d (measure the total volume)
1) After receiving a 24 hr. urine for quantitative total protein analysis the technician must first:
a. subculture the urine for bacteria
b. add the appropriate preservative
c. screen for albumin using a dipstick
d. measure the total volume
a (exposed to light)
2) False results in the urobilinogen testing may occur if the urine specimen is:
a. exposed to light
b. adjusted to a neutral pH
c. cooled to room temp
d. collected in a nonsterile container
b (be rejected due to the time delay)
3) A clean catch urine is submitted to laboratory for routine urinalysis and culture. The routine urinalysis is done first, and 3 hrs. later, the specimen is sent to the microbiology department for culture. The specimen should:
a. be centrifuged, and the
d (bilirubin)
4) Which of the following urine results is most apt to be changed by prolonged exposure to light?
a. pH
b. protein
c. ketones
d. bilirubin
c (bacterial contamination will cause alkalinization of the urine)
5) Urine samples should be examined within 1 hr. of voiding because:
a. RBC's, leukocytes and casts agglutinate on standing for several hrs. at room temp
b. urobilinogen increases and bilirubin decreases after prolonged exposure to light
c. bacterial cont
b (at 4 - 7 C)
7) A urine specimen comes to the laboratory 7 hrs. after it is obtained. It is acceptable for culture only if the specimen has been stored:
a. at room temp
b. at 4 - 7 C
c. frozen
d. with a preservative additive
c (pH)
8) Which of the following would be affected by allowing a urine specimen to remain at room temp for 3 hrs. before analysis:
a. occult blood
b. specific gravity
c. pH
d. protein
b (centrifuging an unmixed specimen)
10) Failure to observe RBC casts in a urine specimen can be caused by:
a. staining the specimen
b. centrifuging an unmixed specimen
c. mixing the sediment after decantation
d. examining the sediment first under low power
c (mL/min)
12) The creatinine clearance is reported in:
a. mg/dL
b. mg/24hrs
c. mL/min
d. mL/24hrs
b (nephropathy)
13) Microalbumin can be measured by a random urine collection. An increased microalbumin is predictive of:
a. diabetes mellitus
b. nephropathy
c. hypertension
d. nephrotic syndrome
a (pale urine with a high specific gravity)
14) A patient with uncontrolled Diabetes mellitus will most likely have:
a. pale urine with a high specific gravity
b. concentrated urine with a high specific gravity
c. pale urine with a low specific gravity
d. dark urine with a high specific gravity
a (phenylpyruvic acid)
15) While performing an analysis of a baby's urine, the technologist notices the specimen to have a "mousy" odor. Of the following substances that may be excreted in urine, the one that most characteristically produces this odor is:
a. phenylpyruvic acid
b (porphyrins)
17) Urine that develops a port wine color after standing may contain:
a. melanin
b. porphyrins
c. bilirubin
d. urobilinogen
b (porphyrins)
19) Urine from a 50 yr. old man was noted to turn dark red on standing. This change is caused by:
a. glucose
b. porphyrins
c. urochrome
d. creatinine
b (following thorough mixing of the specimen)
20) The clarity of a urine sample should be determined:
a. using glass tubes only; never plastic
b. following thorough mixing of the specimen
c. after addition of sulfosalicylic acid
d. after the specimen cools to room temp
b (many white blood cells)
21) Milky urine from a 24-year-old woman would most likely contain:
a. spermatozoa
b. many white blood cells
c. red blood cells
d. bilirubin
c (melanin)
22) A brown/black urine would most likely contain:
a. bile pigment
b. porphyrins
c. melanin
d. blood cells
a (urochrome pigment)
23) The yellow color of urine is primarily due to:
a. urochrome pigment
b. methemoglobin
c. bilirubin
d. homogenistic acid
c (myoglobin)
24) Red urine may be due to:
a. bilirubin
b. excess urobilin
c. myoglobin
d. homogenistic acid
c (specific gravity)
27) Urine osmolality is related to:
a. pH
b. filtration
c. specific gravity
d. volume
b (concentrate the urine)
28) Urine specific gravity is an index of the ability of the kidney to:
a. filter the plasma
b. concentrate the urine
c. alter the hydrogen ion concentration
d. reabsorb sodium ions
a (dissolved particles, including ions)
29) Osmolality is a measure of:
a. dissolved particles, including ions
b. undissociated molecules only
c. total salt concentration
d. molecule size
c (sodium chloride with a specific gravity of 1.022)
31) To prepare a solution appropriate for quality control of the refractometer, a technician should use:
a. urea with a specific gravity of 1.040
b. water with a specific gravity of 1.005
c. sodium chloride with a specific gravity of 1.022
d. calcium chlo
c (small volume of urine and compensates for temp)
36) Use of a refractometer over a urinometer is preferred due to the fact that the refractometer uses:
a. large volume of urine and compensates for temp
b. small volume of urine and compensates for glucose
c. small volume of urine and compensates for temp
a (reagent strip)
38) The method of choice for performing a specific gravity measurement of urine following administration of x-ray contrast dyes is:
a. reagent strip
b. refractometer
c. urinometer
d. densitometer
b (increases)
43) Upon standing at room temp, a urine pH typically:
a. decreases
b. increases
c. remains the same
d. changes depending on bacterial concentration
c (cool dry area)
44) Urine reagent strips should be stored in a
a. refrigerator (4 - 7 C)
b. incubator (37 C)
c. cool dry area
d. open jar exposed to air
a (albumin)
46) The protein section of the urine reagent strip is most sensitive to:
a. albumin
b. mucoprotein
c. Bence Jones protein
d. globulin
a (sodium nitroprusside)
48) Which of the following reagents is used to react with ketones in the urine?
a. sodium nitroprusside
b. acetoacetic acid
c. acetone
d. beta-hydroxybutyric acid
a (bilirubin)
50) A reagent strip area impregnated with stabilized, diazotized 2,4-sichloroaniline will yield a positive reactions with:
a. bilirubin
b. hemoglobin
c. ketones
d. urobilinogen
d (highly alkaline urine)
53) When employing the urine reagent strip method, a false-positive protein result may occur in the presence of :
a. large amounts of glucose
b. x-ray contrast media
c. Bence Jones protein
d. highly alkaline urine
b (ketones)
54) A 17 yr. old girl decided to go on a starvation diet. After 1 week of starving herself, what substance would most likely be found in her urine?
a. protein
b. ketones
c. glucose
d. blood
a (vomiting)
55) A 2 yr. old child had a positive urine ketone. This would most likely be caused by:
a. vomiting
b. anemia
c. hypoglycemia
d. biliary tract obstruction
a (vitamin C)
58) Microscopic analysis of a urine specimen yields a moderate amount of RBCs in spite of a negative result for occult blood using a reagent strip. The technologist should determine if this patient has taken:
a. vitamin C
b. a diuretic
c. high blood press
a (dissolve 3 g sulfosalicylic acid in 100 mL of water)
62) To prepare the reagent used in confirmatory protein testing, a technician would:
a. dissolve 3 g sulfosalicylic acid in 100 mL of water
b. dissolve 5 g trichloroacetic acid in 100 mL of water.
c. combine 3 mL of hydrochloric and 97 mL of water
d. comb
c (performing an Ictotest)
63) A positive result for bilirubin on a reagent strip should be followed up by:
a. notifying the physician
b. requesting a new specimen
c. performing an Ictotest
d. performing a urobilinogen
d (myoglobin)
64) Ammonium sulfate was added to red urine. The urine had a positive reaction for blood, but no RBCs were seen on microscopic exam. After centrifugation, the supernatant fluid is red. The abnormal color is caused by:
a. pyriduim
b. hemoglobin
c. porphyri
c (1:6)
65) A urine tested with Clinitest exhibits a pass-through reaction and is diluted by adding 2 drops of urine to 10 drops of water. This dilution is:
a. 1:4
b. 1:5
c. 1:6
d. 1:8
b (confirm with the acid precipitation test)
66) When performing a routine urinalysis, the technologist notes a 2+ protein result. He should:
a. request another specimen
b. confirm with the acid precipitation test
c. test for Bence Jones protein
d. report the result obtained without further testing
c (sulfosalicylic acid)
67) The confirmatory test for a positive protein result by the reagent strip method uses:
a. Ehrlich reagent
b. a diazo reaction
c. sulfosalicylic acid
d. a copper reduction tablet
b (glucose is present)
68) A urine specimen is analyzed for glucose by a glucose oxidase reagent strip and a copper reduction test. If both results are positive, which of the following interpretations is correct?
a. galactose is present
b. glucose is present
c. lactose is not p
b (galactose)
70) An urinalysis performed on a 2 week old infant with diarrhea shows a negative reaction with the glucose oxidase reagent strip. A copper reduction tablet test should be performed to check the urine sample for the presence of:
a. glucose
b. galactose
c.
a (10x)
73) In most compound light microscopes, the ocular lens has a magnification of:
a. 10x
b. 40x
c. 50x
d. 100x
c (lower the rheostat)
74) The best way to lower the light intensity of the microscope is to:
a. lower the condenser
b. adjust the aperture diaphragm
c. lower the rheostat
d. raise the condenser
b (enhance constituents with a low refractive index)
75) The advantage to using phase microscopy in urinalysis is to :
a. provide higher magnification
b. enhance constituents with a low refractive index
c. allow constituents to stain more clearly
d. provide a larger field of view
d (pyuria)
76) The presence of leukocytes in the urine is known as:
a. chyluria
b. hematuria
c. leukocytosis
d. pyuria
b (renal tubular epithelial cells that contain lipids)
77) Oval fat bodies are:
a. squamous epithelial cells that contain lipids
b. renal tubular epithelial cells that contain lipids
c. free-floating fat droplets
d. white blood cells with phagocytized lipids
b (specific gravity <1.007)
78) A microscopic exam of urine sediment reveals ghost cells. These RBCs are seen in urine with a:
a. >2% glucose concentrations
b. specific gravity <1.007
c. large amounts of ketone bodies
d. neutral pH
d (white blood cells in hypotonic urine)
79) Glitter cells are a microscopic finding of:
a. RBC in hypertonic urine
b. RBC in hypotonic urine
c. white blood cells in hypertonic urine
d. white blood cells in hypotonic urine
c (squamous)
80) What cell is most commonly associated with vaginal contamination?
a. white
b. transitional
c. squamous
d. glitter
b (hemoglobinuria)
81) A reagent strip test for blood has been reported positive. Microscopic exam fails to yield RBCs. This patient's condition can be called:
a. hematuria
b. hemoglobinuria
c. oliguria
d. hemosiderinuria
b (alkaline and dilute)
82) Ghost RBCs are seen in urine that is:
a. acidic and dilute
b. alkaline and dilute
c. acidic and concentrated
d. alkaline and concentrated
b (dilute)
83) The possibility of detecting glitter cells is associated with urine that is:
a. acidic
b. dilute
c. alkaline
d. concentrated
a (squamous epithelial cells)
85) Clue cells are a form of:
a. squamous epithelial cells
b. urothelial cell
c. white blood cell
d. renal tubular epithelial cell
b (urothelial cell)
86) Which of the following cells is most likely to be seen in the urine sediment following a catheterization procedure?
a. squamous epithelial cell
b. urothelial cell
c. white blood cell
d. renal tubular epithelial cell
d (the presence of myoglobin in the urine specimen)
87) A patient admitted following an accident involving massive crush injuries has the following urinalysis results:
The discrepancy between the large amount of blood and the absence of RBCs on microscopy is caused by:
a. failure to mix the specimen before
d (cystitis)
88) What is the most likely diagnosis given this microscopic finding?
a. glomerulonephritis
b. pyelonephritis
c. nephrotic syndrome
d. cystitis
a (RBC)
89) Identify the formed element in this photomicrograph:
a. RBC
b. WBC
c. epithelial cell
d. yeast
d (Tamm-Horsfall glycoprotein)
90) All casts typically contain:
a. albumin
b. globulin
c. immunoglobulins G and M
d. Tamm-Horsfall glycoprotein
b (under subdued light)
91) Hyaline casts are usually found:
a. in the center of the coverslip
b. under subdued light
c. under very bright light
d. in the supernatant
a (hyaline)
92) Which of the following casts is most likely to be found in healthy people?
a. hyaline
b. RBC
c. waxy
d. WBC
d (waxy)
93) Which of the following casts is most indicative of end stage renal disease?
a. hemoglobin
b. granular
c. cellular
d. waxy
b (eccentrically-placed nucleus in the renal tubular cell)
95) Which of the following aids in differentiating a spherical transitional cell from a round renal tubular cell?
a. spherical transitional cell is larger
b. eccentrically-placed nucleus in the renal tubular cell
c. eccentrically-placed nucleus in the sph
d (WBC casts)
96) The urine microscopic constituents that best differentiate between cystitis and pyelonephritis are:
a. WBCs
b. bacteria
c. RBCs
d. WBC casts
b (strenuous exercise)
98) Granular casts found in the urine of a football player admitted to the hospital with a broken leg occurring during the game can be the result of:
a. excessive bruising
b. strenuous exercise
c. excess power drink ingestion
d. bone fracture
c (Waxy)
99) Which of the following casts most frequently appears to have a brittle consistency?
a. hyaline
b. granular
c. waxy
d. fatty
d (the presence of a cast matrix)
100) To distinguish between a clump of WBCs and a WBC cast it is important to observe:
a. the presence of free floating WBCs
b. a positive leukocyte reaction
c. a positive nitrite reaction
d. the presence of a cast matrix
b (renal tubular epithelial cell)
101) Spherical urothelial cells may be confused with:
a. oval fat bodies
b. renal tubular epithelial cell
c. glitter cells
d. lymphocytes
a (free-floating RBCs)
102) Prior to reporting a RBC cast, it is important to observe:
a. free floating RBCs
b. hyaline casts
c. granular casts
d. increased WBCs
d (renal tubular epithelial cells)
103) In a specimen with a large amount of bilirubin, which of the following sediment constituents would be most noticeably bile-stained?
a. squamous epithelial cells
b. WBC casts
c. cystine crystals
d. renal tubular epithelial cells
a (glomerulonephritis)
104) What is the most likely diagnosis given this microscopic finding?
a. glomerulonephritis
b. pyelonephritis
c. nephrotic syndrome
d. cystitis
c (Amorphous phosphates)
105) A white precipitate in a urine specimen with a pH of 7.5 would most probably be caused by:
a. amorphous urates
b. WBCs
c. amorphous phosphates
d. bacteria
a (Cystine)
106) Which of the following is an abnormal crystal described as a hexagonal plate?
a. cystine
b. tyrosine
c. leucine
d. cholesterol
a (urates)
108) After warming, a cloudy urine clears. This is due to the presence of:
a. urates
b. phosphates
c. WBCs
d. bacteria
b (Calcium carbonate)
109) Tiny colorless dumbbell shaped crystals were found in an alkaline urine sediment. They most likely are:
a. calcium oxalate
b. calcium carbonate
c. calcium phosphate
d. amorphous phosphate
b (Calcium oxalate)
110) Which of the following crystals may be found in acidic urine:
a. calcium carbonate
b. calcium oxalate
c. calcium phosphate
d. triple phosphate
d (Tyrosine)
112) Which of the following crystals appear as fine, silky needles?
a. cholesterol
b. leucine
c. hemosiderin
d. tyrosine
c (tyrosine)
113) Which of the following crystals is seen in an amber urine with a positive bilirubin?
a. ammonium biurate
b. cystine
c. tyrosine
d. uric acid
b (oval/dumbbell)
114) Following ingestion of ethylene glycol, numerous crystals are found in the urine. The shape of these crystals is:
a. flat with notched corners
b. oval/dumbbell
c. coffin-lid
d. rosettes/rhomboid
b (4+ protein)
115) Cholesterol crystals will most likely be observed in urine that contains:
a. 3+ glucose
b. 4+ protein
c. WBC casts
d. triple phosphate crystals
b (alkaline pH and is nonpathologic)
117) The following crystal is found in:
a. acid pH and is nonpathologic
b. alkaline pH and is nonpathologic
c. acid pH and is pathologic
d. alkaline pH and is pathologic
a (Uric acid)
118) Identify this crystal:
a. uric acid
b. calcium phosphate
c. calcium carbonate
d. triple phosphate acid
d (dissolved with acetic acid)
119) Alkaline urine showed this microscopic finding.
The technologist should:
a. dilute with saline
b. request a new sample
c. culture for bacteria
d. dissolve with acetic acid
a (fibers and mucus clumps)
120) Polarized light can often be used to differentiate between:
a. fibers and mucus clumps
b. hyaline and waxy casts
c. squamous and transitional epithelial cells
d. RBCs and WBCs
a (Starch)
121) Which of the following contaminants has a dimpled center and will polarize?
a. starch
b. oil droplets
c. air bubbles
d. pollen grains
b (powder)
122) The presence of this element in urine indicates the presence of:
a. a UTI
b. powder
c. carbohydrate deficiency
d. high urine amylase
a (Cloth fiber)
123) Identify the formed element in this photomicrograph:
a. cloth fiber
b. hyaline cast
c. granular cast
d. waxy cast
b (lyse the RBCs)
124) A technologist is having trouble differentiating between RBCs, oil droplets and yeast cells on a urine microscopy. Acetic acid should be added to the sediment to:
a. lyse the yeast cells
b. lyse the RBCs
c. dissolve the oil droplets
d. crenate the RB
a (diabetes mellitus)
125) A urine specimen is tested and has the following results:
This is indicative of:
a. diabetes mellitus
b. contamination
c. pyelonephritis
d. diabetes insipidus
b (pH)
126) When identifying urinary crystals, which reagent strip result is most important?
a. protein
b. pH
c. specific gravity
d. nitrite
d (leukocytes is positive)
127) Bacteria are considered significant in the urine sediment when the:
a. nitrite is positive
b. protein is positive
c. specimen is cloudy
d. leukocytes is positive
b (Trichomonas vaginalis)
128) Which of the following exhibits rapid motility in urine sediment?
a. spermatozoa
b. Trichomonas vaginalis
c. Gardnerella vaginalis
d. Enterobius vermicularis
c (glucose)
129) Which of the following positive chemical reactions is most closely associated with the presence of yeast in the urine sediment?
a. nitrite
b. protein
c. glucose
d. blood
d (nitrate)
130) What of the following is consistent with this urine microscopic finding?
a. ketone
b. glucose
c. specific gravity
d. nitrate
a (renal glycosuria)
131) A 21 yr. old woman had glucose in her urine with a normal blood sugar. These findings are most consistent with:
a. renal glycosuria
b. diabetes insipidus
c. diabetes mellitus
d. alkaline tide
d (pH and microscopic examination)
133) The results of a urinalysis on a first morning specimen are:
The next step is to repeat the:
a. microscopic examination
b. protein and glucose
c. specific gravity
d. pH and microscopic examination
c (glucose and possibly other reducing substances/ sugars are present)
134) The following urinalysis results were obtained from an 18-year-old woman in labor:
Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the patient's positive copper reduction test?
a. only glucose is present
b. only lactose is present
c. glucos
d (Pyelonephritis)
135) The following urine results were obtained on a 25-year-old female:
These results are most compatible with:
a. glomerulonephritis
b. renal calculus
c. cystitis
d. pyelonephritis
d (glomerulonephritis)
136) A urinalysis performed on a 27-year-old woman yields the following results:
These findings are most consistent with:
a. yeast infection
b. pyelonephritis
c. bacterial cystitis
d. glomerulonephritis
a (nephrotic syndrome)
137) A 62 yr. old patient with hyperlipoproteinemia has a large amount of protein in his urine. Microscopic analysis yields moderate to many fatty, waxy, granular and cellular casts. Many oval fat bodies are also noted. This is most consistent with:
a. ne
a (protein, glucose and microscopy of A are false negatives because of the specific gravity)
138) A patient has 2 separate urinalysis reports, which contain the following data:
Which of the following statements best explains these results?
a. protein, glucose and microscopy of A are false negatives because of the specific gravity
b. protein and g
c (acute interstitial nephritis)
140) A specimen with a negative nitrate reaction and a positive leukocytes reaction that has WBCs, WBC casts and no bacteria in the sediment will be seen in cases of:
a. cystitis
b. pyelonephritis
c. acute interstitial nephritis
d. acute glomerulonephriti
b (ask the patient to collect another specimen at the office)
141) Urinalysis results on a female patient who brings a urine specimen to the physician's office for her annual physical are:
What action should be taken?
a. place the patient on a broad spectrum antibiotic for 7 days
b. ask the patient to collect anothe
c (Candida albicans)
143) The sediment of a urine specimen with a reagent strip glucose of 250 mg/dL and a pH of 5.5 is ideal for the presence of:
a. cystine crystals
b. Trichomonas vaginalis
c. Candida albicans
d. thorny apple crystals
c (160 mg/dL)
145) The normal renal threshold for glucose in the adult is approximately:
a. 50 mg/dL
b. 100 mg/dL
c. 160 mg/dL
d. 300 mg/dL
b (oliguria)
146) The volume of urine excreted in a 24 hr. period by an adult patient was 300 mL. This condition would be termed:
a. anuria
b. oliguria
c. polyuria
d. dysuria
b (diabetes mellitus)
147) A patient has glucosuria, hyperglycemia and polyuria. These findings are most consistent with:
a. renal glucosuria
b. diabetes mellitus
c. emotional stress
d. eating a heavy meal
c (water, urea and sodium chloride)
149) Normal urine primarily consists of:
a. water, protein, and sodium
b. water, urea, and protein
c. water, urea, and sodium chloride
d. water, urea and bilirubin
c (test for urea and creatinine)
150) An abdominal fluid is submitted from surgery. The physician wants to determine if this fluid could be urine. The technologist should:
a. perform a culture
b. smell the fluid
c. test for urea and creatinine
d. test for protein, glucose and pH
d (large molecular weight proteins)
152) Which of the following components are present in serum but not present in the glomerular filtrate?
a. glucose
b. amino acids
c. urea
d. large molecular weight proteins
b (diabetes mellitus)
153) Polyuria is usually correlated with:
a. acute glomerulonephritis
b. diabetes mellitus
c. hepatitis
d. tubular damage
d (anuria)
154) Cessation of urine flow is defined as:
a. azotemia
b. dysuria
c. diuresis
d. anuria
b (galactose)
155) The reason for performing a Clinitest on a newborn's urine is to check for:
a. fructose
b. galactose
c. glucose
d. lactose
b (incomplete fat metabolism)
156) Ketones in urine are due to:
a. complete utilization of fatty acids
b. incomplete fat metabolism
c. high carbohydrate diets
d. renal tubular dysfunction
b (acetoacetic acid)
157) Reagent strip tests for ketones measure primarily:
a. acetone
b. acetoacetic acid
c. cholesterol
d. beta-hydroxbutyric acid
c (viral hepatitis)
158) Bilirubinuria may be associated with:
a. strenuous exercise
b. increased destruction of platelets
c. viral hepatitis
d. hemolytic anemia
c (renal tubular dysfunction)
161) Glycosuria may be due to:
a. hypoglycemia
b. increased renal threshold
c. renal tubular dysfunction
d. increased glomerular filtration rate
d (juxtamedullary nephrons)
163) The urinary tract structures responsible for renal concentration are the:
a. renal pelvis
b. cortical nephrons
c. renal papillae
d. juxtamedullary nephrons
a (Osmolarity)
164) The most accurate test to determine renal concentration is:
a. osmolarity
b. glomerular filtration rate
c. specific gravity
d. tubular reabsorption rate
d (select an aliquot from the last tube collected)
166) To avoid falsely elevated spinal fluid cell counts :
a. use an aliquot from the first tube collected
b. use only those specimens showing no turbidity
c. centrifuge all specimens before counting
d. select an aliquot from the last tube collected
d (glacial acetic acid)
169) To prepare the reagent used for mucin clot determination of synovial fluid, water is mixed with:
a. hydrochloric acid
b. sodium hydroxide
c. trichloroacetic acid
d. glacial acetic acid
b (Horseradish)
180) False-positive results can occur for fecal occult blood due to the ingestion of:
a. ascorbic acid
b. horseradish
c. acetaminophen
d. blueberries
a (gum guaiac)
181) The chromogen for the fecal occult blood test is:
a. gum guaiac
b. NADH
c. o-toluidine
d. p-aminocinnamaldehyde
a (an effusion)
182) A buildup of fluid in a body cavity is called:
a. an effusion
b. a transudate
c. an exudate
d. metastasis
d (paracentesis)
184) Ascites is collected by:
a. thoracentesis
b. lumbar puncture
c. amniocentesis
d. paracentesis
a (fetal lung maturity [FLM])
185) Amniotic fluid is tested for the concentration of lamellar bodies. This test determines:
a. fetal lung maturity (FLM)
b. HDFN
c. alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
d. trisomy 21
b (to confirm a high maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein)
186) Amniocentesis should be performed to:
a. screen for Down syndrome
b. to confirm a high maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein
c. to test bilirubin levels for an Rh pos. mother
d. test folic acid levels in fetal blood
d (Cystic fibrosis)
187) A sweat chloride >60 mEq/L (60 mmol/L) is indicative of:
a. multiple sclerosis
b. muscular dystrophy
c. respiratory distress syndrome
d. cystic fibrosis
a (Delta-F508)
188) The most common genetic defect associated with cystic fibrosis is called:
a. delta-F508
b. trisomy 21
c. Philadelphia chromosome
d. fragile X
d (traumatic tap)
191) A CSF was collected from a 5 yr. old with a fever and 3 tubes were transported to the lab. Tube 1 had 50,000 RBC/mL and 48 WBC/mL. Tube 3 had 10 RBC/mL and 0 WBC/mL. What is the most likely explanation for the discrepancy?
a. tube 3 was QNS
b. bacter
b (Opalescent)
193) The appearance of normal CSF is:
a. pale yellow and clear
b. colorless and clear
c. opalescent
d. xanthochromic
b (11)
194) A CSF was hazy and the WBC was too high to perform undiluted. The technologist took 50 mL of sample and added 500 mL of saline. The cell count on the diluted sample was 200 WBC/mL. This should be multiplied by:
a. 10
b. 11
c. 1/10
d. 1/11
c (previous hemorrhage)
195) The finding of hemosiderin laden macrophage in a CSF sample indicates:
a. bacterial infection
b. viral infection
c. previous hemorrhage
d. traumatic tap
a (sample A)
196) Which CSF results are most consistent with bacterial meningitis?
a. sample A
b. sample B
c. sample C
d. sample D
a (Glutamine)
197) Which of the following is the best indicator of Reye syndrome for CSF (hepatic encephalopathy):
a. glutamine
b. ammonia
c. ALT
d. bilirubin
a (CSF)
198) The tau isoform of transferrin is a carbohydrate deficient protein found only in:
a. CSF
b. sweat
c. amniotic fluid
d. semen
a (PSA)
199) Which marker can be used to identify a body fluid as semen?
a. PSA
b. alkaline phosphatase
c. fructose
d. hyaluronic acid
a (eosin-nigrosin)
200) Which stain is used to measure sperm viability?
a. eosin nigrosin
b. Wright
c. toluidine blue
d. Papanicolaou
a (3 x 3 x 0.1 mm.)
201) The dimensions of a hemacytometer are:
a. 3 x 3 x 0.1 mm
b. 1 x 1 x 10 mm
c. 3 x 10 x 1 mm
d. 1 x 1 x 0.3 mm
d (4.0)
202) Rapid forward progression of sperm is rated as:
a. 1.0
b. 2.0
c. 3.0
d. 4.0
a (inducing sweat)
204) Pilocarpine iontophoresis refers to the specific process of:
a. inducing sweat
b. separating proteins in CSF
c. measuring ions in sweat
d. measuring pilocarpine in CSF
c (Sweat conductivity)
206) Methods used as screening tests for cystic fibrosis include:
a. coulometric Cl measurement
b. Cl selective electrodes
c. sweat conductivity
d. pilocarpine iontophorisis
c (dark green --- HDFN)
207) Which pair does not match with respect to amniotic fluid?
a. colorless --- normal
b. dark red/brown --- fetal death
c. dark green --- HDFN
d. blood-streaked --- traumatic tap
a (bilirubin, which increases in HDN)
208) Amniotic fluid is evaluated using a Liley graph and change in absorbance at 450 nm. What is being evaluated and why?
a. bilirubin, which increases in HDN
b. AFP, which increases in spina bifida
c. SCG, which increases in Down syndrome
d. lamellar bod
a (detect intra-abdominal bleeding in blunt injury)
211) Peritoneal lavage is used to:
a. detect intra-abdominal bleeding in blunt injury
b. dialyze patients with end stage renal disease
c. replace ascites with saline
d. perform therapeutic thoracentesis.
c (ANA)
212) Tumor markers that can be measured on body fluids include all except:
a. CEA
b. CA 125
c. ANA
d. CYFRA 21-1
d (motility of 1.0)
213) Which semen result is abnormal?
a. sample pours in droplets after 60 minutes
b. >50% are motile within 1 hour of collection
c. pH 7.5
d. motility of 1.0
a (bacterial meningitis)
214) Increased CSF lactate is found in:
a. bacterial meningitis
b. Reye encephalopathy
c. spina bifida
d. multiple sclerosis
d (CSF leakage)
215) Decreased CSF protein can be found in:
a. meningitis
b. hemorrhage
c. multiple sclerosis
d. CSF leakage
b (CSF/serum albumin index)
216) What calculation is used to determine if there is a breach in the blood brain barrier?
a. IgG index
b. CSF / serum albumin index
c. fluid / serum LD ratio
d. albumin gradient