4) Complete the following statement using the choices below. Air moves out of the lungs when the pressure inside the lungs is ________.
A) equal to the pressure in the atmosphere
B) less than the pressure in the atmosphere
C) greater than the intra-alveol
D
5) Which of the following is true regarding normal quiet expiration of air?
A) It depends on the complete lack of surface tension on the alveolar wall.
B) It is a passive process that depends on the recoil of elastic fibers that were stretched during insp
B
7) Intrapulmonary pressure is the ________.
A) difference between atmospheric pressure and respiratory pressure
B) pressure within the pleural cavity
C) pressure within the alveoli of the lungs
D) negative pressure in the intrapleural space
C
8) The relationship between gas pressure and gas volume is described by ________.
A) Dalton's law
B) Charles' law
C) Boyle's law
D) Henry's law
C
9) The statement, "in a mixture of gases, the total pressure is the sum of the individual partial pressures of gases in the mixture" paraphrases ________.
A) Charles' law
B) Henry's law
C) Boyle's law
D) Dalton's law
D
10) Surfactant helps to prevent the alveoli from collapsing by ________.
A) humidifying the air before it enters
B) protecting the surface of alveoli from dehydration and other environmental variations
C) warming the air before it enters
D) interfering wi
D
13) The local matching of blood flow with ventilation is ________.
A) ventilation-perfusion coupling
B) the Bohr effect
C) the Haldane effect
D) chloride shifting
A
16) Which of the choices below describes the forces that act to pull the lungs away from the thorax wall and thus collapse the lungs?
A) compliance and transpulmonary pressures
B) compliance and the surface tension of the alveolar fluid
C) the natural ten
C
17) Which of the following counteracts the movement of bicarbonate ions from the RBC?
A) the Bohr effect
B) the Haldane effect
C) release of hydrogen ion
D) chloride shifting
D
19) Which of the following refers to the movement of air into and out of the lungs?
A) pulmonary ventilation
B) external respiration
C) internal respiration
D) gas exchange
A
20) The major nonelastic source of resistance to air flow in the respiratory passageways is ________.
A) air pressure
B) friction
C) surfactant
D) surface tension
B
21) Which of the following determines lung compliance?
A) muscles of inspiration
B) alveolar surface tension
C) airway opening
D) flexibility of the thoracic cage
B
22) Tidal volume is air ________.
A) exchanged during normal breathing
B) remaining in the lungs after forced expiration
C) inhaled after normal inspiration
D) forcibly expelled after normal expiration
A
24) The lung volume that represents the total volume of exchangeable air is the ________.
A) tidal volume
B) expiratory reserve volume
C) inspiratory capacity
D) vital capacity
D
25) Which of the following is correct regarding acclimatization?
A) At high altitudes, hemoglobin's affinity for O2 is increased because BPG concentrations increase.
B) High-altitude conditions always result in lower-than-normal hemoglobin saturation leve
B
26) Which of the following is NOT a stimulus for breathing?
A) rising blood pressure
B) arterial PO2 below 60 mm Hg
C) acidosis resulting from CO2 retention
D) rising carbon dioxide levels
A
27) The amount of air that can be inspired above the tidal volume is called ________.
A) inspiratory reserve volume
B) vital capacity
C) reserve air
D) expiratory capacity
A
28) Which statement about CO2 is FALSE?
A) More CO2 dissolves in the blood plasma than is carried in the RBCs.
B) Its concentration in the blood is decreased by hyperventilation.
C) CO2 concentrations are greater in venous blood than arterial blood.
D) It
A
29) Oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged in the lungs and through all cell membranes by ________.
A) active transport
B) filtration
C) diffusion
D) osmosis
C
30) Select the correct statement about the pharynx.
A) The pharyngeal tonsil is located in the laryngopharynx.
B) The palatine tonsils are embedded in the lateral walls of the nasopharynx.
C) The laryngopharynx blends posteriorly into the nasopharynx.
D)
D
31) The larynx contains ________.
A) lateral cartilage ridges called false vocal folds
B) the thyroid cartilage
C) an upper pair of avascular mucosal folds called true vocal folds
D) a cricoid cartilage also called the Adam's apple
B
32) Which respiratory-associated muscles would contract or relax during forced expiration, for example blowing up a balloon?
A) external intercostals would contract and diaphragm would relax
B) internal intercostals and abdominal muscles would contract
C)
B
33) How is the bulk of carbon dioxide transported in blood?
A) as carbonic acid in the plasma
B) as bicarbonate ions in plasma after first entering the red blood cells
C) chemically combined with the heme portion of hemoglobin
D) chemically combined with
B
34) Which of the choices below is NOT a role of the pleurae?
A) allow the lungs to easily glide easily over the thorax wall during breathing movements
B) assist in blood flow to and from the heart because the heart sits between the lungs
C) help limit the
B
35) Which of the following INCORRECTLY describes mechanisms of CO2 transport?
A) as bicarbonate ions in plasma
B) 7-10% of CO2 is dissolved directly into the plasma
C) just over 20% of CO2 is carried in the form of carbaminohemoglobin
D) attached to the h
D
36) Factors that influence the rate and depth of breathing include ________.
A) stretch receptors in the alveoli
B) temperature of alveolar air
C) voluntary cortical control
D) thalamic control
C
37) The respiratory membrane is a combination of ________.
A) respiratory bronchioles and alveolar ducts
B) alveolar and capillary walls and their fused basement membranes
C) respiratory bronchioles and alveolar sacs
D) atria and alveolar sacs
B
39) Inspiratory capacity is ________.
A) air inspired after a tidal inhalation
B) functional residual capacity
C) the total amount of exchangeable air
D) the total amount of air that can be inspired after a tidal expiration
D
45) Which of the choices below is NOT a factor that promotes oxygen binding to and dissociation from hemoglobin?
A) number of red blood cells
B) temperature
C) partial pressure of oxygen
D) partial pressure of carbon dioxide
A
46) Which of the following is responsible for holding the lungs to the thorax wall are ________.
A) the visceral pleurae and the changing volume of the lungs
B) the smooth muscles of the lung
C) the diaphragm and the intercostal muscles alone
D) surface t
D
49) Which of the following is INCORRECT?
A) The amount of gas flowing in and out of the alveoli is directly proportional to the difference in pressure or pressure gradient between the external atmosphere and the alveoli.
B) Resistance equals pressure grad
C
50) Select the correct statement about the physical factors influencing pulmonary ventilation.
A) Surfactant helps increase alveolar surface tension.
B) A lung that is less elastic will require less muscle action to perform adequate ventilation.
C) A decr
D
51) Select the correct statement about oxygen transport in blood.
A) During conditions of acidosis, hemoglobin is able to carry oxygen more efficiently.
B) Increased BPG levels in the red blood cells enhance oxygen-carrying capacity.
C) A 50% oxygen satur
C
52) Which of the disorders below is characterized by destruction of the walls of the alveoli producing abnormally large air spaces that remain filled with air during exhalation?
A) coryza
B) tuberculosis
C) pneumonia
D) emphysema
D
54) For inspiration of air, which of the following happens first?
A) diaphragm descends and rib cage rises
B) intrapulmonary pressure drops
C) air (gases) flows into lungs
D) thoracic cavity volume decreases
A
55) Spirometry results reveal a vital capacity of two liters which is well below the predicted value of five liters. This suggests which disorder?
A) emphysema
B) asthma
C) restrictive disease
D) obstructive pulmonary disease
C
56) The law that applies to the amount of CO2 you could dissolve in a soda is called ________ law.
A) Boyle's
B) Dalton's
C) Henry's
D) Murphy's
C
60) Which of the following anchor(s) the vocal folds?
A) cuneiform cartilages
B) arytenoid cartilages
C) cricoid cartilage
D) corniculate cartilages
B
61) Which of the following is a conducting zone structure?
A) respiratory bronchiole
B) terminal bronchiole
C) alveolar sac
D) alveolar duct
B
1) The enterohepatic circulation reabsorbs bile salts in the distal portion of the small intestine (ileum). All of the following statements about the enterohepatic circulation are true except one. Select the statement below that is not true of the enteroh
B
2) Which of the following is the best illustration of the difference between metabolism and digestion?
A) Digestion has a wide variety of chemical reactions while metabolism is restricted to only a few reaction types.
B) Digestions must happen first for m
C
5) Which of the following is the best explanation of the benefit in the digestive system having the largest collection of lymphoid tissue (MALT) at the distal end of the small intestine?
A) The alkaline secretion of the small intestine aid in the growth o
C
6) Bile salts bind at their hydrophobic regions to large fat globules within the chyme that enters the duodenum. Bile salts break up the fat globule into smaller fat droplets. This role of bile salts is best described as ________.
A) lipid emulsification
A
9) All but one of the following is a function of the low pH found in the stomach. Select the description below that does not reflect a role of stomach acid.
A) The stomach's acid catabolically breaks down food stuffs in preparation for absorption.
B) Stom
A
10) Fat absorption through the plasma membrane of epithelial cells ________.
A) Is accomplished by cotransporters that use the concentration gradient of Na+ outside of the cells
B) requires vesicular, active transport of the relatively large fatty acids a
C
11) Select the best explanation for why protease enzymes are secreted in inactive forms.
A) Inactive enzymes will simply be expelled with the feces if no protein is present in the digesting food, this will help to conserve energy.
B) The immunoglobulins p
D
12) Select the description below that illustrates a difference between a sphincter and circular muscle.
A) A sphincter is a thickening of circular muscle that can prevent the movement of digesting materials while circular muscle is involved in propulsion
A
13) In the enteric nervous system, a long reflexive pathway has an advantage over a short reflexive pathway in the fact that ________.
A) long reflexive pathways last much longer than short reflexive pathways
B) long reflexive pathways can respond through
D
14) The sight of food can trigger a series of events that results in the release of gastric juice. All but one of the following is true in regards to the previous statement. Select the one answer that is not true.
A) This prepares the stomach for food bef
C
15) All of the following are true of swallowing (deglutition) except one. Select the statement that is not true of swallowing.
A) The involuntary portion of swallowing takes place in the pharynx.
B) The mouth, pharynx and esophagus all take part in swallo
C
16) Some antacid drugs block histamine receptors, resulting in reduction of the production and excretion of stomach acid. These drugs have the biggest effect on which of the following?
A) surface epithelial cells
B) chief cells
C) mucous neck cells
D) par
D
17) Generally the hormones secretin and cholecystokinin which are released by duodenal enteroendocrine cells will ________.
A) speed the churning of the stomach
B) increases the output of stomach acid
C) speed the activity of the jejunum
D) slow the activ
D
18) Generally the hormones secretin and cholecystokinin which are released by duodenal enteroendocrine cells will ________.
A) decrease the activities of the accessory digestive organs
B) increases stomach emptying
C) increase the force of stomach contrac
D
19) Select the one response below that would not result from a drug that blocks histamine receptors in the cells lining the stomach.
A) It would reduce the symptoms of heartburn.
B) It would cause the release of secretin and cholecystokinin.
C) It would l
B
20) Proteins entering the stomach act as a buffer raising pH. Rising pH stimulates the activity of G-cells in the lining of the stomach. All of the following but one will occur. Select the statement below that would not occur.
A) More stomach acid will be
B
21) The mechanical and chemical receptors that control digestive activity are located ________.
A) in the walls of the tract organs
B) in the glandular tissue that surround the organ lumen
C) in the oral cavity
D) in the pons and medulla
A
22) The function of the hepatic portal circulation is to ________.
A) return glucose to the general circulation when blood sugar is low
B) carry toxins to the kidney for disposal through the urinary tract
C) distribute hormones throughout the body
D) coll
D
23) The chemical and mechanical processes of food breakdown are called ________.
A) secretion
B) ingestion
C) absorption
D) digestion
D
24) When we ingest large molecules such as lipids, carbohydrates, and proteins, they must undergo catabolic reactions whereby enzymes split these molecules. This series of reactions is called ________.
A) mechanical breakdown
B) absorption
C) secretion
D)
D
25) The sheets of peritoneal membrane that hold the digestive tract in place are called ________.
A) mucosal lining
B) lamina propria
C) serosal lining
D) mesenteries
D
27) Which of the following is not a factor that helps create the stomach mucosal barrier?
A) replacing of damaged epithelial mucosa cells
B) thick coating of bicarbonate-rich mucus
C) secretion of pepsinogen
D) tight junctions of epithelial mucosa cells
C
28) What part of the tooth bears the force and resists the friction of chewing?
A) crown
B) enamel
C) cementum
D) pulp
B
29) The capillaries that nourish the epithelium and absorb digested nutrients lie in the ________.
A) adventitia
B) lamina propria
C) submucosa
D) serosa
B
30) Choose the incorrect statement regarding bile.
A) Bile functions to emulsify fats.
B) Bile contains enzymes for digestion.
C) Bile functions to carry bilirubin formed from breakdown of worn-out RBCs.
D) Bile is both an excretory product and a digestiv
B
31) The absorptive effectiveness of the small intestine is enhanced by increasing the surface area of the mucosal lining. Which of the following accomplish this task?
A) the vast array of digestive enzymes
B) the rugae and haustra
C) villi, and microvilli
C
34) Which of the following is not true of saliva?
A) moistens food and aids in compacting of the bolus
B) cleanses the mouth
C) contains enzymes that begin the breakdown of carbohydrates
D) contains acids which aid in chemical digestion
D
35) The solutes contained in saliva include ________.
A) mucin, lysozyme, electrolytes, salts, and minerals
B) only proteases and amylase
C) electrolytes, digestive enzyme, mucin, lysozyme, wastes, and IgA
D) only salts and minerals
C
36) The bolus is liquefied in the ________ and it is now called chyme.
A) esophagus
B) stomach
C) small intestine
D) mouth
B
40) The ducts that deliver bile and pancreatic juice from the liver and pancreas, respectively, unite to form the ________.
A) hepatopancreatic ampulla
B) bile canaliculus
C) pancreatic acini
D) portal vein
A
42) Hepatocytes do not ________.
A) store fat-soluble vitamins
B) produce digestive enzymes
C) process nutrients
D) detoxify toxic chemicals
B
45) The ________ contains lobules with sinusoids (lined with macrophages) that lead to a central venous structure.
A) stomach
B) spleen
C) liver
D) pancreas
C
47) The dental formula for an adult is 2-1-2-3. What does the 1 stand for?
A) premolar tooth
B) canine tooth
C) molar tooth
D) incisor tooth
B
48) The lamina propria is composed of ________.
A) dense irregular connective tissue
B) dense regular connective tissue
C) reticular connective tissue
D) loose connective tissue
D
49) Which of the following is (are) not important as a stimulus in the gastric phase of gastric secretion?
A) distention
B) peptides
C) low acidity
D) carbohydrates
D
50) The function of goblet cells is to ________.
A) provide protection against invading bacteria and other disease-causing organisms that enter the digestive tract in food
B) secrete buffers in order to keep the pH of the digestive tract close to neutral
C
51) Which of the following is an essential role played by large intestine bacteria?
A) absorb bilirubin
B) synthesize vitamins C and D
C) fermentation of indigestible carbohydrates
D) produce gas
c
52) Nervous control of gastric secretion is provided by ________.
A) somatic neurons in the spinal cord
B) the vagus nerve and enteric plexus
C) the reticulospinal and vestibulospinal tracts
D) the rubrospinal tracts
B
53) Which of the following are types of papillae on the tongue that contain taste buds?
A) palatine and circumvallate
B) fungiform, circumvallate, and filiform
C) circumvallate and filiform
D) fungiform and circumvallate
D
*****54) Which of the following produce intrinsic factor?
A) mucous neck cells
B) zymogenic cells
C) enteroendocrine cells
D) parietal cells
D
55) Which of the following enzymes would be most active in the presents of a high concentrations of protein fragments?
A) lipase
B) trypsin
C) amylase
D) dextrinase
B
57) What stomach secretion is necessary for normal hemoglobin production in RBCs?
A) pepsinogen
B) gastric lipase
C) intrinsic factor
D) HCl
C
58) Select the correct statement about the regulation of gastric secretion.
A) Gastric secretion can be stimulated before food has entered the mouth.
B) The presence of food in the stomach prevents hormonal control of gastric secretion.
C) Vagus stimulati
A
60) Select the correct statement about absorption.
A) Eighty percent of ingested materials have been absorbed by the end of the large intestine.
B) In the rare case that intact, whole proteins are transported across the mucosal endothelium, an immune resp
B
61) Select the correct statement about electrolyte absorption.
A) Chlorine ion absorption is coupled to glucose and amino acid transport.
B) If vitamin B is not present, calcium is not absorbed.
C) Iron and calcium are absorbed mostly by the duodenum.
D)
C
62) The ingestion of a meal high in fat content would cause which of the following to occur?
A) This type of food would cause secretion of gastrin to cease, resulting in faster gastric emptying.
B) Increased production of trypsinogen.
C) Bile would be rel
C
63) Hormones or paracrines that inhibit gastric secretion include ________.
A) histamine
B) secretin
C) ACh
D) gastrin
B
64) Which of these is not part of the splanchnic circulation?
A) hepatic portal vein
B) superior mesenteric artery
C) celiac artery
D) inferior vena cava
D
1) Which of the following is the best explanation for why the cells of the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) contain so many mitochondria?
A) Cells of the PCT go through a great deal of mitosis.
B) A great deal of active transport takes place in the PCT.
C
B
2) What is the best explanation for the microvilli on the apical surface of the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT)?
A) They increase the surface area and allow for a greater volume of filtrate components to be reabsorbed.
B) Their movements propel the filtr
A
3) The thin segment of the nephron loop's descending limb ________.
A) helps to pack a greater number of nephron loops into a smaller space
B) aids in the passive excretion of nitrogenous waste
C) is easily broken and replaced often
D) aids in the passive
D
4) The relatively long half-life of lipid soluble hormones (steroid hormones) compared to water soluble hormones is due in part to the way that these hormones are passed into the filtrate from the glomerular capillaries. From the list below select the bes
D
5) The presence of protein in the urine indicates which of the following?
A) too much protein in the diet
B) damage to the filtration membrane
C) high levels of transcription and translation by the bodies tissues
D) damage to the renal tubules
B
6) Hydrostatic pressure is the primary driving force of plasma through the filtration membrane into the capsular space. All but one of the following statements reflects why hydrostatic pressure is so high in the glomerular capillaries. Select the one stat
B
7) Cells and transport proteins are physically prevented from passing through the filtration membrane. This has the following effect on filtration.
A) decreased osmotic pressure in the filtrate that increases the amount of filtration
B) increasing osmotic
B
8) If the diameter of the afferent arterioles leading to the glomerulus increases (vasodilation) which of the following is not likely to occur?
A) Net filtration pressure will increase.
B) Urine output will increase.
C) Systemic blood pressure will go up.
C
9) If the diameter of the efferent arterioles leading away from the glomerulus increases (vasodilation) which of the following is not likely to occur?
A) Urine output will decrease.
B) Net filtration pressure will decrease.
C) Systemic blood pressure will
C
12) If the glomerular mesangial cells contract, reducing the overall surface area of the glomerulus which of the following is not likely to occur?
A) Systemic blood pressure will be lowered.
B) Glomerular filtration rate will decrease.
C) Net filtration r
A
13) If blood pressure drops very low (MAP is below 80mmHg) renin enzyme will be secreted by granular cells. Which of the following is not likely to occur?
A) Blood plasma and extracellular fluids volume will increase
B) Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) wi
D
14) Which of the following statements best describes the difference between the intrinsic and extrinsic controls of the kidney?
A) Extrinsic controls have the greatest effect on systemic blood pressure while intrinsic control have a greater effect on GFR.
A
16) Bulk flow of nutrients, ions and water into the peritubular capillaries is the result of all of the following except one. Select the answer below that does not describe a cause of bulk flow of fluids into the peritubular capillaries.
A) higher osmotic
C
17) The mechanism that establishes the medullary osmotic gradient depends most on the permeability properties of the ________.
A) collecting duct
B) glomerular filtration membrane
C) nephron loop
D) distal convoluted tubule
C
18) Which of the following is not associated with the renal corpuscle?
A) a fenestrated capillary
B) a podocyte
C) an efferent arteriole
D) a vasa recta
D
19) An increase in the permeability of the cells of the collecting tubule to water is due to a(n) ________.
A) increase in the production of ADH
B) decrease in the concentration of the blood plasma
C) increase in the production of aldosterone
D) decrease
A
21) The kidneys are stimulated to produce renin ________.
A) when the pH of the urine decreases
B) when the specific gravity of urine rises above 1.10
C) when the peritubular capillaries are dilated
D) by a decrease in the blood pressure
D
22) Which of the choices below is not a function of the urinary system?
A) helps maintain homeostasis by controlling the composition, volume, and pressure of blood
B) maintains blood osmolarity
C) regulates blood glucose levels and produces hormones
D) el
D
23) The ________ artery lies on the boundary between the cortex and medulla of the kidney.
A) interlobar
B) cortical radiate
C) arcuate
D) lobar
C
24) The descending limb of the nephron loop ________.
A) is not permeable to water
B) is freely permeable to sodium and urea
C) contains fluid that becomes more concentrated as it moves down into the medulla
D) pulls water by osmosis into the lumen of the
C
An increase in the permeability of the cells of the collecting tubule to water is due to a(n) ________.
increase in the production of ADH
If there is an increase in systemic blood pressure, the resulting stretch of afferent arterioles results in reflexive
Vasoconstriction of afferent arterioles to keep GFR normal
25) Select the correct statement about the ureters.
A) The ureters are capable of peristalsis like that of the gastrointestinal tract.
B) Ureters contain sphincters at the entrance to the bladder to prevent the backflow of urine.
C) The ureter is innervat
A
26) The fatty tissue surrounding the kidneys is important because it ________.
A) produces vitamin D and other chemicals needed by the kidney
B) stabilizes the position of the kidneys by holding them in their normal position
C) is necessary as a barrier b
B
27) The functional and structural unit of the kidneys is the ________.
A) nephron
B) glomerular capsule
C) nephron loop
D) capsular space
A
28) Which of the following does not describe the justaglomerular complex?
A) Its granular cells produce rennin.
B) Its macula densa cells produce aldosterone.
C) It helps control systemic blood pressure.
D) It regulates the rate of filtrate formation.
B
29) The chief force pushing water and solutes out of the blood across the filtration membrane is ________.
A) the ionic electrochemical gradient
B) glomerular hydrostatic pressure (glomerular blood pressure)
C) protein-regulated diffusion
D) the size of t
B
30) Which of the following acts as the trigger for the initiation of micturition (voiding)?
A) the pressure of the fluid in the bladder
B) motor neurons
C) the stretching of the bladder wall
D) the sympathetic efferents
C
31) The filtration membrane includes all except ________.
A) basement membrane
B) renal fascia
C) glomerular endothelium
D) podocytes
B
32) The mechanism of water reabsorption by the renal tubules is ________.
A) filtration
B) active transport
C) osmosis
D) cotransport with sodium ions
C
33) Most electrolyte reabsorption by the renal tubules is ________.
A) hormonally controlled in distal tubule segments
B) not limited by a transport maximum
C) in the distal convoluted tubule
D) accomplished after the nephron loop is reached
A
34) The macula densa cells respond to ________.
A) changes in pressure in the tubule
B) aldosterone
C) antidiuretic hormone
D) changes in Na+ content of the filtrate
D
35) Which of the following is not reabsorbed by the proximal convoluted tubule?
A) K+
B) Na+
C) creatinine
D) glucose
C
36) The fluid in glomerular capsule is similar to plasma except that it does not contain a significant amount of ________.
A) electrolytes
B) hormones
C) glucose
D) plasma protein
D
37) Alcohol acts as a diuretic because it ________.
A) is not reabsorbed by the tubule cells
B) inhibits the release of ADH
C) increases the rate of glomerular filtration
D) increases secretion of ADH
B
38) The function of angiotensin II is to ________.
A) decrease the production of aldosterone
B) decrease water absorption
C) constrict arterioles and increase blood pressure
D) decrease arterial blood pressure
C
39) An important characteristic of urine is its specific gravity or density, which is ________.
A) less than water
B) much higher than water
C) the same as water
D) slightly higher than water
D
41) Select the correct statement about the nephrons.
A) Podocytes are the branching epithelial cells that line the tubules of the nephron.
B) The parietal layer of the glomerular capsule is simple squamous epithelium.
C) The glomerulus is correctly descri
B
42) What would happen if the capsular hydrostatic pressure were increased above normal?
A) Capsular osmotic pressure would compensate so that filtration would not change.
B) Net filtration would decrease.
C) Net filtration would increase above normal.
D)
B
44) Which of the following is not true regarding tubular reabsorption?
A) It involves hormonal signals in the collecting ducts.
B) It is a purely passive transport process.
C) It is a reclamation process.
D) It occurs via transcellular or paracellular rou
B
45) Which of the choices below is a function of the nephron loop?
A) form a large volume of very dilute urine or a small volume of very concentrated urine
B) absorb electrolytes actively and water by osmosis in the same segments
C) absorb water and electr
A
46) Which of the following is the correct sequence of kidney development from embryo to fetus?
A) mesonephros, metanephros, pronephros
B) pronephros, metanephros, mesonephros
C) pronephros, mesonephros, metanephros
D) mesonephros, pronephros, metanephros
C
47) Which of the following best describes kidney function in older adults (70 years or older)?
A) Kidney function decreases due to kidney atrophy.
B) Only about 3% of older adults have any loss of kidney function.
C) Only obese and diabetic older adults h
A
48) The factor favoring filtrate formation at the glomerulus is the ________.
A) glomerular hydrostatic pressure
B) myogenic mechanism
C) capsular hydrostatic pressure
D) colloid osmotic pressure of the blood
A
49) If the Tm for a particular amino acid is 120 mg/100 ml and the concentration of that amino acid in the blood is 230 mg/100 ml, the amino acid will ________.
A) appear in the urine
B) be completely reabsorbed by the tubule cells
C) be actively secreted
A
50) If one says that the clearance value of glucose is zero, what does this mean?
A) Normally all the glucose is reabsorbed.
B) The clearance value of glucose is relatively high in a healthy adult.
C) The glucose molecule is too large to be filtered out o
A
51) Excretion of dilute urine requires ________.
A) impermeability of the collecting tubule to water
B) the presence of ADH
C) relative permeability of the distal tubule to water
D) transport of sodium and chloride ions out of the descending nephron loop
A
52) Which of the choices below is not a method by which the cells of the renal tubules can raise blood pH?
A) by producing new bicarbonate ions
B) by reabsorbing filtered bicarbonate ions
C) by secreting hydrogen ions into the filtrate
D) by secreting sod
D
53) In the ascending limb of the nephron loop the ________.
A) thick segment moves ions out into interstitial spaces for reabsorption
B) thin segment is freely permeable to water
C) thin segment is not permeable to sodium and chloride
D) thick segment is
A
54) Select the correct statement about urinary system development.
A) The metanephric ducts will become the urethras.
B) The pronephros (first tubule system) develops during the tenth week of gestation.
C) The mesonephros will develop into the kidneys.
D)
D
55) What is the most direct function of the juxtaglomerular apparatus?
A) help regulate blood pressure and the rate of excretion by the kidneys
B) help regulate blood pressure and the rate of blood filtration by the kidneys
C) help regulate water and elec
B
56) Which of the choices below is the salt level-monitoring part of the nephron?
A) nephron loop
B) vasa recta
C) principal cell
D) macula densa
D
57) Which of the hormones below is responsible for facultative water reabsorption?
A) thyroxine
B) atrial natriuretic peptide
C) ADH
D) aldosterone
C
58) Which of the choices below is not a glomerular filtration rate control method?
A) electrolyte levels
B) hormonal regulation
C) renal autoregulation
D) neural regulation
A
59) Which of the choices below are the most important hormone regulators of electrolyte reabsorption and secretion?
A) angiotensin I and epinephrine
B) angiotensin I and atrial natriuretic peptide
C) angiotensin II and ADH
D) angiotensin II and aldosteron
D
70) The mechanism that establishes the medullary osmotic gradient depends most on the permeability 70) properties of the ________.
A) distal convoluted tubule B) collecting ductC) nephron loop D) glomerular filtration membrane
C
77) The glomerulus differs from other capillaries in the body in that it ________. A) has a blood pressure much lower than other organ systems
B) is impermeable to most substances C) is drained by an efferent arteriole D) has a basement membrane
C
81) The renal corpuscle is made up of ________. A) the descending nephron loopC) Bowman's capsule and glomerulus
B) the renal pyramid D) the renal papilla
C
99) Which of the following is incorrect?A) The concentration of urine is lower when urine volume is reduced.
B) The kidneys produce a small volume of concentrated urine when dehydrated. C) The kidneys produce a large volume of dilute urine when overhydrat
A
100) Reabsorption of high levels of glucose and amino acids in the filtrate is accomplished by ________. 100) A) facilitated diffusion B) countertransportC) passive transport D) secondary active transport
D
102) What is the effect of antidiuretic hormone on the cells of the collecting duct? 102) A) triggers synthesis of more potassium channels in the apical membranes
B) inhibits sodium reabsorption through the apical membranesC) causes aquaporins to be inser
C
104) The factor that promotes filtrate formation at the glomerulus is the ________. 104) A) myogenic mechanism B) glomerular hydrostatic pressureC) capsular hydrostatic pressure D) colloid osmotic pressure of the blood
B
105) Glomerular filtration rate can be controlled by manipulating one major variable, which is ________. 105) A) activation of sympathetic nerve fibers
B) systemic blood pressureC) the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone mechanism D) glomerular hydrostatic pres
D
106) If one says that the clearance value of glucose is zero, what does this mean? 106)
A) The clearance value of glucose is relatively high in a healthy adult.
B) The glucose molecule is too large to be filtered out of the blood.
C) Most of the glucose i
D
108) Which of the choices below is NOT a method by which the cells of the renal tubules can raise blood 108) pH?
A) by reabsorbing filtered bicarbonate ions B) by secreting hydrogen ions into the filtrate C) by producing new bicarbonate ions
D) by secreti
D
110) Except for potassium ions, tubular secretion of most unwanted substances occurs in the ________. 110)
A) distal convoluted tubuleC) proximal convoluted tubule
B) collecting duct D) nephron loop
C
111) What is the most direct function of the juxtaglomerular apparatus?A) help regulate blood pressure and the rate of excretion by the kidneys
B) help regulate blood pressure and the rate of blood filtration by the kidneys C) help regulate urea absorptio
B
5) The concentration of ions in the chemical environment surrounding the neurons must be tightly regulated for neurons to function properly. Which of the following cells is most responsible for this?
A) satellite cells
B) astrocytes
C) Schwann cells
D) ol
B
6) The concentration neurotransmitters in the fluid of the synaptic cleft must be tightly regulated for neurons to function properly. Which of the following cells is most responsible for aiding in this regulation?
A) satellite cells
B) astrocytes
C) Schwa
B
7) Bacteria in the blood can be prevented entry to the fluids surrounding the brain. Which cells are most responsible for preventing bacteria from entering the fluids of the brain?
A) satellite cells
B) astrocytes
C) Schwann cells
D) oligodendrocytes
B
8) Meningitis can be caused by infection of the central nervous system by bacteria. Which cells would be most responsible for removing the infection?
A) Schwann cells
B) oligodendrocytes
C) microglia
D) satellite cells
c
9) Like all cells, the neurons' internal organization dictates its function. Neurons have relatively many mitochondria, an extensive network of rough endoplasmic reticulum and many clusters of ribosomes. These cellular features indicate all of the followi
D
10) An action potential is regarded as an example of a positive feedback. Which of the following examples below best illustrates the positive feedback aspect of an action potential?
A) The sodium potassium pump consistently moves ions as long as ATP is av
D
11) The depolarization phase of an action potential is punctuated by the closing of inactivation gates in the voltage gated sodium ion channels. All of the following are consequences of this inactivation except one. Choose the statement below that is not
A
12) During the relative refractory period of an action potential, a larger than normal stimulus is needed to cause another action potential. This is due to the fact that ________.
A) the voltage gated potassium ion channels remain open long enough to hype
A
15) When a neurotransmitter like acetylcholine is acting in an excitatory manner which of the following is likely a result of the acetylcholine acting on the post synaptic cell?
A) Chemically gated chloride channels will open.
B) Chemically gated potassiu
C
16) When a neurotransmitter like GABA is acting in an inhibitory manner which of the following is likely a result of the GABA acting on the post synaptic cell?
A) influx of positively charged ions into the postsynaptic cell
B) opening of chemically gated
D
17) The effect of acetylcholine can be stimulating or inhibiting. Which of the following gives the best explanation for why this is so?
A) Acetylcholine has many different forms.
B) Acetylcholine has a "dose effect". Larger doses are stimulating while sma
D
18) Which of the choices below describes the ANS?
A) motor fibers that conduct nerve impulses from the CNS to smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands
B) motor fibers that conduct nerve impulses from the CNS to skeletal muscles
C) sensory and motor neuro
A
19) These cells in the CNS have cilia that move in order to circulate cerebrospinal fluid ________.
A) ependymal cells
B) astrocytes
C) oligodendrocytes
D) Schwann cells
A
20) What does the central nervous system use to determine the strength of a stimulus?
A) size of action potentials
B) origin of the stimulus
C) type of stimulus receptor
D) frequency of action potentials
D
21) Bipolar neurons are commonly ________.
A) motor neurons
B) called neuroglial cells
C) found in the retina of the eye
D) found in ganglia
C
22) Which of the following is an excitatory neurotransmitter secreted by motor neurons innervating skeletal muscle?
A) gamma aminobutyric acid
B) cholinesterase
C) norepinephrine
D) acetylcholine
D
23) Which of the following describes the nervous system integrative function?
A) responds to stimuli by gland secretion or muscle contraction
B) analyzes sensory information, stores information, makes decisions
C) senses changes in the environment
B
24) The period after an initial stimulus when a neuron is not sensitive to another stimulus is the ________.
A) repolarization
B) resting period
C) absolute refractory period
D) depolarization
C
25) Which of the following is not characteristic of neurons?
A) They have an exceptionally high metabolic rate.
B) They conduct impulses.
C) They have extreme longevity.
D) They are mitotic.
D
26) Loss of function in the enzyme acetylcholine esterase would result in which of the following?
A) inability to destroy and remove acetylcholine from the synaptic cleft
B) stimulation of the production of acetylcholine
C) amplify or enhance the effect o
A
28) Collections of nerve cell bodies outside the central nervous system are called ________.
A) ganglia
B) nerves
C) tracts
D) nuclei
A
27) Which of the following is not a function of the autonomic nervous system?
A) innervation of smooth muscle of the digestive tract
B) innervation of skeletal muscle
C) innervation of cardiac muscle
D) innervation of glands
B
29) The term central nervous system refers to the ________.
A) brain and spinal cord
B) sensory (afferent) nerves
C) the somatic nerves
D) the spinal nerves
A
30) Saltatory conduction is made possible by ________.
A) erratic transmission of nerve impulses
B) diphasic impulses
C) large nerve fibers
D) the myelin sheath
D
31) Which of the following is not a chemical class of neurotransmitters?
A) biogenic amine
B) nucleic acid
C) amino acid
D) ATP and other purines
B
32) Which of the following is false or incorrect?
A) An excitatory postsynaptic potential occurs if the excitatory effect is greater than the inhibitory effect but less than threshold.
B) An inhibitory postsynaptic potential occurs if the inhibitory effec
C
33) Select the correct statement regarding chemical synapses.
A) The synaptic cleft uses the action potential to transmit a chemical signal to the post synaptic cell.
B) The release of neurotransmitter molecules gives cells the property of being electrica
A
34) Which of the following correctly describes a graded potential?
A) it has a depolarization, repolarization and hyperpolarization phase
B) it can have amplitudes of various sizes
C) it is initiated by voltage changes in the membrane
D) it travels long d
B
35) Schwann cells are functionally similar to ________.
A) astrocytes
B) microglia
C) ependymal cells
D) oligodendrocytes
D
36) Immediately after an action potential has peaked, which of the following channels will open?
A) voltage gated calcium channels
B) chemically gated chloride channels
C) voltage gated potassium channels
D) voltage gated sodium channels
C
37) An inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) is associated with ________.
A) lowering the threshold for an action potential to occur
B) a change in sodium ion permeability
C) hyperpolarization
D) opening of voltage-regulated channels
C
38) Which of the following will occur when an excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) is being generated on the dendritic membrane?
A) Sodium gates will open first, then close as potassium gates open.
B) A single type of channel will open, permitting sim
B
39) When a sensory neuron is excited by some form of energy, the resulting graded potential is called a(n) ________.
A) action potential
B) excitatory potential
C) postsynaptic potential
D) generator potential
D
40) Which of the following is not true of graded potentials?
A) They increase amplitude as they move away from the stimulus point.
B) They can be called postsynaptic potentials.
C) They can form on receptor endings.
D) They are short-lived.
A
41) Which of the following is true about the movement of ions across excitable living membranes?
A) Ions always move actively across membranes through leakage channels.
B) Sodium gates in the membrane can open in response to electrical potential changes.
B
42) A second nerve impulse cannot be generated until ________.
A) all sodium gates are closed
B) the membrane potential has been reestablished
C) the Na ions have been pumped back into the cell
D) proteins have been resynthesized
B
43) The interior surface of a neuron's plasma membrane at resting membrane potential will have a ________.
A) negative charge and contains more sodium than outside of the cell
B) positive charge and contains less sodium than outside of the cell
C) positiv
D
44) If a motor neuron in the body were stimulated by an electrode placed about midpoint along the length of the axon ________.
A) the impulse would move to the axon terminal only, and the muscle contraction would occur
B) the impulse would spread bidirect
B
45) Which of the following describes the excitatory postsynaptic potential?
A) moves membrane potential away from threshold
B) opens K+ or Cl- channels
C) short distance depolarization
D) short distance hyperpolarization
C
1) Which brain nucleus is the body's "biological clock"?
A) lentiform nucleus
B) dorsomedial nucleus
C) subthalamic nucleus
D) suprachiasmatic nucleus
D
2) The arbor vitae refers to ________.
A) cerebellar gray matter
B) flocculonodular nodes
C) cerebellar white matter
D) the pleatlike convolutions of the cerebellum
C
3) The brain stem consists of the ________.
A) midbrain, medulla, and pons
B) pons, medulla, cerebellum, and midbrain
C) midbrain only
D) cerebrum, pons, midbrain, and medulla
A
4) The primary auditory cortex is located in the ________.
A) frontal lobe
B) temporal lobe
C) parietal lobe
D) prefrontal lobe
B
5) Spinocerebellar tracts ________.
A) are found in the dorsal columns of the spinal cord
B) terminate in the spinal cord
C) give rise to conscious experience of perception
D) carry information about muscle or tendon stretch to the cerebellum
D
6) What type of cells line the ventricles of the brain?
A) ependymal cells
B) neurons
C) astrocytes
D) epithelial cells
A
7) The subarachnoid space lies between what two layers of meninges?
A) dura and epidura
B) arachnoid and epidura
C) arachnoid and dura
D) arachnoid and pia
D
8) Vital centers for the control of heart rate, respiration, and blood pressure are located in the ________.
A) cerebrum
B) medulla oblongata
C) midbrain
D) pons
B
9) Cell bodies of sensory neurons are located in ________.
A) the thalamus
B) sympathetic ganglia
C) the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal cord
D) the ventral root ganglia of the spinal cord
C
10) Which fissure separates the cerebral hemispheres?
A) lateral fissure
B) central fissure
C) parieto-occipital fissure
D) longitudinal fissure
D
11) Which of the following best describes the cerebrum?
A) motor command center
B) executive suite
C) visceral command center
D) decussation center
B
12) A shallow groove on the surface of the cortex is called a ________.
A) gyrus
B) furrow
C) fissure
D) sulcus
D
13) Which of the following generalizations does NOT describe the cerebral cortex?
A) The hemispheres are exactly equal in function.
B) No functional area of the cortex works alone.
C) Each hemisphere is chiefly concerned with sensory and motor functions o
A
14) If the caudal portion of the neural tube failed to develop properly the ________.
A) hindbrain would not be present
B) spinal cord may be affected
C) cranial nerves would not form
D) telencephalon would cease development
B
15) The central sulcus separates which lobes?
A) frontal from parietal
B) frontal from temporal
C) parietal from occipital
D) temporal from parietal
A
16) Neural tracts that convey information to the brain concerning temperature and pain would be ________.
A) reticulospinal
B) lateral spinothalamic
C) ventral (anterior) spinothalamic
D) posterior spinothalamic
B
17) Which of these would you NOT find in the cerebral cortex?
A) fiber tracts
B) interneurons
C) dendrites
D) cell bodies
A
18) The white matter of the spinal cord contains ________.
A) myelinated and unmyelinated nerve fibers
B) unmyelinated nerve fibers only
C) cell bodies
D) myelinated nerve fibers only
A
19) Which of the following is NOT a role of the basal nuclei?
A) playing a role in cognition and emotion
B) controlling starting and stopping movements
C) initiating protective reflex actions
D) inhibiting unnecessary or antagonistic movements
C
20) Spastic paralysis suggests involvement of the ________.
A) spinal nerve roots
B) lower motor neurons
C) neuromuscular junction
D) upper motor neurons
D
21) Ridges of tissue on the surface of the cerebral hemispheres are called ________.
A) fissures
B) ganglia
C) sulci
D) gyri
D
22) The frontal lobe is separated from the temporal lobe by the ________.
A) longitudinal fissure
B) cranial fossa
C) lateral sulcus
D) central sulcus
C
23) Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) Damage to the visual association area can result in blindness.
B) Damage to the premotor cortex results in loss of motor skills programmed in that area but movement is still possible.
C) Damage to the pri
D
24) Broca's area ________.
A) controls voluntary movements of the eyes
B) serves the recognition of complex objects
C) is considered a motor speech area
D) is usually found only in the right hemisphere
C
25) Which part of the cerebral cortex is involved in intellect, cognition, recall, and personality?
A) limbic association area
B) prefrontal cortex (anterior association area)
C) posterior association area
D) combined primary somatosensory cortex and soma
B
26) The blood-brain barrier is effective against ________.
A) alcohol
B) anesthetics
C) nutrients such as glucose
D) metabolic waste such as urea
D
27) All of the following are structures of the limbic system EXCEPT the ________.
A) cingulate gyrus
B) caudate nucleus
C) amygdaloid body
D) hippocampus
B
30) The brain area that regulates activities that control the state of wakefulness or alertness of the cerebral cortex is the ________.
A) reticular formation
B) limbic system
C) thalamus
D) pyramids
A
31) Which of the following would you NOT find in normal cerebrospinal fluid?
A) red blood cells
B) glucose
C) protein
D) potassium
A
32) REM sleep is associated with ________.
A) decreased oxygen use, especially in the cerebral cortex
B) temporary skeletal muscle inhibition except for ocular muscles and diaphragm
C) decreased vital signs, such as heart rate and blood pressure
D) decrea
B
33) Which of the following is NOT a function of the CSF?
A) nourishment of the brain
B) reduction of brain weight
C) initiation of some nerve impulses
D) protection from blows
C
34) Injury to the hypothalamus may result in all of the following EXCEPT ________.
A) loss of fine motor control
B) loss of body temperature control
C) sleep disturbances
D) dehydration
A
35) Important nuclei of the indirect (multineuronal) system that receive impulses from the equilibrium apparatus of the inner ear and help to maintain balance by varying muscle tone of postural muscles are the ________.
A) red nuclei
B) reticular nuclei
C
c
36) Which of the following structures is probably NOT directly involved in memory?
A) prefrontal cortex
B) medulla oblongata
C) thalamus
D) hippocampus
B
37) The area of the cortex that is responsible for sensing a full bladder and the feeling that your lungs will burst when you hold your breath too long is the ________.
A) gustatory cortex
B) vestibular cortex
C) visceral sensory area
D) olfactory cortex
C
38) Which statement about coma is true?
A) Coma may be caused by widespread cerebral or brain stem trauma.
B) During coma, brain oxygen consumption resembles that of a waking state.
C) Coma is a form of deep sleep.
D) Coma is neurologically identical to s
A
39) Tremor at rest, shuffling gait, stooped posture, and expressionless face are characteristics of ________.
A) Parkinson's disease
B) Alzheimer's disease
C) cerebellar disease
D) Huntington's disease
A
40) Which of the following is the mildest consequence of traumatic brain injury?
A) swelling
B) concussion
C) contusion
D) hemorrhage
C
42) Which of the following is (are) involved with motor activity (either initiation or coordination)?
A) Wernicke's area
B) red nuclei
C) gustatory cortex
D) postcentral gyrus
B
43) Which statement about epilepsy is most accurate?
A) Epilepsy is often genetically induced but also frequently caused by head trauma, stroke, infection, and tumor.
B) Absence seizures typically begin in adolescence and are often severely disabling.
C)
A
44) White matter is found in all of the following locations EXCEPT the ________.
A) cerebral cortex
B) outer portion of the spinal cord
C) corpus callosum
D) corticospinal tracts
A
45) Second-order neurons of ascending pathways that contribute to sensory perception terminate in the ________.
A) somatosensory cortex
B) spinal cord
C) thalamus
D) medulla
C
46) Loss of ability to perform skilled motor activities such as piano playing, with no paralysis or weakness in specific muscles, might suggest damage to the ________.
A) premotor cortex
B) primary motor cortex
C) rubrospinal tracts
D) spinal cord
A
48) Which ventricle is continuous with the central canal of the spinal cord?
A) first
B) second
C) third
D) fourth
D
50) Degeneration of the dopamine-releasing neurons of the ________ is the ultimate cause of Parkinson's disease.
A) reticular formation
B) internal capsule
C) substantia nigra
D) red nucleus
C
51) What connects the hypothalamus to the pituitary gland?
A) mammillary bodies
B) infundibulum
C) arbor vitae
D) optic chiasma
B
52) Arachnoid granulations are knoblike projections that protrude superiorly through the ________ mater to absorb cerebrospinal fluid into venous blood.
A) subarachnoid
B) dura
C) arachnoid
D) pia
B
53) Interneurons receiving input from sensory neurons are located in the ________.
A) dorsal root ganglion
B) ventral (anterior) horn
C) dorsal (posterior) horn
D) lateral horn
C
55) The ________ includes the thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus.
A) diencephalon
B) basal nuclei
C) midbrain
D) brain stem
A
56) The two longitudinal ridges on the medulla oblongata where many descending fibers cross over are called the ________.
A) lateral horns
B) pyramids
C) olives
D) nuclei
B
57) The corpora quadrigemina are found in the ________.
A) pons
B) midbrain
C) diencephalon
D) cerebellum
B
59) The ________ is the main switch station for memory; if the right and left areas are destroyed, the result is widespread amnesia.
A) hypothalamus
B) Wernicke's area
C) thalamus
D) hippocampus
D
1) If someone spills very hot coffee (200 0F) on their skin, they will likely perceive much pain. Which of the following receptor types is causing this sensation?
A) nociceptors
B) chemoreceptors
C) mechanoreceptors
D) thermoreceptors
A
2) Some large arteries that are proximal to the heart are sensitive to the stretch of the blood vessels. This stretch indicates the blood's pressure. Which of the following pairs of classifications below best fit the receptor type that is being described
D
3) We can touch our finger to our nose while our eyes are closed in part because we can sense the position and movement of our joints as well as the length of stretch in our muscles. These sensations create awareness of our body's positioning. The followi
B
4) Tactile sensation is a combination of touch, pressure, stretch and vibration. Which of the following is most likely the receptor type that senses tactile stimulation?
A) mechanoreceptors
B) proprioceptors
C) nociceptors
D) thermoreceptors
A
5) A person picks up a heavy suitcase in order to estimate its weight and reflexively drops it. Which of the following receptors has initiated this reflex?
A) lamellae corpuscle
B) free nerve ending
C) tendon organ
D) bulbous corpuscle
C