fourth Amendment
What is the importance of the Fourteenth Amendment
...
It extends constitutional protections to state-level criminal justice.
...
Which of the following is not one of the three areas of due process requirements that are of relevance to the police
C) Double jeopardy
Landmark cases create changes in
C) civil law.
According to ________, evidence illegally seized by the police cannot be used in a trial.
A) the exclusionary rule
According to ________, any evidence that derives from an illegal search and seizure may be declared tainted and excluded from trial.
B) good faith exception
Which Supreme Court ruling applied the exclusionary rule to the states
D) Mapp v. Ohio
According to the Supreme Court, in a search incident to arrest, where are the police permitted to search if they do not have a search warrant
B) The police may only search the area in the arrestee's immediate control.
In which of the following situations would the police not be legally permitted to conduct a warrantless search or seize evidence without a warrant
D) When authorized by the chief of police
A search warrant can only be issued if there is
C) probable cause.
Which of the following is not required for the police to seize contraband under the plain view doctrine
D) The officer must have obtained the property owner's verbal or written permission to search and to seize the contraband.
According to the Supreme Court, the police may conduct a "stop and frisk" without a warrant based on
B) reasonable suspicion.
When are the police allowed to conduct a search of someone who is not suspected of a crime
D) If there is an overriding concern for public safety
In the case of Illinois v. Gates, the Supreme Court established which test for evaluating whether information provided by an informant may be the basis for issuing a warrant
A) Totality of the circumstances test
________ involves tactics used by police interviewers that fall short of physical abuse but still pressure suspects to divulge information.
B) Inherent coercion
In Escobedo v. Illinois, the Supreme Court formally recognized a suspect's right to have an attorney present
C) during interrogation.
The "Christian burial speech" led to the creation of which exception to the Miranda requirements
A) Inevitable discovery
19-year-old Dzhokhar Tsarnaev, the surviving Boston Marathon bomber, was initially questioned by law enforcement officers before he was read his Miranda rights under which exception to Miranda
B) Public safety
When do the police have to read the Miranda warnings to a suspect
B) Before questioning an arrested suspect
Which federal law greatly expanded the ability of the police to intercept many forms of electronic communications
C) The USA PATRIOT Act of 2001
Evidence of relevance to a criminal investigation that is not readily seen by the unaided eye is known as ________ evidence.
B) latent
Which of the following is not a special characteristic of electronic evidence
C) It is non-latent.
A police subculture includes
B) shared values, beliefs, and forms of behavior.
Which is not a characteristic of the police working personality
D) Cheerful
The two key elements in the definition of police corruption are
D) misuse of authority and personal gain.
Which of the following activities fits the definition of police corruption
C) A police officer accepts a fee to ignore a violation of the law
The 1970s ________ Commission focused on combatting corruption in New York City.
C) Knapp
Which of the following is the most serious type of corruption
B) Denial of civil rights
Which of the following does the FBI consider an important strategy used to combat police corruption
A) Increased ethics training of both new and experienced officers
In most big-city police departments, which branch is tasked with investigating charges of wrongdoing involving members of the department
A) Internal Affairs Division
The courts have supported drug testing of police officers based on ________ that drug abuse is occurring.
D) reasonable suspicion
The increasing formalization of police work and the accompanying rise in public acceptance of the police is known as
B) police professionalism.
The special responsibility to adhere to moral duty and obligation that is inherent in police work is called
A) police ethics.
Effective policing appears to depend more on a candidate's
C) innate personal qualities.
In general, the most common way for a police officer to die in the line of duty is as the result of
C) gunfire.
Programs such as the Collier County Spousal Academy are designed to help families of police officers cope with issues relating to
D) police officer stress.
________ refers to the application of more force than is required to compel compliance from a suspect.
B) Excessive force
In which 1989 case did the U.S. Supreme Court establish the standard of "objective reasonableness" in determining the appropriate use of deadly force by a police officer
A) Graham v. Connor
Prior to the Supreme Court ruling in Tennessee v. Garner, the use of deadly force by the police was governed by the ________ rule.
A) fleeing felon
The current standard for the use of deadly force by federal agents is
D) imminent danger.
A ________ weapon is designed to disable, capture, or immobilize, but not kill, a suspect.
D) less-lethal
The ability of police officers to make choices such as whether or not to investigate is known as
B) discretion.
Which of the following is not a discretional decision that might be made by a patrol officer
C) The decision to charge the suspect with a crime
In 2003, the U.S. Department of Justice banned its practice of racial profiling in all federal law enforcement agencies, except in cases involving
C) terrorist suspects.
Which of the following situations could lead to a civil suit for police negligence
D) A police officer injures an innocent bystander during a high-speed vehicle pursuit.
Law enforcement supervisors are
B) civilly responsible for the actions of their officers.
A federal civil suit alleging police misconduct that is filed against a local police officer is commonly known as a
B) Section 1983 lawsuit.
A federal civil suit alleging police misconduct that is filed against a federal law enforcement officer is commonly known as a
A) Title 42 lawsuit.
________ shields law enforcement officers from constitutional lawsuits if reasonable officers would believe their actions were lawful in light of clearly established law and the available information possessed by the officers.
D) Sovereign immunity