what step is this?
collect
what step is this?
assess
what step is this?
plan
what step is this?
implement
what step is this?
follow-up: monitor and evaluate
who developed the PPCP?
a) florida board of pharmacy
b) joint commission of pharmacy practicioners
c) APhA
d) medical board
joint commission of pharmacy practicioners
in this step of the PPCP pharmacist assures collection of necessary subjective and objective info
collect
in this step of the PPCP the pharmacist looks to see if the medication is appropriate, effective, safe, patient is adherent. Immunization status and preventative care needs are also looked at, as well as patient factors.
assess
In this step of the PPCP you will set goals of therapy, engage the patient through education and self-management, is evidence-based and cost effective and completed in collaboration with other health care professionals
plan
in this step of the PPCP you will initiate, modify or discontinue medication therapy, provide education, schedule follow-up
implement
in this step of the PPCP you will evaluate the medication appropriateness, effectiveness and adherence. as well as look at clinical endpoints that contribute to the patients overall health, and the outcomes of care
follow-up: monitor and evaluate
which of the following is NOT a component of patient assessments?
(select all that apply)
a) chief complaint
b) social history
c) labs
d) assessment of life choices
e) physical exam/ROS
f) past medical history
g) family history
h) history of present illne
assessment of life choices, love life
what are the three main steps of medication reconciliation?
a) ask, reconcile, teach-back method
b) verify, clarify, reconcile
verify, clarify, reconcile
this is the movement of patients between health care locations, providers, or different levels of care within the same location as their conditions and care needs change
transitions of care
which of the following are barriers to successful care transitions?(select all that apply)
a) multiple providers
b) different EMRs
c) medication discrepancies
d) poor communication
e) lack of patient/family educaiton
f) inadequate planning and goal settin
all of the above
T/F: closed ended questions are never a good choice of interviewing technique
false, not bad but open ended better
T/F: leading questions are an effective way to get the patient interview done quicker
false, never use leading questions
put in order the steps of menstrual cycle:
-ovulation
-luteal phase
-follicular phase
1)
2)
3)
1) follicular phase
2) ovulation
3) luteal phase
how many days is the average woman's fertile window?
a) one day during her cycle
b) 6 days of her cycle
c) 2 days during her cycle
d) the entire cycle
6 days of her cycle
when specifically is the fertile window?
five days before and the day of ovulation
how long can sperm survive in the vagina?
a) 2 hours
b) 3 days
c) 5 days
d) 24 hours
5 days
_________ days leading up to and the day of ovulation are the most fertile days
a) 2 days
b) 3 days
c) 5 days
d) 1 day
3 days
how long is the egg viable for after release?
a) 2 hours
b) 3 days
c) 5 days
d) 12-24 hours
12-24 hours
which of the following are forms of contraception(select all that apply):
a) hormonal formulations
b) nonhormonal
c) abstinence
d) permanent methods
all of the above
which of the following contraception methods will prevent STI ( select all that apply):
a) latex male condom
b) female condom
c) sterilization
d) spermicide
latex male condom, female condom
T/F: egg white is a safe form of lubrication
true
T/F: history of STI will cause an increased risk of condom breakage
true
which of the following contraceptive methods is NOT effective against STI's? (select all that apply):
a) natural membrane condom
b) spermicide
c) sterilization
d) withdrawal
all of the above ( the natural membrane condom will protect against bacterial STI just not viral)
this type of hormonal birth control inhibits ovulation and implantation
a) progestins
b) estrogens
estrogens
this type of hormonal birth control creates a hostile cervical mucous, inhibits spermatic enzymes, inhibits ovulation and implantation
a) progestins
b) estrogens
progestins
what does the nemonic ACHES stand for?
abdominal pain, chest pain(SOB/coughing), headaches,
eye problems, eye problems, severe leg pain
antibiotics ____________(increase/decrease) estrogen levels
decrease
which of the following is plan B?
a) ullipristal
b) progesterone
c) levonorgestrel
d) copper
levonorgestrel
which of the following is Ella?
a) ullipristal
b) progesterone
c) levonorgestrel
d) copper
ullipristal
pregnancy tests measure what hormone?
a) hCG
b) FSH
c) progesterone
d) estrogen
hCG
put in order the correct sequence for conducting a pulmonary function test
-breath into spirometer
-breath into spriometer
-assess changes in lung volume
-administer bronchodialator
1) breath into the spirometer
2) administer bronchodialator
3) breath into spirometer
4) assess changes in lung volume
this is the volume of air contained in the lungs at the end of maximal inspiration
a) FEV1
b) total lung capacity
c) vital capacity
d) forced vital capacity
total lung capacity
this is the amount of air that can be forcibly exhaled from your lungs after taking the deepest breath possible
a) FEV1
b) total lung capacity
c) vital capacity
d) forced vital capacity
FVC
this is the maximum amount of air a person can expel from the lungs after a maximum inhalation
a) FEV1
b) total lung capacity
c) vital capacity
d) forced vital capacity
vital capacity
this is the volume of air that can be forcefully blown out during the first second of exhaling
a) FEV1
b) total lung capacity
c) vital capacity
d) forced vital capacity
FEV1
a patient's FEV1 increases with successful treatment of airway obstruction, is it COPD or asthma?
asthma
which of the following are common home monitoring tests? ( select all that apply):
a) pregnancy
b) UTI
c) fecal occult blood test
d) HIV
e) cancer screening
f) drug abuse
pregnancy, UTI, FOBT, HIV, drug abuse
UTI home monitoring tests detect what to determine presence of UTI?
a) nitrites
b) nitrites and leukocyte esterase
c) leukocyte esterase
d) nitrites alone or nitrites + LE
nitrites alone or nitrites + LE
which of the following can interfere with UTI home test? select all that apply
a) vegetarian diet
b) tetracyclines
c) medications
d) vit C
all of the above
T/F: you should tell your patients using a UTI test to not wait longer than 3 mins to read the test strip
true
T/F: you should tell your patients using a UTI test to test for 3 consecutive days if their first result is negative
true
what does the FOBT look for?
colorectal cancer
the guaiac based FOBT detects:
a) antibodies on globin portion of hemoglobin
b) heme portion of hemoglobin oxidizing the test reagent
heme portion of hemoglobin oxidizing the test reagent
the FIT test detects:
a) antibodies on globin portion of hemoglobin
b) heme portion of hemoglobin oxidizing the test reagent
antibodies on globin portion of hemoglobin
the hair drug test can detect drugs use as far back as:
a) 2-3 days
b) 90 days
90 days
the urine drug test can detect drug use as far back as:
a) 2-3 days
b) 90 days
2-3 days
which one is the respiratory acid?
a) CO2
b) HCO3
CO2
which one is the metabolic base?
a) CO2
b) HCO3
HCO3
arterial blood gas mnemonic:
pH 7.40(7.35-7.45)- phony
pO2 80-100- people
are
HCO3 24(22-26)- basic
PaCO2 40(35-45)- pieces
of
SaO2 95-100%- shit
.
_____/_______/_______/_______
in what order do the following lab values fit into this?
- PaCO2
-HCO3
-pH
-pO2
pH/PaCO2/pO2/HCO3
what is the normal anion gap range?
a) 1-2 mEq/L
b) 3-11 mEq/L
c) 20-20 mEq/L
d) 11-20 mEq/L
3-11 mEq/L
what does MUD PILES stand for?
metabolic acidosis mnemonic for high AG:
M-methanol
U-uremia
D-diabetic
P-paraldehyde
I-isoniazid, iron ingestion
L-lactic acidosis
E-ethanol, ethylene glycol
S-salicylates
what does USED CRAP stand for?
non-AG metabolic acidosis mnemonic:
U-ureteral diversion(fistula)
S-sodium chloride administration
E-early renal failure
D-diarrhea
C-carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
R-renal tubular acidosis
A-addisons, alimentation, acetazolamide
P-pancreatic duodenal fist
a patient presents with flushing, nausea, dyspnea and hyperventilation, what is most likely the cause of this?
a) respiratory acidosis
b) metabolic acidosis
c) respiratory alkalosis
d) metabolic alkalosis
metabolic acidosis
a patient presents with cardiac arrhythmia and neuromuscular irritation and has a recent history of excessive vomiting, what is most likely the cause of their symptoms?
a) respiratory acidosis
b) metabolic acidosis
c) respiratory alkalosis
d) metabolic al
metabolic alkalosis
a patient presents with hypoventilation and has altered mental status, what is most likely the cause of their symptoms?
a) respiratory acidosis
b) metabolic acidosis
c) respiratory alkalosis
d) metabolic alkalosis
respiratory acidosis
a patient presents with light-headedness, confusion, and hyperventilation, what is the most likely cause of their symptoms?
a) respiratory acidosis
b) metabolic acidosis
c) respiratory alkalosis
d) metabolic alkalosis
respiratory alkalosis
this disorder occurs when the patients pH is normal but their HCO3 or PaCO2 is abnormal
a) enhancement of compensation (mixed a/b)
b) failure of compensation (mixed a/b)
enhancement of compensation
this disorder occurs when pH is much higher or lower than expected and their HCO3 or PaCO2 is abnormal
a) enhancement of compensation (mixed a/b)
b) failure of compensation (mixed a/b)
failure of compensation
a patient says they are have jaw and neck pain and feeling faint what could this indicate?
a) stroke
b) seizure
c) heart attack
d) drug overdose
heart attack
a patient suspects they are having a heart attack what medication treatment should you recommend to them?
chew or swallow 325mg of aspirin (avoid enteric coated)
nitroglycerin sublingual tablet, one dose initially then may repeat with a second dose after 5 mins, max of 3 doses
if unconscious preform CPR or AED
a patient has pinpoint pupil, clammy to the touch, lips are blue and low heart rate, what is the cause of these symptoms?
opioid overdose
if a patient has opioid overdose what should you do?
support the patients breathing and put them in an emergency position, call 911
T/F: you should monitor the patient for at least four hours after the last dose of naloxone
true
a patient presents with trembling, headache, crying, weakness, numb lips, what is most likely the cause of these symptoms?
hypoglycemia
if the patient is conscious and experiencing symptoms of hypoglycemia what should you do?
a) glucagon
b) the rule of 15
the rule of 15: 15 grams of glucose or simple carbs, then recheck glucose after 15 mins
then once blood sugar returns to normal consume a small snack if next planned meal is more than an hour away
if the patient has hypoglycemia and is unconscious what should you do?
a) glucagon
b) the rule of 15
glucagon
a patient is staring at you and has uncontrollable jerking movements and confusion, what is the most likely cause for their symptoms?
a) nothing it's a normal patient
b) anaphylaxis
c) seizure
d) opioid overdose
seizure
a patient presents with face drooping, speech difficulty, arm weakness, what is most likely the cause of these symptoms
a) stroke
b) anaphylaxis
c) seizure
d) opioid overdose
stroke
a patient presents with runny nose, pinpoint pupils, headache, difficulty breathing, what is most likely the cause of these symptoms?
a) nerve agent
b) anaphylaxsis
c) seizure
d) opioid overdose
nerve agent
a patient has been exposed to a nerve agent what should you treat them with? (select all that apply)
a) theres nothing you can do now
b) atropine and pralidoxime chloride
c) diazepam if seizure
d) hugs
atropine and pralidoxime chloride, diazepam if seizure
normal range for TSH
0.5-4.0mU/L
...
normal range for T3
80-180ng/dL
...
normal range for T4
5-12mcg/dL
...
normal range for free T4
0.8-1.8ng/dL
...
which of the thyroid hormones is most abundant?
a) T3
b) T4
c) free T4
T4
reference range for thyroglobulin antibody(TgAb)
<20U/ml
helps diagnose __________________
hashimotos (hypothyroidism)
thyroid stimulating immunoglobulin (TSI)
<130% helps diagnose ___________________
graves (hyperthyroidism)
where is growth hormone produced?
pituitary gland
where is IGF-1 secreted?
liver
normal calcitonin range for females
<5pg/ml
...
normal reference range for calcitonin for males
<10pg/ml
...
PTH is secreted in response to __________(low/high) calcium levels
low
normal PTH range
10-65pg/ml
...