The gland that controls the fight or flight reaction is the:
a. Thyroid
b. Adrenal Medulla
c. Hypophysis
d. Parathyroid
e. Pancreas
B
______________ produces hormones that control blood levels of calcium by its removal from bone tissue.
a. Thyroid
b. Adrenal medulla
c. Hypophysis
d. Parathyroid
e. Pancreas
D
The hormone that raises blood sugar levels is insulin.
a. True
b. False
B
Growth Hormone:
a. Is also called somatostatin
b. Is regulated by humoral mechanism
c. Secretion results in a decrease in muscle mass
d. Promotes long bone growth during the formative years
D
When it becomes necessary to enlist the flight-or-fight response, a hormone that is released during the alarm phase of the general adaptation syndrome is _____________.
a. Estrogen
b. Epinephrine
c. Angiotensin
d. Renin
B
The major targets of GH are __________.
a. The blood vessels
b. The adrenal glands
c. The liver
d. Bones and skeletal muscles
D
The most important regulator of electrolyte (sodium) concentrations in extracellular fluids is _______.
a. Insulin
b. Aldosterone
c. Glucagon
d. Cortisol
B
When the pituitary gland does not produce one or more of its hormones or not enough of them is called:
a. Hypopituitarism
b. Cushing syndrome
c. Addison disease
d. Panhypopituitarism
A
Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic non ketotic syndrome (HHNS) can be differentiated from diabetic ketoacidosis by which of the following conditions?
a. Hyperglycemia
b. Serum of osmolarity
c. Absence of ketones
d. Hypokalemia
C
Pancreatic alpha islet cells produce ___________, an extremely potent hyperglycemia hormone.
Insulin
a. Erythropoetin
b. Thyroid
c. Amylin
d. Glucagon
D
Which gland or part of a gland secretes epinephrine?
a. Adrenal cortex
b. Adrenal medulla
c. Anterior pituitary
d. Posterior pituitary
e. Hypothalamus
B
Which best describes the respective effects of insulin and glucagon on blood sugar?
a. Insulin raises blood sugar; glucagon lowers it
b. Both raise blood sugar
c. Insulin lowers blood sugar; glucagon raises it
d. Both lower blood sugar
e. None of the abov
C
Which of the following terms is used to describe the carpopedal spasm caused by occluding the blood flow of an arm for 3 minutes with a BP cuff?
a. Negative Chevostek's sign
b. Positive Chevostek's sign
c. Negative Trousseau's sign
d. Positive Trousseau's
D
Hypersecretion of which of the following hormones would cause pituitary gigantism?
a. FSH
b. GH
c. PTH
d. TSH
B
Which of the following terms is used to describe an unusually benign tumor of the adrenal medulla?
a. Apical aneurysm
b. Endemic goiter
c. Pheochomocytoma
d. Ulcerogenic tumor
C
Target cell receptors for most water-soluble hormones are located in the:
a. Cytosol
b. Cell membrane
c. Endoplasmic reticulum
d. Nucleus
B
ADH and oxytocin are secreted into the blood stream as active hormones by the:
a. Anterior pituitary
b. Posterior pituitary
c. Hypothalamus
d. Pineal gland
B
Tapping on the facial nerve just below t he temple which results in nose, eye, lip, or facial twitching is:
a. Negative Chvostek's sign
b. Positive Chevostek's sign
c. Negative Trousseau's sign
d. Positive Trousseau's sign
B
ADH release from the posterior pituitary is stimulated by:
a. Low blood pressure sensed by baroreceptors in the kidneys
b. High serum osmolarity sensed by osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus
c. Low osmolarity sensed by osmoreceptors in the kidneys
d. High c
B
ADH is important in:
a. The body's water balance and urine concentration
b. Maintaining electrolyte levels and concentration
c. Follicular maturation
d. Regulation of metabolic processes
A
Target cells for oxytocin are located in the:
a. Renal tubules
b. Thymus
c. Liver
d. Uterus
D
A 50-yo male pt is deficient in ADH production. Which of the following would be an expected sign/ symptom?
a. Increased blood volume
b. Increased urine osmolality
c. Increased urine volume
d. Increased arterial vasoconstriction
C
An essential ingredient for thyroid hormone synthesis is:
a. Zinc
b. Sodium
c. Iodine
d. Calcium
C
Which of the following alterations would slow down the rate of PTH secretion?
a. Increased serum calcium levels
b. Decreased serum calcium levels
c. Decreased levels of TSH
d. Increased levels of TSH
A
Insulin is primarily regulated by:
a. Metabolic rate
b. Serum glucose levels
c. Prostaglandins
d. Enzyme activation
B
ACTH release can be stimulated by:
a. High serum levels of cortisol
b. Hypotension
c. Hypoglycemia
d. Stress
D
Aldosterone secretion is regulated by:
a. The sympathetic nervous system
b. ACTH
c. The renin- Angiotensin system
d. Positive feedback control systems
C
Which of the following hormones is secreted by the adrenal medulla?
a. Cortisol
b. Epinephrine
c. Androgens
d. Estrogens
B
Coarsening of facial features and soft tissue swelling of the hands and feet are early clinical manifestations of which of the following conditions?
a. Acromegaly
b. Cushing syndrome
c. Graves disease
d. Phenochromocytoma
A
A 45 yo male was previously diagnosed with Parkinson disease. He has impaired fine repetitive motor movements. Which of the following areas is most likely damaged?
a. Basal ganglia
b. Prefrontal area
c. Hippocampus
d. Temporal lobe
A
The outermost membrane surrounding the brain is the:
a. Dura mater
b. Arachonoid mater
c. Pia mater
d. Falx cerebri
A
Arousal is mediated by the:
a. Cerebral cortex
b. Medulla oblongata
c. RAS
d. Cingulated gyrus
C
A 20 yo male suffers a severe closed head injury in a motor vehicle accident. He remains in a vegetative state 1 month after the accident. Which of the following structures is most likely damaged?
a. Cerebral cortex
b. Brain stem
c. Spinal cord
d. Cerebel
A
For legal purposes, brain death is defined as:
a. Cessation of brain function
b. Lack of cortical function
c. A vegetative state
d. Irreversible cessation of all brain function
D
When thought content and arousal level are intact but a pt cannot communicate, the pt has:
a. Cerebral death
b. Locked-in syndrome
c. Dyshpagia
d. Cerebral motor syndrome
B
A 20 yo male was a t the supermarket when he fell to the ground. Bystanders reported that he lost consciuosness and his body tensed up then relaxed, then tensed and relaxes several times. He most likely was experiencing a:
a. Partial seizure
b. Absence sr
D
A peculiar sensation that immediately precedes a seizure is called a:
a. Prodroma
b. Agnosia
c. Spasm
d. Aura
D
The cognitive disorder that results in the loss of memory of events that occurred before a head injury is:
a. Selective memory deficit
b. Anterograde amnesia
c. Retrograde amnesia
d. Executive memory deficit
C
A 65 yo male recently suffered cerebral vascular accident. He is now unable to recognize and identify objects by touch because of injury to the sensory cortex. This condition is a form of:
a. Hypomimesis
b. Agnosia
c. Dysphagia
d. Agraphia
B
A 51 yo male is admitted to the neuro critical care unit with a severe closed head injury. All four extremities are rigid in extension, his forearm is hyperpronated, and his legs are in plantar extension. This condition is known as:
a. Decorticate posturi
B
A nerve is stimulated by an electrical current. Upon stimulation, neurotransmittiers are released from the:
a. Synapse
b. Synaptic bouton
c. Synaptic cleft
d. Receptor
B
Which of the following diseases is cause by a deficiency of cortical hormones?
a. Addison's disease
b. Cushing's syndrome
c. Diabetes mellitus
d. Hypothyrodisim
A
A client is brought into the emergency room with a brain stem contusion,. Two days after admission the client has a large amount of urine. Which of the following conditions may be developing?
a. Addison's disease
b. Graves disease
c. Diabetes Insipidus
d.
C
Which of the following describes involuntary rhythmic movements of the eyes?
a. Diplopia
b. Expothalamus
c. Nystagmus
d. Oculogyric crisis
C
A teenage boy sustains a severe closed head injury following an ATV accident. He is in a state of deep sleep that requires vigorous stimulation to elicit eye opening. Which of the following describes his condition?
a. Confusion
b. Coma
c. Obtundation
d. S
C
A disorder that courses excessive movement is:
a. Tachykinesia
b. Akinesia
c. Hyperkinesia
d. Dyskinesia
C
A 54 yo pt w/ pulmonary TB (lung infections) is evaluated for SIADH. Which of the following clinical manifestations would be expected in this pt?
a. Peripheral edema
b. Tachycardia
c. Low BP
d. Concentrated urine
D
A client recalls smelling an unpleasant odor before his seizure. Which of the following terms describes this?
a. Atonic seizure
b. Aura
c. Icterus
d. Postical experience
B
When it becomes necessary to enlist the fight or flight response, a hormone that is released during the alarm phase of general adaptation syndrome is:
a. Estrogen
b. Epinephrine
c. Angiotensin
d. Renin
B
The parathyroid glands maintain adequate levels of calcium. This is accomplished through:
a. Blocking the action of GH
b. Targeting the bone and activation osteoclasts so that calcium will be release
c. Antagonizing the synthesis of calcitonon
d. Allowing
B
Regulating the hormones from the hypothalamus:
a. Enter venous circulation and travel to the heart, which pumps the hormone-containing blood to the pituitary
b. Enter the hepatice (liver) portal system, which feeds the pituitary
c. Travel by the arteries
B
Which of the following is true about calcium homeostasis?
a. Increased calcitonon will cause increased blood calcium levels
b. High calcium levels cause bone reabsorption
c. PTH cases an increase in osteoblast activity
d. PTH is the single most important
D
Graves disease is:
a. Hyperthyrodisim
b. Associated with autoimmunity
c. Manifested by opothalmopathy
d. All of the above are correct
D
What is the most common cause of acromegaly?
a. Anterior pituitary adenoma
b. Overproduction of ACTH
c. Over production of TSH
d. Pituitary atrophy
A
A benign tumor of the adrenal glands that causes hypersecretion of aldostrone is:
a. Addison disease
b. A phenochromocytoma
c. Cushing syndrome
d. Cushing disease
e. Conn disease
B
The pituitary gland is located in the:
a. Digestive tract
b. Ovaries
c. Heart
d. Brain
D
A state of muscle contraction in which there is excessive muscle tone
tonic clonic
A partial seizure experienced as a peculiar sensation preceding the onset of generalized seizure that may take the form of gustatory, visual or auditory experience or a dealing of dizziness, numbness, or just a "funny feeling
aura
The time period immediately following the cessation of seizure activity
postical phase
Early clinical manifestations, such as malaise, headache, or a sense of depression, which may occur hours to a few days before the onset of a seizure
prodroma
A state of alternating contraction and relaxation of muscles
clonic phase
The most critical index of nervous system function is:
a. Oculovestibluar reflex (calorie ice water test)
b. Snout reflex
c. Level of consciousness
d. Plamomental reflex
e. Oculocephalic reflex response (doll's eye phenomenon)
C
Confusion is:
a. Orientation to person, time and place
b. Slow vocalization, decrease oculomotor activity
c. Inability to think clearly
d. Vocalization in response to painful stimuli
e. No arousal
C
Coma is:
a. Orientation to person, time and place
b. Slow vocalization, decrease oculomotor activity
c. Inability to think clearly
d. Vocalization
e. No arousal
E
Dystonia is:
a. Abnormal posture maintained by muscular contractions
b. Flexed posture
c. Stooped, hyperflexed posture
d. A spastic gait
A
The breathing pattern the reflects respirations based primarily on CO2 levels in the blood is:
a. Cheyenne stokes
b. Ataxia
c. Central neurogenic
d. Normal
A
For legal purposes, brain death is defined as:
a. Cessation of brain function
b. Lack of cortical function
c. A vegetative state
d. Irreversible cessation of all brain function
D
The ________ ensures collateral blood flow from the blood vessels supplying the brain.
a. Carotid arteries
b. Basal artery
c. Circle of willis
d. Vertebral arteries
C
Loss of past memories:
retrograde amnesia
Inability to form new memories:
anterograde amnesia
Inability to maintain sustained attention, set goals, inability to recognize when objects meet goals, working memory:
executive attention deficit
Denial of dysfunction, loss of recognition of one's own body parts, and extinction:
neglect
The RAS:
a. Programs for fine repetitive motor movements
b. Maintains wakefulness
c. Maintains constant internal environments
d. Affects the positioning of the head to improve hearing
B
50 a 65- yo male with a history of untreated hypertension is now experiencing left heat failure. The most likely reason is:
a. Ventricular dilation and wall thinning
b. Myocardial hypertrophy and ventricular remodeling
c. Inhibition of rennin and aldoster
B
The layer of simple squamous epithelium that lines the inside of the heart is called
a. Myocardium
b. Pericardium
c. Endocardium
d. Epicardium
C
Which gland sits atop each kidney:
a. Adrenal
b. Thymus
c. Pituitary
d. Pancreas
A
Which of the following statements is true regarding the structural differences between the urethras of males and females?
a. Females have a longer urethra
b. There is no difference; the length of the urethra is the same
c. The male urethra is about 20 cm
C
Which statement about renal system is correct?
a. Reabsorption of water is hormonally controlled
b. Normal filtrate contains a large amount of protein
c. Most of the water passing through the kidney is eliminated urine
d. The excretion of sodium ions is o
A
A 60 yo female was diagnosed with mitral stenosis. As a result, she has incomplete emptying of the:
a. Right atrium
b. Right ventricle
c. Left atrium
d. Left ventricle
A
An 80 yo man reports urinary retention. Which of the following is most likely to contribute to this client's problem?
a. Benign prostatic hypertrophy
b. Diabetes
c. Diet
d. Hypertension
A
A client is diagnosed with prostate cancer. Which test is used to monitor progression of the disease?
a. Serum creatine
b. Complete blood count
c. Prostate specific antigen
d. Serum potassium
C
The normal heartbeat is initiated by the:
a. Coronary sinus
b. AV bundle
c. Right ventricle
d. AV node
e. SA node
D
Localized out pouching of a vessel wall or heart chamber is:
a. A thrombus
b. An embolus
c. A thromboembolus
d. An aneurysm
e. A vegetation
D
When a person is in shock, impairment in cellular metabolism is caused by:
a. Release of toxic substances
b. Free radical formation
c. Inadequate tissue perfusion
d. Lack of nervous or endocrine stimulation
C
Which of the following describes a pt in acute renal failure?
1. Elevated serum creatine
2. Leukocytes
3. Low bun
4. Fever
5. Oliguria
a. 1 and 5
b. All of above
c. 1 2 3 and 5
d. 3 4 and 5
A
The major physiologic effect of cardiac tamponade is:
a. Atelectasis
b. Distended pericardium
c. Compressed heart
d. Pericardial effusion
C
Which of the following is true regarding hyponatremia?
a. Inadequate sodium intake is a common cause
b. It can occur with a decrease in total body water
c. It never occurs with burns, vomiting or diarrhea
d. It occurs when serum sodium drops below 135 mEq
D
Which of the following statements regarding Aldosterone is true?
a. It is a hormone secreted when sodium levels are depressed
b. It is a hormone secreted when potassium levels are depressed
c. Its action is to decrease the retention of sodium
d. Its actio
A
Which of the following hormones is released from atrial tissue?
a. Epinephrine
b. Norpinephrone
c. Thyroid hormone
d. Atrial Natruretic peptide
D
A client with renal insufficiency is admitted with a diagnosis of pneumonia. He's being treated with IV antibiotics, which can be nephrotoxic. Which of the following lab values shouold be monitored closely?
a. BUN and creatine
b. ABG levels
c. Platelet co
A
Which of the following factors causes the nausea associated with renal failure?
a. Oliguria
b. Gastric ulcers
c. Electrolyte imbalance
d. Accumulation of metabolic wastes
D
The nurse suspects that a client with polyuria is experiencing water diuresis. Which lab value suggests water diereses?
a. High specific gravity
b. High urine osmolarity
c. Low urine osmolarity
d. Elevated urine pH
C
Which of the following conditions is most commonly responsible for myocardial infarction?
a. Aneurysm
b. Heart failure
c. Coronary artery thrombosis
d. Renal failure
C
High-output failure occurs with:
a. Metabolic alkalosis
b. Hypothyroidism
c. Hypovolemia
d. Anemia
D
Oxygenated blood flows through the:
a. Superior vena cava
b. Pulmonary veins
c. Pulmonary arteries
d. Coronary veins
e. None of the above
B
The pericardial space is found b/t the:
a. Myocardium and the parietal pericardium
b. Endocardium and visceral pericardium
c. Visceral and parietal pericardium
d. Visceral and epicardial pericardium
C
Backflow of blood from the arteries into the relaxing ventricles is prevented by the:
a. Venous valves
b. Pericardial fluid
c. Semilunar valves
d. Atrioventricular valves
C
The functional unit of the kidney is the:
nephron
The QRS complex of the EKG represents:
a. Atrial depolarization
b. Ventriculas depolarizatrion
c. Atrial contraction
d. Ventricular repolarization
e. Atrial repolarication
B
Which of the following conditions causes intermittent claudication (cramp like pains in the calves)?
a. Inadequate blood supply
b. Elevated leg position
c. Dependent leg position
d. Inadequate muscle oxygenation
D
Which of the following hormones are synthesized and secreted by the kidneys stimulates bone marrow production of RBC?
a. Creatine
b. Aldosterone
c. Erythropoietin
d. Renin
C
During atrial systole, the:
a. AV valves are open
b. Atria are filling
c. Ventricles are emptying
d. Semilunar valves are open
A
In the normal Cardiac cycle, which of the following occurs?
The 2 atria contract simultaneously, where as the 2 ventricles relax; the 2 ventricles contract simultaneously whereas the 2 atria relax
Which statement is incorrect concerning hypertension?
a. Malignant hypertension is characterized by a diastolic BP of over 140 mm/ Hg
b. More the 90% of cases are the essential or primary type
c. Headache is the most reliable symptom
d. When left untreate
C
Primary hypertension:
a. Is essentially idiopathic
b. Can be caused by renal disease
c. Can be caused by hormone imbalance
d. Results from arterial coarctation
e .B C and D are correct
A
Which should not appear in the glomerular filtrate (in any significant amount) just after the process of glomerular filtration has been accomplished?
a. Protein
b. Urea
c. Glucose
d. Both a and b are correct
A
Water occupies 2 main fluid compartments within the body, the ICF compartment and the ECF compartment. Which of the following statements is true concerning the volume of ICF?
a. All of the water is in the ICF compartment
b. Approx 2/3 of the water is in t
B
A 54- yo female is diagnosed w/ nephritic syndrome. Which of the following is a common symptom of this disease?
a. Hematuria
b. Dysuria
c. Oliguria
d. Proteinuria
D
A 42- yo male is involved in a motor vehicle accident during which he loses a lot of blood. He is in acute renal failure cause by:
a. Kidney stones
b. Immune complex deposition in the glomerulus
c. Inadequate renal blood flow
d. Obstruction of the proxima
C
A 56 yo male presents w. flank pain and polyuria. Tests reveal that he has an enlarged prostate. Which of the following types of renal failure is most likely to occur?
a. Prerenal
b. Intrarenal
c. Extrarenal
d. Postrenal
D
A 60 yo male is diagnosed w/ renal failure. Which of the following lab values would be most consistent w. this diagnosis?
a. Elevated plasma creatine level
b. Decreased plasma potassium level
c. Metabolic alkalosis
d. Increased urea clearance
A
A 45 yo female presents with hypertension, anorexia, nausea, and vomiting, and anemia. She is diagnosed with chronic renal failure. Anemia in this pt is caused by:
a. RBC lost in urine
b. Production of erythropoietin is inedaquate
c. Iron absorption the g
B
An individual has an elevated blood level of urea and creatine because of complete calculi blockage of one ureter. This is referred to as:
a. Prerenal disease
b. Intrarenal disease
c. Postrenal disease
d. Preeclampsia
e. Hypercalcemia
C
Of the 60% of the body weight made up of water, about 2/3 is:
a. Extracellular water
b. Intracellular water
c. Intravascular water
d. Interstitial water
B
A pt is complaining of abdominal and back pain. Bacteria are present in the urine. What is the appropriate term for involvement of the upper urinary tract (kidney)?
a. Cystitis
b. Pylenophretis
c. UTI
d. Asymptomatic bacteriuria
B
When the body produces antibodies against it own tissue, it is
an autoimmune response
A positive HIV antibody test signifies the:
Individual is infected with HIV and likely so for life
Immunodeficiencies occur because of impaired function of
B and T cells, Phagocytic cells, complement (All of the above are correct)
The condition in which an extra portion of a chromosome is preset in each cell is called
Partial trisomy
Risk factors for Down's syndrome include
Pregnancy in women over 35
A 13-year-old girl has a karyotype that reveals an absent homologous X chromosome with only a single X chromosome present. Her condition is called
Turner syndrome
XXY person has the genetic disorder called
Klinefelter syndrome
The outward manifestation of a disease, often influenced by both genes and the environment, is called the disease
Phenotype
A child is diagnosed with cystic fibrosis. History reveals that the child's parents are siblings. Cystic fibrosis was most likely the result of:
consanguinity
A 12-year-old male is diagnosed with Klinefelter syndrome. His kayotype would reveal which of the following?
XXY
When a body produces antibodies against its own tissue, it is
an autoimmune disease
In response to an increased workload, cardiac myocardial cells will
increase in size
A 35-year-old male with a 30 year history of smoking is examined for respiratory disturbance. Examination of his airwary (bronchial) reveals that stratified squamous epithelial cells have replaced the normal columnar ciliated cells. The type of cellular a
Metaplasia
The mammary glands enlarge during pregnancy primarily as a consequence of
Hormonal hyperplasia
Progressive cell injury that causes cell death with severe swelling and breakdown of organelles is referred to as:
Necrosis
Secondary or acquired immunodeficiencies:
develop after birth, may be caused by viral infections, may develop following immunosuppressive therapy (E. a, b, and c are correct)
A 52-year-old male suffered from a myocardial infarction secondary to atherosclerosis and ischemia. Once oxygen returned to the damaged heart, reperfusion injury occurred s a result of:
Free radical formation
Which of the following is an accurate description of a type I reaction?
Most type I reactions are allergic
Active acquired immunity is gained
After birth
If a person has innate resistance to a disease, the person has _____ immunity
Active
Which of the following is an example of biochemical secretions that trap and kill microorganisms?
Earwax
What is the purpose of the inflammatory response?
To prevent infection of the injured tissue
The mast cell, a major activator of inflammation initiates the inflammatory response through the process of:
Degranulation
A 20-year-old male shoots his hand with a nail gun while replacing roofing shingles. Which of the following cell types would be the first to aid in killing bacteria to prevent infection in his hand?
Neutrophils
The predominant phagocyte of early inflammation is the:
Neutrophil
The end product of the clotting system is:
Fibrin
The phagocyte's role begins when the inflammatory response causes it to stick avidly to capillary walls in a process called
Margination
A twenty year old female is applying for nursing school and is required to be tested for immunity against several illnesses. Testing that looks at which of the following would be the best to determine immunity?
Titer
A twenty year old female has been diagnosed with AIDS. Laboratory resting would reveal diminished levels of:
Helper T cells
Hypersensitivity is best defined as
An excessive or inappropriate response of the immune system to a sensitizing antigen
If the maternal immune system becomes sensitized against antigens expressed by the fetus, what type of immune reaction occurs?
Alloimmune
A six year old boy present with poison ivy on his extremities, face, and buttocks. This disease is an example of
Delayed hypersensitivity
A 10-year-old male is stung by a bee while playing in the yard. He begins itching and develops pain, swelling, and respiratory difficulties. He is suffering from:
Anaphylaxis
The most severe consequece of a Type I hypersensitivity reaction is:
Anaphylaxis
Which of the following hypersensitivity reactions does not involve an antibody response?
Type IV
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) is an example of:
autoimmunity
The microorganisms that make up the normal human flora are important for:
Preventing the attachment and multiplication of pathogens
Bacterial pathogens can defend themselves from an immune response by:
Producing capsules
The hallmark symptom of most infectious disease is
Fever
Bacteria become resistant to antimicrobials by:
Mutation
A common symptom of individuals with immunodeficiency is:
Recurrent infections
A patient presents with systemic lupus erythematous (SLE). Which of the following would you expect to see in this patient?
Arthritis
Which of the following is a characteristic of human immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)?
HIV is a retrovirus
A 40-year-old female is diagnosed with a bacterial infection of the respiratory system. Which of the following will most likely be trying to fight the antigen?
Antibodies
The immunoglobulin that crosses the placenta confers ______ immunity to the fetus:
Passive acquired
Primary intention healing:
involves collagen synthesis, requires little wound contraction, requires little wound epithelialization (E. a, b, and c are correct )
Scar tissue is:
Nonfunctional collagenous and fibrotic tissue
What is the appropriate term for energy releasing process?
Catabolism
Which of the following is a true statement?
A hypotonic solution has a lower solute concentration (more dilute) than body solution
Which of the following is a true statement regarding sex-linked inheritance?
X-linked recessive diseases are more common than X-linked dominant diseases
Which of the following statements regarding Down Syndrome is true?
People with Down Syndrome have a distinctive facial appearance
Which of the following describes a female patient born with short stature, webbing of the neck, sparse body hair and narrowing of the aorta?
Turner Syndrome
Which of the following terms is best described by a, "decrease in workload, use, pressure, or blood supply"?
Pathologic atrophy
A patient is being evaluated for a leg injury involving vascular injury and inflammation. Which of the following would not be observable in this patient?
...
Reduced oxygen tension is:
Hypoxia
Which of the following statements regarding mast cells is true?
They release histamine that causes inflammation
Which of the following terms is a biochemical substance that attracts leukocytes to the site of inflammation?
Chemotactic factor
The surface barriers such as the skin or mucus membranes are breached, the second line of immunity is the:
Inflammatory response
After exposure to a specific antigen, B cells differentiate into:
plasma cells
Which of the following is a true statement regarding neutrophils?
Neutrophils enter after lymphocytes and macrophages
Which of the following is not a function of the clotting system?
Forms constant bleeding to flush out the microorganisms
Which of the following is not an action of histamine?
Relaxes the bronchial smooth muscle
Which of the following is not another name for urticaria?
Rhinitis
What is the purpose of vasodilation and incrased vascular permeability during inflammation?
to bring white blood cells to the area of injury, to transport inflammatory chemicals to the area of injury, to dilute toxins (all of the above)
5-month-old child is admitted to the hospital with recurring infections. A possible cause of this condition is
immune insufficiency
Which of the following hypersensitivity reactions involves the formation of antibodies against tissue-specific antigen?
Type II
When a person is given an attenuated antigen as a vaccine, the antigen is:
Alive, but less infectious
Graves disease is an autoimmune disease caused by autoantibodies that:
stimulate the production of thyroid hormone
A patient has a tissue growth that was diagnosed as cancer. What growth type could it be?
Neoplasm
Which feature is typically a characteristic of malignant tumor?
Has a high mitotic index
The process by which a cell acquires specific new observable characteristics is:
Differentiation
Preinvasive epithelial tumors of glandular or squamous cell originate referred to as:
Cancer in situ
When a cancer cell loses differentiation ________ has occurred.
anaplasia
The best explanation for higher rates of cancer in older poplations is:
The development of cancer requires several mutations over time
In cancer, angiogenic factors stimulate:
New blood vessel growth
Which of the following lymphoid organs cluster around lypmphatic veins and collect intersititial fluids?
Lymphnodes
Of the following genetic lesions that cause cancer, which is the most common?
Mutations
A 45 yr old female was recently diagnosed w/ cervical cancer. She reports a sexual history that includes 43 partners. Which is the most likely cause of her cancer?
HPV
Which of the following best describes therapeutic index?
A relative effective dose needed to kill cancer w/o harming normal cells
The most important environment risk factor for cancer is exposure to:
Cigarette Smoke
A 50 year old female develops skin cancer on her head and neck following years of sun bathing which is most likely?
Basal cell carcinoma
Which of the following compounds has been shown to increase the risk of cancer when used in combination w/ smoking?
Alcohol
Which of the following is a true statement about infectious mono?
Commonly caused by the Epstein-Barr virus
The movement of blood into & out of the capillary beds of the lungs to the body organs and tissue is called:
Perfusion
A 65 year old male was recently diagnosed w/ cancer. He is retired from construction work, which cancer is he likely to develop secondary to occupational hazards
Mesothelioma
A patient develops a severe UTI. What is the predominant cell of early inflammation?
Neutrophil
The most frequently reported symptom of cancer & cancer treatment is:
Fatigue
50 yr female is suffering from anorexia, anemia, weight loss & altered metabolism resulting in malnutrition. She was previously diagnosed w/ cancer, what best describes her symptoms?
Cachexia
What is the name for the process whereby tumor cells generate their own blood supply?
Angiogensis
Individuals w/ cancer are often at risk for infections because of:
Leukopenia
What is the most significant cause of complications & death in cancer patients?
Infection
To be curative chemo must eradicate:
Enough cancer cells so that the body's own defenses can kill any remaining cells.
Adjuvant chemo treat is used:
After surgical removal of a tumor minimal or no disease left but high risk for metastasis
A 2 year old female fell in swimming pool & nearly drowned. She then developed acute respiratory distress syndrome what did she most likely experience?
Hypoxemia
Gastrointestinal alteration such as nausea & mucosal erosions, are common side effects of chemo because:
Chemotherapy agents target rapidly dividing cells in the oral intestinal linings
The most common route of metastasis is through the:
Lymphatics
The most common malignancy in children is:
Leukemia
42 male was involved in a motor vehicle accident during which he suffered a severe head injury. He died shortly after the accident from lost of respiration. The area of the brain most likely involved is the:
Brain stem
What is a characteristic of cachexia?
Early satiety
Most abundant cells in the blood:
Erthyrocytes
If an individual w/ rep. difficulty were retaining too much carbon dioxide, what compensatory responses would be irritated?
Increase in RR
What virus has been linked w/ the development of cancer?
Epstein-Barr
Erythrocytes that are _______ contain an abnormally low concentration of hemoglobin:
Hypochromic
The predominant phagocyte of early inflammation is the:
Neutrophil
Monocytes are blood cells that mature (differentiate) into:
Macrophages
During an an infection lymph nodes enlarge & become tender because:
Macrophages are rapidly dividing
After birth, RBC are normally made only in:
Bone marrow
Erthyropotietin is produced in the:
Kidneys
Secretions of erythropoietin is stimulated by:
Hypoxia
Which of the following molecules is the insoluble end product of the clotting cascade?
Fibrin
1 yr female is diagnosed w/ croup. What symptom is most likely present
Resp. stride & barking cough
Newborn child is born with resp. distress syndrome what is the most important predisposing factor for this condition?
Premature birth
Newborn has resp. distress syndrome. He develops atelectasis because of:
Lack of surfactant
10 year old male is diagnosed w/ sickle cell anemia. He most likely inherited it from:
Both parents
2 yr male presented w/ growth & maturation retardation & splenomegaly. He died shortly after arriving @ the ER autopsy revealed thalassemia secondary to defective:
Hemoglobin synthesis
50 year old male w/ 30 yr history of smoking was diagnosed w/ lung cancer. He was previously exposed to air pollution, asbestos & radiation @ his job. What impact on development of cancer:
Cigarette Smoke
A 3 yr old child presents w/ bruising on legs & trunk & a potential rash. The mother also reports frequent nosebleeds. Lb tests reveal a decreased platelet count. Most likely diagnosis is:
Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
A 5 year old male is diagnosed w/ leukemia which of the following symptoms would be:
Fatigue
A 1 yr old female is diagnosed w/ croup most likely cause of this disease is:
Viral infection
The nasopharynx is lined w/ ciliated mucus membrane with a highly vascular blood supply. One function of membrane is to:
Humidify air
Air way hyperesponsiveness in asthma is related to:
Exposure to an allergen causing mast cell degranulation
A 13 yr old female is diagnosed w/ asthma which of the following should she recognize as part of an asthmatic attack:
Wheezing
47 yr old male is diagnosed with pulmonary edema. What would be expected w/ this condition:
Pink, frothy sputum
The primary function of the pulmonary system is best describe as the:
Exchange of gases between and blood
Which statement explains why vitamin B 12 & foliate deficiencies cause anemia?
RBC have a shorter life span
A massive pulmonary embolism will most likely lead to:
Shock + death
If an individual w/ resp. difficulty was retaining too much carbon dioxide, what compensatory responses would be initiated?
Increased in RR
Surfactant facilitates alveolar distention & ventilation by:
Decreasing surface tension in alveoli
A 20 yr male presents to his physician complaining of difficulty breathing when lying down this condition is referred to as:
Orthopnea
50 yr. old diabetic male did not take his medication & is now metabolic, acidosis. He is experiencing Kussmaul resp. that can be characterized by:
-Slightly increased ventilator rate, large tidal volume, & no expiratory pause
30 yr female received a severe head injury in a motor vehicle accident. She is now experiencing resp. abnormalities characterized by alternation periods of deep & shallow breathing. This is referred to as:
Cheyne stokes
65 yr. old female w/ emphysema presents to ER for difficulty breathing, physical exam reveals bluish skin & mucus membranes. That condition is referred to as:
Cyanosis
28 male complains to his physician that he has had a cold for a week & is coughing up bloody secretions. This is referred to:
Hemoptysis
Airway obstruction contribution to increased airflow -resistance & hypoventilation in asthma is caused by:
Mucous secretion, broncho constriction & airway edema
Pneumonia is caused by:
Viral or bacterial infections
30 male prison mate contracted tuberculosis during an outbreak. He can transmit this disease through:
Air born droplets
Exhaustion occurs if stress continues & _______ is not successful.
Adaptation
50 yr. old male presents w/ hyptension, hypoxemia & tracheal deviation to the left. Tests reveal that the air pressure in the pleural cavity exceeds barometric pressure in the atmosphere. What would be the diagnosis?
Tension pneumothorax
80 female develops pneumonia in hospital becomes cyanotic tachycardic & develops a fever and cough. Chest x ray reveals pus in pleural space, the diagnosis would be:
Empyema
A 42 year old female presents w/ dyspnea rapid, shallow breathing, inspiratory crackles decreased lung compliance & hypoxemia. Tests reveal a fulminate form of respiratory failure characterized by acute lung inflammation & diffuse alveocapillary injury wh
Acute resp. distress syndrome
Asthma is thought to be caused by:
interactions between genetic & environmental factors
10 yr female is arriving @ a national spelling bee contest. Her heart starts beating faster & harder & she begins to sweat. What is she experiencing?
Anticipatory response
Individuals w/ Reynaud disease have severe symptoms under which of the following conditions?
Cold exposure
A 52 year old female is diagnosed with coronary artery disease. She would be expected to suffer from:
Myocardial ischemia
60 year old female had a myocardial infarction she was brought to the hospital 30 minutes later. She survived but now has impaired ventricular function because:
The resulting ischemia leads to hypoxia injury & myocardial cell death
Many valvular stenosis & regurgitation disorders in adults have a common etiology what can result in both types of valve dysfunction:
Rheumatic fever or heart disease
72 female has a history of hypertension & atherosclerosis. An electrocardiogram reveals back flow of the blood into left ventricle, what is the most likely diagnosis?
Aortic regurgitation
Which renal condition usually has a history of recent infection w/ beta hemolytic streptococci?
Glomerulonephritis
52 year old female is admitted to the cardiac unit w/ diagnosis of pericarditis. She asks the nurse to explain where the infection is. In providing an accurate prescription the nurse states that the pericardium is:
A membranous sac that encloses the heart
Renal calcuili may be composed of:
Calcium oxalate & uric acid
65 Year old male develops blockage in pulmonary artery. As a result, blood would 1st back up into the:
Right ventricle
Which condition most commonly results in coronary artery disease?
Artherosclerosis
_______ are the anchors of the atrioventricular valves.
Chordea tendinea
50 year old female received trauma to the chest that caused severe impairment to the primary pacemaker cells of the heart. What areas receive the greatest damage?
SA node
What term is used to describe the amount of stretch on the myocardium @ the end of diastole?
Preload
Which of the following terms describes the force against which the ventricle must expel blood?
After load
Which of the following terms is used to describe as thrombus lodged in the lungs?
Pulmonary embolism
The internal lining of the cardiovascular system is formed by what tissue?
Endothelium
Which of the following conditions is the predominant cause of angina?
Inadequate oxygen supply to the myocardium
5 year old male was diagnosed w/ glomerulonephritis history reveals that he had an infection 3 weeks before the onset of this condition. The infection was most likely located in the:
Pharynx
Wilms tumors are found in the:
Kidneys
50 year old male is diagnosed with orthostatic hypotension what symptom would be most likely experienced?
Syncope & fainting
A client has been admitted to the hospital for UTI & dehydration. The nurse determines that the client has received adequate volume replacement if the BUN level drops:
15 mg/ DL
The smallest type of blood vessels are:
Capillaries
53 male presents with recurrent chest pain on exertion. He is diagnosed w/ angina pectoris. The pain he experiences occurs when
The myocardial oxygen supply has fallen below demand
A 65 year old male with history of untreated hypertension is now experiencing left heart failure. The most likely reason is:
Myocardial hypertrophy & ventricular remodeling.