1. A U-shaped bone that suspends the larynx is the
A. cricoid
B. thyroid
C. arytenoid
D. hyoid
E. all of the above
D. hyoid
2. The primary muscle of the lips is the
A. buccinator
B. risorius
C. depressor labii inferioris
D. orbicularis oris
E. depressor anguli oris
D. orbicularis oris
3. Before a surgeon performs a glossectomy, she informs the patient that the cranial nerves that innervate the tongue muscles will probably be damaged. Which of the following cranial nerves that innervate the tongue muscles will be affected by the operati
C. Cranial Nerve XII, hypoglossal nerve
4. A patient with ataxia complains of difficulties maintaining balance and posture. The physician explains to the patient that the structure that regulates equilibrium, body posture, and coordinated fine-motor movements may be damaged. Therefore, the dama
C. cerebellum
5. Peter has suffered a cerebrovascular accident (CVA); the neurologist reports lesions in the third convolution of the left cerebral hemisphere. Based on this, you conclude that the damaged area is
A. the occipital lobe
B. the basal ganglia
C. Wernicke's
D. Broca's area
6. After suffering from a severe stroke, Robert has difficulty with auditory comprehension and speaks fluently, though he does not make much sense. Which area of Robert's brain was affected by the stroke?
A. The frontal lobe
B. The occipital lobe
C. Werni
C. Wernicke's area
7. Which area of the brain connects Broca's area with Wernicke's area?
A. Corpus callosum
B. Choroid plexus
C. Arcuate fasciculus
D. Corona radiata
E. Third ventricle
C. Arcuate fasciculus
8. Sara has arterial damage that causes her to have cognitive deficits such as impaired judgment, problems concentrating, and difficulties with reasoning. According to the surgeon, damage to this artery can also cause a person to have paralysis of the fee
D. Anterior cerebral
9. Which statement about the cranial nerves is correct?
A. Cranial Nerve XII is not concerned with speech.
B. Cranial Nerve VIII is concerned with the sense of smell.
C. Cranial Nerve I is concerned with labial sound articulation.
D. Cranial Nerve II is i
E. Damage to Cranial Nerve VII causes a mask-like appearance.
10. A semi-vowel that can be categorized as a voiced bilabial glide that is + anterior and + continuant is the
A. /w/
B. /j/
C. /l/
D. /h/
E. /r/
A. /w/
11. Waves that repeat themselves at regular intervals are known as
A. aperiodic waves
B. periodic waves
C. sinusoidal motion/wave
D. octave
E. compression
B. periodic waves
The lowest intensity of a sound that will stimulate the auditory system is called
A. sound pressure level
B. decibel
C. hearing level
D. pitch
E. amplitude
C. hearing level
13. Two or more sounds of different frequencies are called
A. pure tones
B. complex tones
C. multiple tones
D. harmonic tones
E. duplex tones
B. complex tones
14. The lowest frequency of a periodic wave is
A. natural frequency
B. formant frequency
C. fundamental frequency
D. displacement frequency
E. compression frequency
C. fundamental frequency
15. Acoustical, mechanical, or electrical resistance to motion or sound transmission is called
A. impedance
B. admittance
C. immittance
D. velocity
E. reflection
A. impedance
16. When sound waves move from one medium (e.g., air) to another (e.g., water), it causes a bending of the sound wave due to change in its speed of propagation. This phenomenon is known as
A. refraction
B. reflection
C. compression
D. rarefaction
E. sinus
A. refraction
17. The back-and-forth movement of particles when the movement is symmetrical and periodic is called
A. an aperiodic wave
B. a sinusoidal wave
C. compression
D. rarefaction
E. simple harmonic motion
E. simple harmonic motion
18. A child who calls all tall and brown-haired men "Daddy" is exhibiting the phenomenon of
A. underextension
B. overextension
C. joint reference
D. denial
E. overabstraction
B. overextension
19. You are a new clinician in a hospital that has a neonatal intensive care unit (NICU). Your job title is that of newborn development specialist (NDS). Which one of the following would be false regarding your role as an NDS?
A. You would support the fam
C. You would not serve as primary care coordinator or case manager for the infants and families because a medical doctor usually fills this role.
20. You have been asked to assess the language skills of 6-year-old Julia, who has been referred by her classroom teacher. The teacher says that Julia "talks in these really short sentences. I don't know if she is just shy, or if there is more going on.
A. You would tell the teacher and parents that you would like to formally evaluate Julia's language skills because at 6 years of age she should have an average mean length of utterance (MLU) of 6.0-8.0 and her language should approximate the adult model.
21. You are about to begin intervention with a 7-year-old child with developmental delays who reportedly has the language skills of a typically developing 4-year-old child. Which of the following skills would not be appropriate to work in treatment?
A. Us
B. Production of gerunds
22. You are working with a 9-year-old girl who has been diagnosed with high-functioning autism. She has an excellent vocabulary as well as good morphological and syntactic skills. However, her pragmatic skills are reportedly delayed and her parents wish h
D. Make sure conversations with peers focus on her interests and hobbies so that she can maintain control of the topic
23. The theory that asserts that each child is born with an innate language acquisition device (LAD) is the
A. nativist theory of Chomsky
B. cognitive theory of Piaget
C. information processing theory
D. behavioral theory of Skinner
E. social interactioni
A. nativist theory of Chomsky
24. A clinician who concentrated on syntax during therapy with children with language delays and did not believe in external reinforcement would probably subscribe to the
A. Behaviorist theory
B. Social interactionist theory
C. Cognitive theory
D. Informa
E. Nativist theory
25. Which of the following would be true of a clinician who used Skinner's behaviorism as a foundation for her/his intervention with children with language delays?
A. She or he would teach the child to use mands, tacts, and echoics.
B. She or he would tar
A. She or he would teach the child to use mands, tacts, and echoics.
26. You are treating a 4-year-old boy with specific language impairment (SLI) for intervention. You notice that he omits all grammatical morphemes in his speech. Which one of the following morphemes would you target first in therapy with him?
A. Articles
C. Present progressive -ing
27. A child with a language delay is in Brown's Stage V of morpheme mastery. Which of the following would not be appropriate to target in intervention?
A. Regular plural inflection -s
B. Irregular third person
C. Contractible auxiliary
D. Contractible cop
A. Regular plural inflection -s
28. Which of the following is not a semantic relation expressed by two-word utterances?
A. Notice (e.g., "hi" + noun)
B. Attribute + entity (e.g., "brown horse")
C. Agent-action (e.g., "kitty meow")
D. Nomination (e.g., "that chair")
E. Affirmation (e.g.,
C. Agent-action (e.g., "kitty meow")
29. A child who regularly says "He the small one" instead of "He is the smallest one" or "She is tall than her" instead of "She is taller than her" has specific problems with
A. adjectives
B. comparatives and superlatives
C. irregular past-tense forms
D.
B. comparatives and superlatives
30. To assess a child's pragmatic skills, a clinician may observe, among others, which of the following behaviors?
A. turn taking and discourse skills
B. production of past-tense inflections
C. production of is + verb -ing structures
D. production of prep
A. turn taking and discourse skills
31. During an informal conversation with an adolescent who has come to you for assessment, you notice the following problems: difficulty in using figurative language, difficulty in using words with multiple meanings, and difficulty using synonyms appropri
B. Semantic language skills
32. Select the true statement.
A. T-units contain an independent clause and one or more subordinate clauses.
B. T-units are types of linguistic units.
C. C-units may never contain incomplete sentences produced in response to questions.
D. C-units do not c
A. T-units contain an independent clause and one or more subordinate clauses.
33. Which one of the following statements is false?
A. Speech pathologists should incorporate literacy materials into therapy when appropriate.
B. It is important to collaborate with the classroom teacher when working with school-age children with languag
C. A child's chronological age, not developmental level, is the most reliable indicator of what treatment goals will be appropriate.
34. Which one of the following statements is false?
A. Noniconic symbols are geometric, abstract, and arbitrary and must be specifically taught.
B. The picture exchange communication system (PECS) is effective.
C. A hieroglyphic picture of a house is an i
D. The facilitated communication approach is supported by evidence.
35. You move to a new elementary school and begin seeing children on the caseload. Johnny, a 7-year-old child, is receiving intervention to "increase semantic skills." Five goals are listed on his IEP. Which one of these goals is inappropriate?
A. Increas
A. Increase use of appropriate discourse skills
36. You are seeing a 12-year-old girl at the local junior high school. Her scores on the Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test-4 and the Expressive Vocabulary Test-2 were both 2 years below age level. She has many friends and is well liked by her peers. Academi
D. semantic skills
37. You are working in an early intervention program with infants who are at risk for language disorders. You need to assess, among other things, the infants' relationships and interactions with their caregivers. Which of the following instruments would b
C. Observation of Communication Interaction
38. Delay is a treatment procedure in which the clinician
A. requires specific responses from the child by giving such commands as "Tell me what is this"
B. waits for the child to initiate a response, prompts or models if there is no response, and gives t
B. waits for the child to initiate a response, prompts or models if there is no response, and gives the desired object if there is no response after three models
39. Melissa says "clink" instead of "blink"; she produces an incorrect sound in place of a correct sound. This articulation error is known as
A. omission
B. substitution
C. accommodation
D. adaptation
E. reduplication
B. substitution
40. Nick has a short lingual frenum (tongue-tie). Because the frenum is attached too close to the tip of the tongue, it causes a reduction in tongue mobility. Nick is, therefore, unable to produce lingua-alveolar sounds (e.g., /t/, /d/). Which is the most
E. Ankyloglossia
41. On completion of an oral mechanism examination, the attending orthodontist notices that her patient has a protruding maxilla and a receded mandible. The orthodontist asks the student speech-language pathologist for a diagnosis of the condition. The st
B. class II malocclusion
42. The diadochokinetic rate is used to evaluate
A. myofunctional disorders
B. dental deviations
C. oral-motor coordination
D. neuropathologies
E. ankyloglossia
C. oral-motor coordination
43. John has cerebral palsy that has resulted in a motor speech disorder caused by central nervous system damage. This damage has caused John to have weakness and incoordination of the muscles of speech. John's speech is classified as
A. paraphasic
B. dys
B. dysarthric
44. Beth has central nervous system damage with no weakness or paralysis of her facial muscles; however, her central nervous system damage makes it difficult for her to program the precise movements necessary for smoothly articulated speech. Beth's motor
D. apraxia
45. Jamal is an 8-year old boy who transfers to your school district. The report from the previous speech-language pathologist is missing from his cumulative file, but you see a note that says, "Jamal has childhood apraxia of speech (CAS)." Which one of t
B. Rapid speech that becomes faster as Jamal gets more deeply involved in a conversation
46. A child is referred to you by his preschool teacher. This child, Jaden, is 4 years 5 months old and has transferred from out of state. In his previous state, Jaden was reportedly assessed by a speech-language pathologist who recommended that Jaden rec
D. reduplication
47. Bloodstein suggested that stuttering is
A. a response of tension and speech fragmentation
B. an avoidance behavior
C. due to parental diagnosis
D. an operant behavior
E. due to genetic factors
A. a response of tension and speech fragmentation
48. Which model contends that a child who is unable to cope with the expectations of fluent speech production may begin to stutter?
A. The diagnosogenic model
B. The expectancy deconfirmation model
C. The demands and capacities model
D. The neurophysiolog
C. The demands and capacities model
49. Stuttering may be diagnosed on the basis of
A. a total dysfluency rate that exceeds an objective criterion (e.g., 5% of the words)
B. eye blinks and other facial grimaces
C. avoidance of speaking situations
D. dysfluencies that occur only on words
E.
A. a total dysfluency rate that exceeds an objective criterion (e.g., 5% of the words)
50. Select the true statement or statements of Van Riper's approach to stuttering treatment.
A. Its goal is fluent stuttering.
B. It seeks to establish normal sounding fluency by slowing down the speech rate.
C. It seeks to reduce stuttering by using oper
A. Its goal is fluent stuttering.
51. You plan to write a treatment program for an adult who stutters. You wish to use the fluency-shaping procedure. Among the following choices, what would you include in your program?
A. Auditory masking with white noise
B. Airflow management, gentle ons
B. Airflow management, gentle onset of phonation, slower speech, and normal prosodic features
52. In selecting the fluency-shaping technique, clinicians should consider that it
A. often leads to relapse of stuttering
B. is known to promote long-term maintenance of fluency
C. does not induce unnatural prosodic features
D. requires only a single tar
A. often leads to relapse of stuttering
53. You are asked to design a treatment program for young children who stutter, including preschoolers. Among the following choices, which would you most likely select?
A. Delayed auditory feedback
B. Masking noise
C. Fluency reinforcement or response cos
C. Fluency reinforcement or response cost
54. Procedures in which stuttering is directly reduced without teaching fluency skills (e.g., slow speech) are known as
A. direct stuttering reduction methods
B. fluent stuttering
C. fluency shaping
D. parent counseling
E. desensitization to stuttering
A. direct stuttering reduction methods
55. Speech samples of persons who clutter may contain such productions as "many thinkle peep so." This phenomenon is a
A. festinating articulation
B. spoonerism
C. dactylology
D. disassimilation
E. tachylalia
B. spoonerism
56. You are evaluating a basketball coach, Susan, who tells you, "I am having problems with my voice." You notice intermittent, involuntary, fleeting vocal fold abduction when she tries to phonate. This is known as
A. abductor spasmodic dysphonia
B. adduc
A. abductor spasmodic dysphonia
57. In your private practice, you receive a referral of a sixth-grade girl, Christina M. She is not speaking, and the pediatrician thinks that she might have functional aphonia. A diagnoses of functional aphonia means that
A. there is evidence of neurolog
C. there is no voice
58. A 43-year-old high school football coach comes to you for an evaluation. He states that he has been hoarse for approximately 10 months. A subsequent medical evaluation reveals that he has bilateral lesions on the anterior third of the vocal fold. A na
D. vocal nodules
59. In a voice evaluation, air pressure can be measured with a
A. thermometer
B. manometer
C. airmometer
D. altimeter
E. meter
B. manometer
60. Contact ulcers may be caused by all of the following except
A. chronic throat clearing
B. hard-glottal attack
C. psychogenic problems
D. intubation for surgery
E. gastric reflux
C. psychogenic problems
61. Kyle, a 27-year-old man, speaks with a pitch that is perpetually too high, despite complete laryngeal maturation. You believe that Kyle has
A. hormonal changes
B. conversational dysphonia
C. spasmodic dysphonia
D. mutational falsetto
E. intentional dy
D. mutational falsetto
62. Tanya, a 22-year-old student, is diagnosed with a unilateral polyp. When Tanya speaks, it appears that she is producing two different pitches simultaneously. You explain to Tanya that she has a condition called
A. aphonia
B. dysphonia
C. diplophonia
D
C. diplophonia
63. Among other functions, the right hemisphere specializes in
A. understanding of syntax
B. production of grammatical morphemes
C. more focally organized functions than the left hemisphere does
D. production of grammatically complex sentences
E. visual a
E. visual and spatial information
64. Impaired facial recognition is more common in patients with
A. anterior right hemisphere damage
B. posterior right hemisphere damage
C. left temporal lobe damage
D. damage to the perisylvian region
E. occipital lobe damage
B. posterior right hemisphere damage
65. Patients with right hemisphere damage tend to demonstrate
A. severe naming problems
B. profound auditory comprehension problems
C. severe oral expression problems
D. impaired comprehension of implied meanings
E. impaired syntactic skills
D. impaired comprehension of implied meanings
66. You are asked to develop a management plan for a patient with right hemisphere syndrome. Your treatment targets would include
A. pragmatic language impairments
B. production of morphologic features
C. syntactic skills
D. phonological skills
E. sluggis
A. pragmatic language impairments
67. You are asked to assess a 20-year-old man with traumatic brain injury. Select the following statement that gives you a correct orientation to your assessment of this patient.
A. Pure linguistic skills, including grammatical skills, need to be assessed
B. Pragmatic language skills, production of speech sounds, and comprehension of spoken language skills should be among the main targets of assessment.
68. You are asked to prepare a clinical management plan for family members of a patient with dementia. Among other skills, you would teach the family members to
A. socially and consistently reinforce correct syntactic constructions
B. avoid asking yes or
C. restate important information
69. The disorders of the pharyngeal phase of swallow include
A. delayed or absent swallowing reflex
B. anterior instead of posterior movement of the tongue
C. reduced range of lateral and vertical tongue movement
D. difficulty in forming and holding the b
A. delayed or absent swallowing reflex
70. In assessing a patient with swallowing disorders, you would
A. not be concerned about screening the patient for concrete and abstract language comprehension because it would provide irrelevant information
B. consider the correct positioning of the pat
B. consider the correct positioning of the patient for certain procedures
71. Select the statement that is correct.
A. Apraxia of speech (AOS) is a language disorder.
B. AOS is a neurogenic speech disorder.
C. AOS is caused by weakness in speech muscles.
D. AOS does not coexist with aphasia.
E. AOS may not be associated with pr
B. AOS is a neurogenic speech disorder.
72. An 81-year-old bilingual man from Thailand has had a stroke, and you are seeing him for therapy. He is recovering both his primary language and his English skills, but you are working only in English. No interpreters are available, unfortunately, and
A. "They going over there today.
73. A Cambodian child is referred to you because the teacher "can't understand a word he says." In the course of your speech-language screening, you record the following utterances. Which might be typical of an articulation disorder, not a difference?
A.
E. "I am derry (very) -appy (happy) to meet your tids (kids).
74. Which one of the following statements is false?
A. A multicultural student whose background does not match the school's expectations might be inaccurately labeled as having a language-learning disability.
B. If a student has normal abilities in her pr
B. If a student has normal abilities in her primary language but is somewhat slow to learn English, she needs to be placed on the speech pathologist's caseload for intervention.
75. Select the false statement.
A. When a typically developing child is learning a second language, it usually takes her approximately 2 years to develop basic interpersonal communication skills that are commensurate with those of native speakers.
B. This
C. It is generally best for children to be monolingual, not bilingual, because learning two languages is confusing and overtaxes children's cognitive-linguistic skills.
76. You are assessing an Ibo-speaking child from Nigeria who learned Ibo first (from birth) and then was exposed to English in preschool when he was 3 years of age. His parents continue to speak Ibo at home, and he is often cared for by his Ibo-speaking g
E. He will not be interested in maintaining his skills in Ibo, and he will become a monolingual English speaker.
77. You are assessing an African American elementary-age child, Takissha. The fourth-grade teacher has referred Takissha to you because "Takissha often talks when other children are talking, and when she tells a story, she is not very structured." At this
C. she is demonstrating verbal behavior that is consistent with that of many members of the African American community
78. You work in a school district where increasing numbers of parents are coming to you with issues experienced by their internationally adopted children. Which one of the following would you not expect to be an issue experienced by these children?
A. The
D. They maintain their first language skills and become fully bilingual, speaking both their first languages and English fluently.
79. The public elementary school where you work has asked you to give an in-service to their teachers on appropriate referrals of bilingual children with possible communication disorders. Which of the following would be appropriate to tell these teachers?
D. Some bilingual children attain low scores when tested in their first language due to language loss in that language.
80. Which one of the following statements is false regarding providing rehabilitative services to adult culturally and linguistically diverse (CLD) patients with neurological impairments?
A. Some families may be offended by the rehabilitation team's encou
B. Most standardized aphasia tests are appropriate for use with these patients because the tests have been carefully normed using samples that include CLD individuals.
81. If an African American adult patient in a hospital setting says, "I been had the measles when I was a kid," this is an example of
A. circumlocution
B. semantic paraphasia
C. a perfective construction
D. the use of an additional auxiliary
E. lack of no
C. a perfective construction
82. A 75-year-old man visits your office and complains that he constantly turns the volume of his television set too high and is unable to listen to programs at a lower volume. After conducting hearing tests, you explain to him that his hearing loss is du
B. presbycusis
83. Hearing loss that occurs when the middle ear and the inner ear are not functioning properly is known as
A. sensorineural hearing loss
B. middle ear hearing loss
C. mixed hearing loss
D. conductive hearing loss
E. inner ear hearing loss
C. mixed hearing loss
84. Patients who have damage to their nerve fibers along the ascending auditory pathways from the internal auditory meatus to the cortex have a
A. cochlear disorder
B. retrocochlear disorder
C. recruitment disorder
D. middle ear disorder
E. external audit
B. retrocochlear disorder
85. The softest level of hearing at which a person can understand 50% of the words presented is known as
A. pure tone threshold
B. speech discrimination threshold
C. speech reception threshold
D. word discrimination threshold
E. conversational speech thre
C. speech reception threshold
86. The impedance meter can measure a simple reflex response of the muscles attached to the stapes bone. This reflex is called the
A. stapes reflex
B. tympanic reflex
C. oval window reflex
D. basilar membrane reflex
E. acoustic reflex
E. acoustic reflex
87. When acoustic immittance is measured with an electroacoustic instrument, it is called
A. tympanometry
B. immittanceometry
C. impedanometry
D. admittanceometry
E. acoustic reflex
A. tympanometry
88. A person who deciphers speech by looking at the face of the speaker and using visual cues to understand what the speaker is saying is using a technique known as
A. cued speech
B. visual speech
C. speech reading
D. audiovisual speech
E. deaf speech
C. speech reading
89. Which one of the following is not a feature of norm-referenced, standardized tests?
A. They prescribe systematic procedures for administration and scoring of the test.
B. They allow for a comparison of a client's score to that of a normative sample.
C
D. They generate information that can be used to create treatment goals and assess treatment progress.
90. Baselines
A. help establish the initial level of clients' behaviors for later comparison
B. are a duplication of standardized tests
C. are not necessary for each response mode
D. require the clinician to give corrective feedback for incorrect response
A. help establish the initial level of clients' behaviors for later comparison
91. Select the correct statement.
A. Probes and baselines are the same.
B. Baselines are pretreatment measures, and probes measure generalized productions.
C. Probes are conducted only in naturalistic settings (e.g., homes).
D. Baselines are measures of g
B. Baselines are pretreatment measures, and probes measure generalized productions.
92. A special educator tells a disruptive boy in her class that he cannot have tokens (which can later be exchanged for a small gift) if he leaves his chair and wanders around the classroom. He is reinforced for many acceptable behaviors. This is an examp
A. differential reinforcement of other behavior
93. A treatment efficacy study on phonological disorders proposed that the treatment to be investigated will not make a difference. This means that the investigator
A. proposed a null hypothesis
B. proposed an alternative hypothesis
C. proposed a neutral
A. proposed a null hypothesis
94. In standardizing a test of language skills in children, the investigator asked two experts to judge each item on the test to make sure that all items were relevant to children's language skills. This is a method of establishing the
A. concurrent valid
B. content validity
95. A clinician measured the dysfluency rates of a client from a speech sample. She then asked another clinician to measure dysfluencies using the same method she had used. The first clinician calculated a reliability index based on her measure and that o
A. interobserver agreement (or interobserver reliability)
96. While evaluating the efficacy of a treatment procedure for aphasia, an investigator made sure that the clients in the experimental and control groups did not receive any other form of therapy during the course of the experimental study. This was done
C. rule out the influence of confounding variables
97. A researcher is describing the speech of a group of children who have been diagnosed as clutterers. She finds that the faster the children speak, the less intelligible they are. The researcher obtains a Pearson r correlational relationship of -.89. Th
A. a strong negative correlational (or inverse) relationship
98. To evaluate the effects of a phonological treatment procedure, an investigator started by establishing the baselines of target phoneme productions, offered treatment to all children base-rated, withdrew treatment for a period of time, and finally offe
E. ABAB design
99. Select the statement that is correct about group designs.
A. They are effective in establishing internal validity.
B. They can help establish cause-effect relationships.
C. Their requirement of randomization may be difficult to meet.
D. Their results
E. All of the above.
100. Select the statement that applies to ethnographic studies.
A. They are mostly descriptive.
B. They are suitable for evaluating treatment effects.
C. They are well-established in speech-language pathology.
D. They are very inexpensive to conduct.
E. T
A. They are mostly descriptive.
101. A correlation coefficient
A. helps establish the effect of a variable
B. suggests the ways in which two variables are related to each other
C. allows researchers to make predictions about their subjects' future behaviors
D. confirms a cause-effect re
B. suggests the ways in which two variables are related to each other
102. External validity of a study may be threatened by
A. the Hawthorne effect
B. statistical regression
C. testing
D. maturation
E. attrition
A. the Hawthorne effect
103. Which of the following is not a characteristic of single-subject experimental designs?
A. Repeated measures of behaviors before a treatment is administered
B. Intensive study of a few individuals
C. Absence of a control group
D. Absence of statistica
E. The use of an experimental and a control group
104. A clinician is asked to give a workshop to graduate students about evaluation of patients with swallowing disorders. She discusses evaluation in depth. Which one of the following facts in the clinician's workshop would be inaccurate?
A. An ultrasound
D. A laryngeal examination can be conducted with indirect laryngoscopy or endoscopic examination to inspect the base of the tongue, vallecula, epiglottis, pyriform sinuses, vocal folds, and ventricular folds.
105. A client who stutters mentions to his speech-language pathologist that his social life is limited. He states that "No one will talk to me because I stutter." This is an example of the common defense mechanism known as
A. displacement
B. projection
C.
D. rationalization
106. A kindergarten teacher refers Julie, a 4-year-old girl, to you for a speech and language screening. After completing an oral facial examination, you discover that the surface tissue of Julie's soft/hard palate has fused together, but her underlying m
C. submucous cleft
107. A 61-year-old pastor, Rev. Parks, has a stroke and takes a leave of absence from his job while he recovers. After 5 or 6 months, he tells his doctor that he feels well enough to go back to work. When Rev. Parks begins his job again, he goes back to h
A. right hemisphere syndrome
108. The radiographic imaging procedure that allows X-ray beams to circle through segments of the brain and pass through tissue while a camera takes pictures of sections of the structures being scanned is known as
A. electroencephalography (EEG)
B. comput
B. computerized axial tomography (CAT) scan
109. A researcher places surface electrodes on both sides of the thyroid cartilage and passes a high-frequency electric current between the electrodes. The patient is asked to phonate while the electric current is applied to the electrodes. This procedure
B. electroglottography
110. When a surgeon closes a cleft of the soft palate first and later closes a cleft of the hard palate, it is known as
A. secondary surgery
B. palatal surgery
C. pharyngeal flap surgery
D. delayed hard palate closure
E. palatoplasty
D. delayed hard palate closure
111. As a clinician in a medically based private practice, you receive a referral of 23-year-old Allison, a college cheerleader. Allison has been a cheerleader since her freshman year at Freeport College; she is now a senior. Allison works part time as a
E. diplophonia
112. As a clinician in a medically based private practice, you receive a referral of 23-year-old Allison, a college cheerleader. Allison has been a cheerleader since her freshman year at Freeport College; she is now a senior. Allison works part time as a
B. stroboscopy
113. As a clinician in a medically based private practice, you receive a referral of 23-year-old Allison, a college cheerleader. Allison has been a cheerleader since her freshman year at Freeport College; she is now a senior. Allison works part time as a
B. large amounts of both jitter and shimmer, with more than 1 dB of variation across vibratory cycles when shimmer is measured
114. As a clinician in a medically based private practice, you receive a referral of 23-year-old Allison, a college cheerleader. Allison has been a cheerleader since her freshman year at Freeport College; she is now a senior. Allison works part time as a
C. a sound spectrograph
115. A 4-year-old-child, Abby, is referred by her pediatrician to a multidisciplinary clinic where speech-language pathologists and audiologists work with a variety of other health care professionals. The pediatrician is concerned because Abby has had man
A. bat-mat
116. A 4-year-old-child, Abby, is referred by her pediatrician to a multidisciplinary clinic where speech-language pathologists and audiologists work with a variety of other health care professionals. The pediatrician is concerned because Abby has had man
A. the lowest hearing level (in dB) at which Abby correctly identifies 50% of words presented
117. A 4-year-old-child, Abby, is referred by her pediatrician to a multidisciplinary clinic where speech-language pathologists and audiologists work with a variety of other health care professionals. The pediatrician is concerned because Abby has had man
E. conductive
118. A preschool teacher refers Matthew to the clinician at the school. Matthew is only 4 years old, but the teacher is concerned because she thinks that he "has a lot of problems pronouncing his sounds. I don't know whether he will outgrow this." The cli
C. reduplication, final consonant deletion, and prevocalic voicing
119. A preschool teacher refers Matthew to the clinician at the school. Matthew is only 4 years old, but the teacher is concerned because she thinks that he "has a lot of problems pronouncing his sounds. I don't know whether he will outgrow this." The cli
A. 9 words, 10 morphemes
120. A preschool teacher refers Matthew to the clinician at the school. Matthew is only 4 years old, but the teacher is concerned because she thinks that he "has a lot of problems pronouncing his sounds. I don't know whether he will outgrow this." The cli
A. McDonald's sensory motor approach
1. A U-shaped bone that suspends the larynx is the
A. cricoid
B. thyroid
C. arytenoid
D. hyoid
E. all of the above
D. hyoid
2. The primary muscle of the lips is the
A. buccinator
B. risorius
C. depressor labii inferioris
D. orbicularis oris
E. depressor anguli oris
D. orbicularis oris
3. Before a surgeon performs a glossectomy, she informs the patient that the cranial nerves that innervate the tongue muscles will probably be damaged. Which of the following cranial nerves that innervate the tongue muscles will be affected by the operati
C. Cranial Nerve XII, hypoglossal nerve
4. A patient with ataxia complains of difficulties maintaining balance and posture. The physician explains to the patient that the structure that regulates equilibrium, body posture, and coordinated fine-motor movements may be damaged. Therefore, the dama
C. cerebellum
5. Peter has suffered a cerebrovascular accident (CVA); the neurologist reports lesions in the third convolution of the left cerebral hemisphere. Based on this, you conclude that the damaged area is
A. the occipital lobe
B. the basal ganglia
C. Wernicke's
D. Broca's area
6. After suffering from a severe stroke, Robert has difficulty with auditory comprehension and speaks fluently, though he does not make much sense. Which area of Robert's brain was affected by the stroke?
A. The frontal lobe
B. The occipital lobe
C. Werni
C. Wernicke's area
7. Which area of the brain connects Broca's area with Wernicke's area?
A. Corpus callosum
B. Choroid plexus
C. Arcuate fasciculus
D. Corona radiata
E. Third ventricle
C. Arcuate fasciculus
8. Sara has arterial damage that causes her to have cognitive deficits such as impaired judgment, problems concentrating, and difficulties with reasoning. According to the surgeon, damage to this artery can also cause a person to have paralysis of the fee
D. Anterior cerebral
9. Which statement about the cranial nerves is correct?
A. Cranial Nerve XII is not concerned with speech.
B. Cranial Nerve VIII is concerned with the sense of smell.
C. Cranial Nerve I is concerned with labial sound articulation.
D. Cranial Nerve II is i
E. Damage to Cranial Nerve VII causes a mask-like appearance.
10. A semi-vowel that can be categorized as a voiced bilabial glide that is + anterior and + continuant is the
A. /w/
B. /j/
C. /l/
D. /h/
E. /r/
A. /w/
11. Waves that repeat themselves at regular intervals are known as
A. aperiodic waves
B. periodic waves
C. sinusoidal motion/wave
D. octave
E. compression
B. periodic waves
The lowest intensity of a sound that will stimulate the auditory system is called
A. sound pressure level
B. decibel
C. hearing level
D. pitch
E. amplitude
C. hearing level
13. Two or more sounds of different frequencies are called
A. pure tones
B. complex tones
C. multiple tones
D. harmonic tones
E. duplex tones
B. complex tones
14. The lowest frequency of a periodic wave is
A. natural frequency
B. formant frequency
C. fundamental frequency
D. displacement frequency
E. compression frequency
C. fundamental frequency
15. Acoustical, mechanical, or electrical resistance to motion or sound transmission is called
A. impedance
B. admittance
C. immittance
D. velocity
E. reflection
A. impedance
16. When sound waves move from one medium (e.g., air) to another (e.g., water), it causes a bending of the sound wave due to change in its speed of propagation. This phenomenon is known as
A. refraction
B. reflection
C. compression
D. rarefaction
E. sinus
A. refraction
17. The back-and-forth movement of particles when the movement is symmetrical and periodic is called
A. an aperiodic wave
B. a sinusoidal wave
C. compression
D. rarefaction
E. simple harmonic motion
E. simple harmonic motion
18. A child who calls all tall and brown-haired men "Daddy" is exhibiting the phenomenon of
A. underextension
B. overextension
C. joint reference
D. denial
E. overabstraction
B. overextension
19. You are a new clinician in a hospital that has a neonatal intensive care unit (NICU). Your job title is that of newborn development specialist (NDS). Which one of the following would be false regarding your role as an NDS?
A. You would support the fam
C. You would not serve as primary care coordinator or case manager for the infants and families because a medical doctor usually fills this role.
20. You have been asked to assess the language skills of 6-year-old Julia, who has been referred by her classroom teacher. The teacher says that Julia "talks in these really short sentences. I don't know if she is just shy, or if there is more going on.
A. You would tell the teacher and parents that you would like to formally evaluate Julia's language skills because at 6 years of age she should have an average mean length of utterance (MLU) of 6.0-8.0 and her language should approximate the adult model.
21. You are about to begin intervention with a 7-year-old child with developmental delays who reportedly has the language skills of a typically developing 4-year-old child. Which of the following skills would not be appropriate to work in treatment?
A. Us
B. Production of gerunds
22. You are working with a 9-year-old girl who has been diagnosed with high-functioning autism. She has an excellent vocabulary as well as good morphological and syntactic skills. However, her pragmatic skills are reportedly delayed and her parents wish h
D. Make sure conversations with peers focus on her interests and hobbies so that she can maintain control of the topic
23. The theory that asserts that each child is born with an innate language acquisition device (LAD) is the
A. nativist theory of Chomsky
B. cognitive theory of Piaget
C. information processing theory
D. behavioral theory of Skinner
E. social interactioni
A. nativist theory of Chomsky
24. A clinician who concentrated on syntax during therapy with children with language delays and did not believe in external reinforcement would probably subscribe to the
A. Behaviorist theory
B. Social interactionist theory
C. Cognitive theory
D. Informa
E. Nativist theory
25. Which of the following would be true of a clinician who used Skinner's behaviorism as a foundation for her/his intervention with children with language delays?
A. She or he would teach the child to use mands, tacts, and echoics.
B. She or he would tar
A. She or he would teach the child to use mands, tacts, and echoics.
26. You are treating a 4-year-old boy with specific language impairment (SLI) for intervention. You notice that he omits all grammatical morphemes in his speech. Which one of the following morphemes would you target first in therapy with him?
A. Articles
C. Present progressive -ing
27. A child with a language delay is in Brown's Stage V of morpheme mastery. Which of the following would not be appropriate to target in intervention?
A. Regular plural inflection -s
B. Irregular third person
C. Contractible auxiliary
D. Contractible cop
A. Regular plural inflection -s
28. Which of the following is not a semantic relation expressed by two-word utterances?
A. Notice (e.g., "hi" + noun)
B. Attribute + entity (e.g., "brown horse")
C. Agent-action (e.g., "kitty meow")
D. Nomination (e.g., "that chair")
E. Affirmation (e.g.,
C. Agent-action (e.g., "kitty meow")
29. A child who regularly says "He the small one" instead of "He is the smallest one" or "She is tall than her" instead of "She is taller than her" has specific problems with
A. adjectives
B. comparatives and superlatives
C. irregular past-tense forms
D.
B. comparatives and superlatives
30. To assess a child's pragmatic skills, a clinician may observe, among others, which of the following behaviors?
A. turn taking and discourse skills
B. production of past-tense inflections
C. production of is + verb -ing structures
D. production of prep
A. turn taking and discourse skills
31. During an informal conversation with an adolescent who has come to you for assessment, you notice the following problems: difficulty in using figurative language, difficulty in using words with multiple meanings, and difficulty using synonyms appropri
B. Semantic language skills
32. Select the true statement.
A. T-units contain an independent clause and one or more subordinate clauses.
B. T-units are types of linguistic units.
C. C-units may never contain incomplete sentences produced in response to questions.
D. C-units do not c
A. T-units contain an independent clause and one or more subordinate clauses.
33. Which one of the following statements is false?
A. Speech pathologists should incorporate literacy materials into therapy when appropriate.
B. It is important to collaborate with the classroom teacher when working with school-age children with languag
C. A child's chronological age, not developmental level, is the most reliable indicator of what treatment goals will be appropriate.
34. Which one of the following statements is false?
A. Noniconic symbols are geometric, abstract, and arbitrary and must be specifically taught.
B. The picture exchange communication system (PECS) is effective.
C. A hieroglyphic picture of a house is an i
D. The facilitated communication approach is supported by evidence.
35. You move to a new elementary school and begin seeing children on the caseload. Johnny, a 7-year-old child, is receiving intervention to "increase semantic skills." Five goals are listed on his IEP. Which one of these goals is inappropriate?
A. Increas
A. Increase use of appropriate discourse skills
36. You are seeing a 12-year-old girl at the local junior high school. Her scores on the Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test-4 and the Expressive Vocabulary Test-2 were both 2 years below age level. She has many friends and is well liked by her peers. Academi
D. semantic skills
37. You are working in an early intervention program with infants who are at risk for language disorders. You need to assess, among other things, the infants' relationships and interactions with their caregivers. Which of the following instruments would b
C. Observation of Communication Interaction
38. Delay is a treatment procedure in which the clinician
A. requires specific responses from the child by giving such commands as "Tell me what is this"
B. waits for the child to initiate a response, prompts or models if there is no response, and gives t
B. waits for the child to initiate a response, prompts or models if there is no response, and gives the desired object if there is no response after three models
39. Melissa says "clink" instead of "blink"; she produces an incorrect sound in place of a correct sound. This articulation error is known as
A. omission
B. substitution
C. accommodation
D. adaptation
E. reduplication
B. substitution
40. Nick has a short lingual frenum (tongue-tie). Because the frenum is attached too close to the tip of the tongue, it causes a reduction in tongue mobility. Nick is, therefore, unable to produce lingua-alveolar sounds (e.g., /t/, /d/). Which is the most
E. Ankyloglossia
41. On completion of an oral mechanism examination, the attending orthodontist notices that her patient has a protruding maxilla and a receded mandible. The orthodontist asks the student speech-language pathologist for a diagnosis of the condition. The st
B. class II malocclusion
42. The diadochokinetic rate is used to evaluate
A. myofunctional disorders
B. dental deviations
C. oral-motor coordination
D. neuropathologies
E. ankyloglossia
C. oral-motor coordination
43. John has cerebral palsy that has resulted in a motor speech disorder caused by central nervous system damage. This damage has caused John to have weakness and incoordination of the muscles of speech. John's speech is classified as
A. paraphasic
B. dys
B. dysarthric
44. Beth has central nervous system damage with no weakness or paralysis of her facial muscles; however, her central nervous system damage makes it difficult for her to program the precise movements necessary for smoothly articulated speech. Beth's motor
D. apraxia
45. Jamal is an 8-year old boy who transfers to your school district. The report from the previous speech-language pathologist is missing from his cumulative file, but you see a note that says, "Jamal has childhood apraxia of speech (CAS)." Which one of t
B. Rapid speech that becomes faster as Jamal gets more deeply involved in a conversation
46. A child is referred to you by his preschool teacher. This child, Jaden, is 4 years 5 months old and has transferred from out of state. In his previous state, Jaden was reportedly assessed by a speech-language pathologist who recommended that Jaden rec
D. reduplication
47. Bloodstein suggested that stuttering is
A. a response of tension and speech fragmentation
B. an avoidance behavior
C. due to parental diagnosis
D. an operant behavior
E. due to genetic factors
A. a response of tension and speech fragmentation
48. Which model contends that a child who is unable to cope with the expectations of fluent speech production may begin to stutter?
A. The diagnosogenic model
B. The expectancy deconfirmation model
C. The demands and capacities model
D. The neurophysiolog
C. The demands and capacities model
49. Stuttering may be diagnosed on the basis of
A. a total dysfluency rate that exceeds an objective criterion (e.g., 5% of the words)
B. eye blinks and other facial grimaces
C. avoidance of speaking situations
D. dysfluencies that occur only on words
E.
A. a total dysfluency rate that exceeds an objective criterion (e.g., 5% of the words)
50. Select the true statement or statements of Van Riper's approach to stuttering treatment.
A. Its goal is fluent stuttering.
B. It seeks to establish normal sounding fluency by slowing down the speech rate.
C. It seeks to reduce stuttering by using oper
A. Its goal is fluent stuttering.
51. You plan to write a treatment program for an adult who stutters. You wish to use the fluency-shaping procedure. Among the following choices, what would you include in your program?
A. Auditory masking with white noise
B. Airflow management, gentle ons
B. Airflow management, gentle onset of phonation, slower speech, and normal prosodic features
52. In selecting the fluency-shaping technique, clinicians should consider that it
A. often leads to relapse of stuttering
B. is known to promote long-term maintenance of fluency
C. does not induce unnatural prosodic features
D. requires only a single tar
A. often leads to relapse of stuttering
53. You are asked to design a treatment program for young children who stutter, including preschoolers. Among the following choices, which would you most likely select?
A. Delayed auditory feedback
B. Masking noise
C. Fluency reinforcement or response cos
C. Fluency reinforcement or response cost
54. Procedures in which stuttering is directly reduced without teaching fluency skills (e.g., slow speech) are known as
A. direct stuttering reduction methods
B. fluent stuttering
C. fluency shaping
D. parent counseling
E. desensitization to stuttering
A. direct stuttering reduction methods
55. Speech samples of persons who clutter may contain such productions as "many thinkle peep so." This phenomenon is a
A. festinating articulation
B. spoonerism
C. dactylology
D. disassimilation
E. tachylalia
B. spoonerism
56. You are evaluating a basketball coach, Susan, who tells you, "I am having problems with my voice." You notice intermittent, involuntary, fleeting vocal fold abduction when she tries to phonate. This is known as
A. abductor spasmodic dysphonia
B. adduc
A. abductor spasmodic dysphonia
57. In your private practice, you receive a referral of a sixth-grade girl, Christina M. She is not speaking, and the pediatrician thinks that she might have functional aphonia. A diagnoses of functional aphonia means that
A. there is evidence of neurolog
C. there is no voice
58. A 43-year-old high school football coach comes to you for an evaluation. He states that he has been hoarse for approximately 10 months. A subsequent medical evaluation reveals that he has bilateral lesions on the anterior third of the vocal fold. A na
D. vocal nodules
59. In a voice evaluation, air pressure can be measured with a
A. thermometer
B. manometer
C. airmometer
D. altimeter
E. meter
B. manometer
60. Contact ulcers may be caused by all of the following except
A. chronic throat clearing
B. hard-glottal attack
C. psychogenic problems
D. intubation for surgery
E. gastric reflux
C. psychogenic problems
61. Kyle, a 27-year-old man, speaks with a pitch that is perpetually too high, despite complete laryngeal maturation. You believe that Kyle has
A. hormonal changes
B. conversational dysphonia
C. spasmodic dysphonia
D. mutational falsetto
E. intentional dy
D. mutational falsetto
62. Tanya, a 22-year-old student, is diagnosed with a unilateral polyp. When Tanya speaks, it appears that she is producing two different pitches simultaneously. You explain to Tanya that she has a condition called
A. aphonia
B. dysphonia
C. diplophonia
D
C. diplophonia
63. Among other functions, the right hemisphere specializes in
A. understanding of syntax
B. production of grammatical morphemes
C. more focally organized functions than the left hemisphere does
D. production of grammatically complex sentences
E. visual a
E. visual and spatial information
64. Impaired facial recognition is more common in patients with
A. anterior right hemisphere damage
B. posterior right hemisphere damage
C. left temporal lobe damage
D. damage to the perisylvian region
E. occipital lobe damage
B. posterior right hemisphere damage
65. Patients with right hemisphere damage tend to demonstrate
A. severe naming problems
B. profound auditory comprehension problems
C. severe oral expression problems
D. impaired comprehension of implied meanings
E. impaired syntactic skills
D. impaired comprehension of implied meanings
66. You are asked to develop a management plan for a patient with right hemisphere syndrome. Your treatment targets would include
A. pragmatic language impairments
B. production of morphologic features
C. syntactic skills
D. phonological skills
E. sluggis
A. pragmatic language impairments
67. You are asked to assess a 20-year-old man with traumatic brain injury. Select the following statement that gives you a correct orientation to your assessment of this patient.
A. Pure linguistic skills, including grammatical skills, need to be assessed
B. Pragmatic language skills, production of speech sounds, and comprehension of spoken language skills should be among the main targets of assessment.
68. You are asked to prepare a clinical management plan for family members of a patient with dementia. Among other skills, you would teach the family members to
A. socially and consistently reinforce correct syntactic constructions
B. avoid asking yes or
C. restate important information
69. The disorders of the pharyngeal phase of swallow include
A. delayed or absent swallowing reflex
B. anterior instead of posterior movement of the tongue
C. reduced range of lateral and vertical tongue movement
D. difficulty in forming and holding the b
A. delayed or absent swallowing reflex
70. In assessing a patient with swallowing disorders, you would
A. not be concerned about screening the patient for concrete and abstract language comprehension because it would provide irrelevant information
B. consider the correct positioning of the pat
B. consider the correct positioning of the patient for certain procedures
71. Select the statement that is correct.
A. Apraxia of speech (AOS) is a language disorder.
B. AOS is a neurogenic speech disorder.
C. AOS is caused by weakness in speech muscles.
D. AOS does not coexist with aphasia.
E. AOS may not be associated with pr
B. AOS is a neurogenic speech disorder.
72. An 81-year-old bilingual man from Thailand has had a stroke, and you are seeing him for therapy. He is recovering both his primary language and his English skills, but you are working only in English. No interpreters are available, unfortunately, and
A. "They going over there today.
73. A Cambodian child is referred to you because the teacher "can't understand a word he says." In the course of your speech-language screening, you record the following utterances. Which might be typical of an articulation disorder, not a difference?
A.
E. "I am derry (very) -appy (happy) to meet your tids (kids).
74. Which one of the following statements is false?
A. A multicultural student whose background does not match the school's expectations might be inaccurately labeled as having a language-learning disability.
B. If a student has normal abilities in her pr
B. If a student has normal abilities in her primary language but is somewhat slow to learn English, she needs to be placed on the speech pathologist's caseload for intervention.
75. Select the false statement.
A. When a typically developing child is learning a second language, it usually takes her approximately 2 years to develop basic interpersonal communication skills that are commensurate with those of native speakers.
B. This
C. It is generally best for children to be monolingual, not bilingual, because learning two languages is confusing and overtaxes children's cognitive-linguistic skills.
76. You are assessing an Ibo-speaking child from Nigeria who learned Ibo first (from birth) and then was exposed to English in preschool when he was 3 years of age. His parents continue to speak Ibo at home, and he is often cared for by his Ibo-speaking g
E. He will not be interested in maintaining his skills in Ibo, and he will become a monolingual English speaker.
77. You are assessing an African American elementary-age child, Takissha. The fourth-grade teacher has referred Takissha to you because "Takissha often talks when other children are talking, and when she tells a story, she is not very structured." At this
C. she is demonstrating verbal behavior that is consistent with that of many members of the African American community
78. You work in a school district where increasing numbers of parents are coming to you with issues experienced by their internationally adopted children. Which one of the following would you not expect to be an issue experienced by these children?
A. The
D. They maintain their first language skills and become fully bilingual, speaking both their first languages and English fluently.
79. The public elementary school where you work has asked you to give an in-service to their teachers on appropriate referrals of bilingual children with possible communication disorders. Which of the following would be appropriate to tell these teachers?
D. Some bilingual children attain low scores when tested in their first language due to language loss in that language.
80. Which one of the following statements is false regarding providing rehabilitative services to adult culturally and linguistically diverse (CLD) patients with neurological impairments?
A. Some families may be offended by the rehabilitation team's encou
B. Most standardized aphasia tests are appropriate for use with these patients because the tests have been carefully normed using samples that include CLD individuals.
81. If an African American adult patient in a hospital setting says, "I been had the measles when I was a kid," this is an example of
A. circumlocution
B. semantic paraphasia
C. a perfective construction
D. the use of an additional auxiliary
E. lack of no
C. a perfective construction
82. A 75-year-old man visits your office and complains that he constantly turns the volume of his television set too high and is unable to listen to programs at a lower volume. After conducting hearing tests, you explain to him that his hearing loss is du
B. presbycusis
83. Hearing loss that occurs when the middle ear and the inner ear are not functioning properly is known as
A. sensorineural hearing loss
B. middle ear hearing loss
C. mixed hearing loss
D. conductive hearing loss
E. inner ear hearing loss
C. mixed hearing loss
84. Patients who have damage to their nerve fibers along the ascending auditory pathways from the internal auditory meatus to the cortex have a
A. cochlear disorder
B. retrocochlear disorder
C. recruitment disorder
D. middle ear disorder
E. external audit
B. retrocochlear disorder
85. The softest level of hearing at which a person can understand 50% of the words presented is known as
A. pure tone threshold
B. speech discrimination threshold
C. speech reception threshold
D. word discrimination threshold
E. conversational speech thre
C. speech reception threshold
86. The impedance meter can measure a simple reflex response of the muscles attached to the stapes bone. This reflex is called the
A. stapes reflex
B. tympanic reflex
C. oval window reflex
D. basilar membrane reflex
E. acoustic reflex
E. acoustic reflex
87. When acoustic immittance is measured with an electroacoustic instrument, it is called
A. tympanometry
B. immittanceometry
C. impedanometry
D. admittanceometry
E. acoustic reflex
A. tympanometry
88. A person who deciphers speech by looking at the face of the speaker and using visual cues to understand what the speaker is saying is using a technique known as
A. cued speech
B. visual speech
C. speech reading
D. audiovisual speech
E. deaf speech
C. speech reading
89. Which one of the following is not a feature of norm-referenced, standardized tests?
A. They prescribe systematic procedures for administration and scoring of the test.
B. They allow for a comparison of a client's score to that of a normative sample.
C
D. They generate information that can be used to create treatment goals and assess treatment progress.
90. Baselines
A. help establish the initial level of clients' behaviors for later comparison
B. are a duplication of standardized tests
C. are not necessary for each response mode
D. require the clinician to give corrective feedback for incorrect response
A. help establish the initial level of clients' behaviors for later comparison
91. Select the correct statement.
A. Probes and baselines are the same.
B. Baselines are pretreatment measures, and probes measure generalized productions.
C. Probes are conducted only in naturalistic settings (e.g., homes).
D. Baselines are measures of g
B. Baselines are pretreatment measures, and probes measure generalized productions.
92. A special educator tells a disruptive boy in her class that he cannot have tokens (which can later be exchanged for a small gift) if he leaves his chair and wanders around the classroom. He is reinforced for many acceptable behaviors. This is an examp
A. differential reinforcement of other behavior
93. A treatment efficacy study on phonological disorders proposed that the treatment to be investigated will not make a difference. This means that the investigator
A. proposed a null hypothesis
B. proposed an alternative hypothesis
C. proposed a neutral
A. proposed a null hypothesis
94. In standardizing a test of language skills in children, the investigator asked two experts to judge each item on the test to make sure that all items were relevant to children's language skills. This is a method of establishing the
A. concurrent valid
B. content validity
95. A clinician measured the dysfluency rates of a client from a speech sample. She then asked another clinician to measure dysfluencies using the same method she had used. The first clinician calculated a reliability index based on her measure and that o
A. interobserver agreement (or interobserver reliability)
96. While evaluating the efficacy of a treatment procedure for aphasia, an investigator made sure that the clients in the experimental and control groups did not receive any other form of therapy during the course of the experimental study. This was done
C. rule out the influence of confounding variables
97. A researcher is describing the speech of a group of children who have been diagnosed as clutterers. She finds that the faster the children speak, the less intelligible they are. The researcher obtains a Pearson r correlational relationship of -.89. Th
A. a strong negative correlational (or inverse) relationship
98. To evaluate the effects of a phonological treatment procedure, an investigator started by establishing the baselines of target phoneme productions, offered treatment to all children base-rated, withdrew treatment for a period of time, and finally offe
E. ABAB design
99. Select the statement that is correct about group designs.
A. They are effective in establishing internal validity.
B. They can help establish cause-effect relationships.
C. Their requirement of randomization may be difficult to meet.
D. Their results
E. All of the above.
100. Select the statement that applies to ethnographic studies.
A. They are mostly descriptive.
B. They are suitable for evaluating treatment effects.
C. They are well-established in speech-language pathology.
D. They are very inexpensive to conduct.
E. T
A. They are mostly descriptive.
101. A correlation coefficient
A. helps establish the effect of a variable
B. suggests the ways in which two variables are related to each other
C. allows researchers to make predictions about their subjects' future behaviors
D. confirms a cause-effect re
B. suggests the ways in which two variables are related to each other
102. External validity of a study may be threatened by
A. the Hawthorne effect
B. statistical regression
C. testing
D. maturation
E. attrition
A. the Hawthorne effect
103. Which of the following is not a characteristic of single-subject experimental designs?
A. Repeated measures of behaviors before a treatment is administered
B. Intensive study of a few individuals
C. Absence of a control group
D. Absence of statistica
E. The use of an experimental and a control group
104. A clinician is asked to give a workshop to graduate students about evaluation of patients with swallowing disorders. She discusses evaluation in depth. Which one of the following facts in the clinician's workshop would be inaccurate?
A. An ultrasound
D. A laryngeal examination can be conducted with indirect laryngoscopy or endoscopic examination to inspect the base of the tongue, vallecula, epiglottis, pyriform sinuses, vocal folds, and ventricular folds.
105. A client who stutters mentions to his speech-language pathologist that his social life is limited. He states that "No one will talk to me because I stutter." This is an example of the common defense mechanism known as
A. displacement
B. projection
C.
D. rationalization
106. A kindergarten teacher refers Julie, a 4-year-old girl, to you for a speech and language screening. After completing an oral facial examination, you discover that the surface tissue of Julie's soft/hard palate has fused together, but her underlying m
C. submucous cleft
107. A 61-year-old pastor, Rev. Parks, has a stroke and takes a leave of absence from his job while he recovers. After 5 or 6 months, he tells his doctor that he feels well enough to go back to work. When Rev. Parks begins his job again, he goes back to h
A. right hemisphere syndrome
108. The radiographic imaging procedure that allows X-ray beams to circle through segments of the brain and pass through tissue while a camera takes pictures of sections of the structures being scanned is known as
A. electroencephalography (EEG)
B. comput
B. computerized axial tomography (CAT) scan
109. A researcher places surface electrodes on both sides of the thyroid cartilage and passes a high-frequency electric current between the electrodes. The patient is asked to phonate while the electric current is applied to the electrodes. This procedure
B. electroglottography
110. When a surgeon closes a cleft of the soft palate first and later closes a cleft of the hard palate, it is known as
A. secondary surgery
B. palatal surgery
C. pharyngeal flap surgery
D. delayed hard palate closure
E. palatoplasty
D. delayed hard palate closure
111. As a clinician in a medically based private practice, you receive a referral of 23-year-old Allison, a college cheerleader. Allison has been a cheerleader since her freshman year at Freeport College; she is now a senior. Allison works part time as a
E. diplophonia
112. As a clinician in a medically based private practice, you receive a referral of 23-year-old Allison, a college cheerleader. Allison has been a cheerleader since her freshman year at Freeport College; she is now a senior. Allison works part time as a
B. stroboscopy
113. As a clinician in a medically based private practice, you receive a referral of 23-year-old Allison, a college cheerleader. Allison has been a cheerleader since her freshman year at Freeport College; she is now a senior. Allison works part time as a
B. large amounts of both jitter and shimmer, with more than 1 dB of variation across vibratory cycles when shimmer is measured
114. As a clinician in a medically based private practice, you receive a referral of 23-year-old Allison, a college cheerleader. Allison has been a cheerleader since her freshman year at Freeport College; she is now a senior. Allison works part time as a
C. a sound spectrograph
115. A 4-year-old-child, Abby, is referred by her pediatrician to a multidisciplinary clinic where speech-language pathologists and audiologists work with a variety of other health care professionals. The pediatrician is concerned because Abby has had man
A. bat-mat
116. A 4-year-old-child, Abby, is referred by her pediatrician to a multidisciplinary clinic where speech-language pathologists and audiologists work with a variety of other health care professionals. The pediatrician is concerned because Abby has had man
A. the lowest hearing level (in dB) at which Abby correctly identifies 50% of words presented
117. A 4-year-old-child, Abby, is referred by her pediatrician to a multidisciplinary clinic where speech-language pathologists and audiologists work with a variety of other health care professionals. The pediatrician is concerned because Abby has had man
E. conductive
118. A preschool teacher refers Matthew to the clinician at the school. Matthew is only 4 years old, but the teacher is concerned because she thinks that he "has a lot of problems pronouncing his sounds. I don't know whether he will outgrow this." The cli
C. reduplication, final consonant deletion, and prevocalic voicing
119. A preschool teacher refers Matthew to the clinician at the school. Matthew is only 4 years old, but the teacher is concerned because she thinks that he "has a lot of problems pronouncing his sounds. I don't know whether he will outgrow this." The cli
A. 9 words, 10 morphemes
120. A preschool teacher refers Matthew to the clinician at the school. Matthew is only 4 years old, but the teacher is concerned because she thinks that he "has a lot of problems pronouncing his sounds. I don't know whether he will outgrow this." The cli
A. McDonald's sensory motor approach