Standard Precautions
The minimum infection prevention measures that apply to all patients or patient specimens, regardless of suspected or confirmed infection status of the patient.
Work Practice Controls
Controls that reduce the likelihood of exposure by altering the manner in which a task is performed.
Engineering Controls
Controls that isolate or remove the bloodborne pathogens hazard from the workplace.
Safety Data Sheet (SDS)
Safety data sheets are the source of detailed information on a hazardous chemical.
Globally Harmonized System (GHS)
A common and coherent approach to classifying chemicals and communicating hazard information on labels and safety data sheets.
Regulations
Clarifies interpretation of laws and how laws will be implemented, in addition to stating requirements or prohibitions.
Accreditations
A process involving both an internal self-study and external peer assess.
Compliance
Following regulations, rules, guidelines, laws, procedures, standards, or any other mandate.
Quality Control
Procedures that evaluate the quality of the analytic testing process of each test method to assure accurate and reliable patient test results.
Quality Assessment
Monitor and evaluate the ongoing and overall quality of the total testing process. Also known as quality assurance.
Proficiency Testing
A method to externally evaluate the quality of a laboratory's performance.
CLIA-Waived Tests
Simple laboratory examinations and procedures that have an insignificant risk of an erroneous result.
Vaccine encouraged for healthcare workers
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Parenteral Transmission
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Respiratory Transmission
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Contact Transmission
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What is the most common type of gloves used in the laboratory?
Nitrile.
Diagnosis
Identification of a disease or clinical condition.
Prognosis
A forecast of the probable course and outcome of a disease or situation.
CMS
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FDA
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Fire Class A
Ordinary combustibles; e.g., wood, cloth, paper.
Fire Class B
Flammable liquids.
Fire Class C
Electrical; e.g., appliances, panels, switches.
Fire Class D
Combustible metals; e.g., magnesium, titanium, potassium, sodium.
What does RACE stand for?
Rescue, alarm, contain, extinguish.
Venipuncture
The process of blood collection from a vein.
Capillary Puncture
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Lab Assistant
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Medical Laboratory Technician
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Pathologist
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Laboratory Requisition
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Laboratory Report
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LIS Function
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Certifying Agency
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Resolution
The level of detail that can be seen.
Working Distance
The distance between the objective lens and the object being viewed when the object is clearly in focus.
Field of View
The total area visible while looking in the microscope (also known as microscopic field or field).
Numerical Aperature
Indicates the ability of the objective lens to collect light.
Interpupillary Control
Used to adjust the distance between the oculars.
Aperature Diaphragm Control Lever
Controls the light being illuminated through the specimen. It is located at the bottom of the condenser (also known as the iris diaphragm control lever).
Nosepiece
The part of the microscope used to secure the objectives.
Base
Supports the microscope (also known as stand).
What type of immersion oil is used?
Type B.
What is the magnification of 10x?
100.
What is the magnification of 40x?
400.
What is the magnification of 50x?
500.
What is the magnification of 100x?
1,000.
How do you determine the total magnification?
Multiply the ocular magnification by the objective lens power of magnification.
Ex: 10x*40x=400x total magnification
Specimen
A single thing that is taken as an example of a whole category.
Anticoagulant
Slows coagulation and prevents new clots from forming.
Serum
Plasma without clotting factors.
Plasma
The liquid portion of anticoagulated blood.
Fibrogen
A major coagulation factor.
Whole Blood
Blood collected in a tube containing anticoagulant.
An increased white blood cell count is known as...
Leukocytosis.
A decreased white blood cell count is known as...
Leukopenia.
An increased red blood cell count is known as...
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A decreased red blood cell count is known as...
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An increased platelet count is known as...
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A decreased platelet count is known as...
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Different types of WBC
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Coagulated Blood
Clotted blood.
Critical Value
The value may be life-threatening (also known as panic value).
Normal Value
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Increased Value
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Decreased Value
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What is the life span of RBCs?
Around 120 days.
Marginating Pools
The non-circulating neutrophils that are attached to the blood vessel walls.
Circulating Pools
Blood that circulates through the body.
RDW (Red Cell Distribution Width)
Gives an indication of the size variation of the erythrocytes. In healthy adults, this is 11.5-14.5%.
What test is used to monitor oral anticoagulant therapy?
Prothrombin Time (PT).
What test is used to monitor intravenous anticoagulant therapy?
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Glycogen
Stored glucose.
Glycolysis
The enzymatic breakdown of glucose into pyruvate with the release of energy in the form of ATP.
Glycogenesis
Glucose being converted to glycogen.
Gluconeogenesis
When glucose is formed from non-carbohydrate constituents.
Glycogenolysis
Glycogen being converted to glucose.
Lipogenesis
When fats are formed from carbohydrates such as glucose.
Type 1 Diabetes
Diabetes of a form that usually develops during childhood or adolescence and is characterized by a severe deficiency of insulin, leading to high blood glucose levels.
Type 2 Diabetes
Diabetes of a form that develops especially in adults and most often obese individuals and that is characterized by high blood glucose resulting from impaired insulin utilization coupled with the body's inability to compensate with increased insulin produ
Ketoacidosis
Excessive production of ketones, making the blood acidic. The body compensates for this through hyperventilation.
How do you calculate the concentration of a substance using Beer's Law?
Absorbance of the Unknown divided by Absorbance of the Standard times Concentration of the Standard equals the Concentration of the Unknown.
What is the main storage form of lipids?
Triglycerides.
HDL is ____ cholesterol.
Good.
LDL is ______ cholesterol.
Bad.
What does the Hemoglobin A1C test measure?
Glycosylated hemoglobin.
What does the Fecal Occult Blood test measure?
The amount of blood in stool.
What is the preferred specimen for urine testing?
The first morning specimen.
What is the functional unit of the kidney?
Nephron.
What is the process of urine production?
Filtration, reabsorption, and secretion.
What could cause amber urine?
A concentrated specimen.
What could cause orange urine?
Pyridium.
What could cause green urine?
Biliverden.
What could cause pink urine?
RBCs.
What could cause black/brown urine?
Methemoglobin.
What could cause colorless urine?
Recent fluid consumption.
What could warrant a false positive in urine blood testing?
- Menstrual contamination
- Detergents, bleach, other oxidizing agents
- Bacterial enzymes
- Vegetable peroxidase
What could warrant a false negative in urine blood testing?
- High levels of Vitamin C
- Excessive amounts of nitrites
- Excessive protein
- Low specific gravity result
- Unmixed specimen
What could warrant a false positive in urine protein testing?
- Alkaline urines
- Contamination of the urine specimen with quatemary ammonium compounds
What could warrant a false negative in urine protein testing?
A very dilute specimen.
What could warrant a false positive in urine ketone testing?
Highly pigmented urine specimens or specimens that contain large amounts of levadopa metabolites.
What could warrant a false negative in urine ketone testing?
Loss of ketones through evaporation.
What could warrant a false positive in urine nitrite testing?
Old specimens or highly pigmented specimens.
What could warrant a false negative in urine nitrite testing?
- Infections caused by organisms that do not convert nitrate to nitrite
- Urine that has not been retained in the bladder for long enough
- Dietary nitrate is absent or insufficient
- Vitamin C concentrations of 25mg/dl or higher
- Inhibition of bacteria
What could warrant a false positive in urine leukocyte esterase testing?
Certain medications or foods that give urine a red color.
What could warrant a false negative in urine leukocyte esterase testing?
Increased urinary glucose, protein, and specific gravity.
What do the pads on the reagent strip test for?
pH, protein, glucose, ketone, bilirubin, and blood.
What are the bilirubin products of metabolism?
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What is polydipsia?
Extreme thirst.
What is polyphagia?
Extreme hunger.
What is polyuria?
Excessive urination.
Which process involves prolonged vomiting and diarrhea?
Ketoacidosis.
What is cystitis?
Inflammation of the bladder.
What is oliguria?
Decreased urine output.
What is anuria?
No urine output.
What color is associated with a positive gram stain reaction?
Purple.
What color is associated with a negative gram stain reaction?
Pink.
What is the difference between transmissible and contagious?
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Droplet nuclei
Small particles that stay in the air for a lengthy period of time.
Vector
Agents able to carry microorganisms from an infected person to another person.
Fomite
Inanimate objects such as utensils used while eating that have been contaminated with microorganisms.
Culture smear vs Direct smear
A culture smear is a slide containing bacteria grown from a culture of the specimen. A direct smear is a slide containing specimen that came directly from the patient.
Conidia
Asexual spores of a fungus.
Flagella
Whiplike tails found in one-celled organisms to aid in movement.
Eukaryote
Micoorganism that contains a nucleus.
Conjunctivitis
Infection and swelling of the membranes of the eye.
Pharyngitis
A sore throat.
What is the optical growth temperature for psychrophile?
0�C to 30�C.
What is the optical growth temperature for mesophile?
20�C to 40�C.
What is the optical growth temperature for thermophile?
40�C to 80�C.
What is the optical growth temperature for capnophile?
3%-10% carbon dioxide.