1) Hiring workers who have criminal backgrounds without proper safeguards is considered ________.
A) improper hiring
B) negligent hiring
C) appropriate depending upon the job
D) negligent intent
Negligent Hiring
2) By some estimates, ________ percent of employees have stolen from their employers.
A) 75
B) 80
C) 26
D) 49
75
3) Careful testing and screening lead to ________.
A) improved performance on your own part
B) screening out "undesirables"
C) improved motivation among all including those who were not hired
D) A and B only
A and B only
4) Which of the following is not a type of personnel test?
A) ACO
B) cognitive abilities
C) motor and physical abilities
D) interest inventories
ACO
5) XYZ company uses a projective personality test on James. Subsequently, James is denied employment. James can ________.
A) be angry but nothing else
B) claim the results were false
C) claim the results violate the ADA
D) B and C only
B and C only
6) Which of the following is not a "big five" personality dimension?
A) inwardness
B) extroversion
C) agreeableness
D) conscientiousness
Inwardness
7) Which of the following is not an aspect of intercultural adaptability?
A) supervisory management
B) perception management
C) relationship management
D) self management
Supervisory Management
8) The leaderless group discussion is part of the ________.
A) management assessment center
B) personality test battery
C) Wonderlic test
D) None of the above.
Management assessment center
9) A(n) ________ is a procedure designed to solicit information from a person's oral responses to oral inquiries.
A) interview
B) presentation
C) prospectus
D) invigilation
Interview
10) Which of the following is not a common interviewing mistake?
A) snap judgments
B) negative emphasis
C) attractiveness of candidate
D) All of the above.
All of the above
11) Which of the following is a question that disabled persons would like interviewers to ask during the interview?
A) Is there any kind of setting or special equipment that would facilitate the interview process for you?
B) Provide an example of how you
All of the above
12) Interviews should begin by ________.
A) establishing rapport
B) jumping right into the heart of the matter
C) highlighting what the interview will be doing
D) explaining the qualifications of the interviewer
Establishing rapport
13) Which of the following is recommended regarding interviewing questions?
A) ask open-ended questions
B) ask questions that can be answered yes or no
C) put words into the applicant's mouth to try to trip them up
D) B and C only
Ask open-ended questions
14) What percentage of HR managers report checking applicants' background?
A) 82
B) 80
C) 75
D) 68
82
15) Which of the following is a commonly verified background area?
A) legal eligibility for employment
B) dates of prior employment
C) military service
D) All of the above.
All of the above
16) What is the first thing you should do to make reference checking more productive?
A) have the candidate sign a release authorizing the background check
B) get two forms of identification and make applicants fill out job applications
C) use a structure
Have the candidate sign a release authorizing the background check
17) What is the second thing you should do to make reference checking more productive?
A) have the candidate sign a release authorizing the background check
B) get two forms of identification and make applicants fill out job applications
C) use a structur
get two forms of identification and make applicants fill out job applications
18) What is the third thing you should do to make reference checking more productive?
A) have the candidate sign a release authorizing the background check
B) get two forms of identification and make applicants fill out job applications
C) use a structure
use a structured reference checking form
19) Which assessment method has a high content validity?
A) cognitive ability tests
B) personality tests
C) structured interviews
D) job knowledge tests
Job knowledge tests
20) Which assessment method that Dial Corp. used was shown to have a high adverse impact?
A) cognitive ability tests
B) job knowledge tests
C) structured interviews
D) strength tests
Strength tests
21) Which assessment method can be conducted one-on-one or with a panel?
A) cognitive ability tests
B) job knowledge tests
C) structured interviews
D) All of the above.
Structured interviews
22) What is the fourth thing you should do to make reference checking more productive?
A) have the candidate sign a release authorizing the background check
B) get two forms of identification and make applicants fill out job applications
C) use a structur
use references provided by the applicant as a source of other references
23) Which of the following is an example of a reliable test?
A) one that yields consistent scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test
B) one that yields one score on a test and a different, but better score on the same test taken on a diff
one that yields consistent scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test
24) If a person scores a 90 on an intelligence test on one day and scores 130 when retested on another day, you might conclude that this test is ________.
A) valid
B) reliable
C) unreliable
D) inconsistent
Unreliable
25) If a person scores a 78 on a test on one day and scores a 79 when retested on another day, you might conclude that this test is ________.
A) valid
B) invalid
C) reliable
D) unreliable
Reliable
26) ________ is used as an estimate of reliability when one administers the same test to the same people at two different points in time, and then compares the test scores at time 2 with the scores at time 1.
A) Equivalent form estimate
B) Retest estimate
Retest estimate
27) Which of the following describes using a retest estimate to assess reliability?
A) administer the same test to the same people at two different points in time and compare their test scores at time 2 with the scores at time 1
B) administer a test with
administer the same test to the same people at two different points in time and compare their test scores at time 2 with the scores at time 1
28) ________ is used as an estimate of reliability when one administers two tests deemed to be equivalent by experts and then compares the test scores from the two tests.
A) Equivalent form estimate
B) Retest estimate
C) Internal comparison estimate
D) Cr
Equivalent form estimate
29) ________ is used as an estimate of reliability when one administers a test with x number of items designed to assess a topic, then statistically analyzes the degree to which responses to the items vary together.
A) Equivalent form estimate
B) Retest e
Internal consistency
30) When repetitive questions appear on a questionnaire, which form of reliability is likely being measured?
A) retest estimate
B) internal consistency
C) equivalent form
D) criterion validity
Internal consistency
31) Which of the following describes using an equivalent-form estimate to assess reliability?
A) administer the same test to the same people at two different points in time and compare their test scores at time 2 with the scores at time 1
B) administer a
administer two tests deemed the same by experts and then compare participants' test scores for test one and test two
32) Which of the following describes using an internal comparison estimate to assess reliability?
A) administer the same test to the same people at two different points in time and compare their test scores at time 2 with the scores at time 1
B) administe
administer a test with x number of items designed to assess a topic, then statistically analyze the degree to which responses to the items vary together
33) Which of the following is not a reason that a test might be unreliable?
A) questions may not represent material
B) testing conditions could vary
C) the test may not predict actual performance
D) All of the above are reasons for unreliable tests.
the test may not predict actual performance
34) The first step in the validation process is to ________.
A) choose the tests to measure attributes of job
B) analyze the job
C) administer tests
D) cross-validate
Analyze the job
35) The second step in the validation process is to ________.
A) choose the tests to measure attributes of job
B) analyze the job
C) relate test scores and job criteria
D) cross-validate
Choose the tests to measure attributes of job
36) The final step in the validation process is to ________.
A) choose the tests to measure attributes of job
B) analyze the job
C) relate test scores and job criteria
D) cross-validate
Cross-validate
37) Which of the following tasks is not part of demonstrating content validity?
A) demonstrating that the tasks a person performs on the test represent the tasks performed on the job
B) demonstrating that the tasks on the test are a random sample of tasks
Demonstrating that the scores on the test are a good predictor of criterion like job performance
38) Which of the following rights do test takers have under the American Psychological Association's standard for educational and psychological tests?
A) the right to confidentiality of test results
B) the right to informed consent
C) the right to expect
All of the above
39) ________ tests include tests of general reasoning ability and tests of specific mental abilities like memory and inductive reasoning.
A) Personality
B) Achievement
C) Cognitive
D) Physical ability
Cognitive
40) Tests that measure a range of abilities including memory, vocabulary, verbal fluency, and numerical ability are called ________ tests.
A) aptitude
B) intelligence
C) achievement
D) comprehensive
Intelligence
41) Jack is being tested on static strength, dynamic strength, body coordination, and stamina during the selection period at UPS. UPS is using ________ tests.
A) personality
B) motor and physical abilities
C) achievement
D) comprehensive
Motor and physical abilities
42) ________ tests include tests like finger dexterity, manual dexterity, and reaction time.
A) Motor ability
B) Personality
C) Achievement
D) Interest
Motor ability
43) ________ tests measure a person's level of introversion, stability, and motivation.
A) Motor ability
B) Personality
C) Achievement
D) Cognitive
Personality
44) A ________ is a two or three-day simulation in which 10 to 12 candidates perform realistic management tasks under the observation of experts who appraise each candidate's potential.
A) work sampling event
B) video-based situational testing
C) manageme
Management assessment center
45) Typical simulated exercises used in management assessment centers include all of the following except:
A) the in basket.
B) leaderless group discussion.
C) tests of motor abilities.
D) interviews.
Tests of motor abilities
46) Employers may conduct background investigations and reference checks to verify a candidate's ________.
A) age
B) marital status
C) legal eligibility
D) All of the above.
Legal eligibility
47) Which of the following is not usually verified by an employer prior to hiring a job candidate?
A) legal eligibility for employment
B) age
C) credit ratings
D) motor vehicle record
Age
48) What type of screening device is designed to measure attitudes regarding tolerance of others who steal and acceptance of rationalizations for theft?
A) personality tests
B) interest inventories
C) honesty tests
D) graphology
Honesty tests
49) Employers can and should use all the tools listed below to attempt to detect dishonest job applicants except:
A) polygraph tests.
B) credit checks.
C) background checks.
D) honesty tests.
Polygraph tests
50) Graphology, a tool for assessing basic personality traits, is also called ________.
A) numerology
B) astrology
C) handwriting analysis
D) polygraph output assessment
Handwriting analysis
51) The ________ is considered by many to be the most important screening tool.
A) telephone reference
B) reference letter
C) selection interview
D) management assessment center
Selection interview
52) A(n) ________ is a procedure designed to obtain information from a person through oral responses to oral inquiries.
A) writing test
B) work sample simulation
C) interview
D) reference check
Interview
53) When an interview is used to predict future job performance on the basis of an applicant's oral responses to oral inquiries, it is called a(n) ________ interview.
A) selection
B) appraisal
C) exit
D) structured
Selection
54) What type of question is the following: "Can you tell me about a time when you worked successfully in a team environment?"
A) situational
B) behavioral
C) stress
D) puzzle
Behavioral
55) Which of the following statements is an example of a situational question?
A) "Tell me about a time you showed leadership in a difficult situation."
B) "How have you handled ethical dilemmas in the past?"
C) "Suppose you were confronted with an angry
Suppose you were confronted with an angry customer who threatened to sue the company. What would you do?
56) What type of question is the following: "Imagine that you have just been assigned the task of winning the business of our competition's biggest client. How would you proceed?"
A) situational
B) behavioral
C) puzzle
D) directive
Situational
57) In a mass interview, a team of individuals interviews the candidate in a ________ fashion.
A) serial
B) sequential
C) panel
D) systematic
Panel
58) Dr. Ross is interviewing for a position as Assistant Professor of Human Resource Management. His interview is conducted by a team of other faculty members in the department who interview him simultaneously and then combine their ratings into one score
Panel
59) The team holding the interviews for new auditors is behind in its recruiting quota. The team is most likely to rate the applicants ________ in this situation.
A) positively
B) neutrally
C) unacceptable
D) There is not enough information to determine.
Positively
60) Based on interviewer assessments of attractiveness and gender, which of the following would most likely receive the highest rating for an executive level position?
A) an attractive woman
B) an attractive man
C) an unattractive woman
D) There are no su
An attractive man
61) Consider the following question: "Suppose you saw a co-worker who was not following standard work procedures. The co-worker claimed that the new procedure was better. What would you do?" What type of question is this?
A) background
B) past behavior
C)
Situational
62) Consider the following question: "Can you provide an example of a specific instance where you provided leadership in a difficult situation?" What type of question is this?
A) background
B) behavioral
C) situational
D) structured
Behavioral
63) Consider the following question: "What work experience do you have in marketing and sales?" What type of question is this?
A) background
B) behavioral
C) situational
D) job knowledge
Background
64) Consider the following question: "What factors should be considered when developing a customer database?" What type of question is this?
A) background
B) past behavior
C) situational
D) job knowledge
Job knowledge
65) The interview is the most widely used personnel selection procedure.
True or False
True
66) Most interviews are one-on-one.
True or False
True
67) Effective selection depends to a large degree on the concept of validity but not reliability.
True or False
False
68) A reliable test is one that yields consistent scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test when he or she takes the same test on two or more different occasions.
True or False
True
69) An internal comparison estimate measures internal consistency.
True or False
True
70) Equivalent form estimates compare test scores from the same test administered at two points in time to determine test equivalence.
True or False
False