What valve directs blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle?
Mitral
Which valves lies between the left ventricle and the aorta?
Aortic valve
Which valve lies between the right ventricle and the pulmonary arteries?
Pulmonic
Which valve directs blood from the right atrium to the right ventricle
tricuspid
What is the layer of squamous cells that lines the cardiac chambers and valves?
endocardium
How much does the atrial kick increases the blood volume?
15-20%
Which wave corresponds with the AV valve building during ventricle contraction?
C wave
Which wave corresponds with arterial contraction?
A wave
Which wave corresponds to atrial filling?
V wave
What is the name for the arrangement in which separate cells of the myocardium can function together?
Syncytium
What is the name for the ability of the arteries to adjust blood flow according to tissue needs?
Autoregulation
What is the name for the disruption of blood flow to cardiac tissues?
Ischemia
what is the name for a cardiac cell?
Myocyte
What is the structure that is composed of 6 polypeptide chains, two heavy chains, and four light chains is called?
Myosin
Which electrolyte is necessary for muscle contraction?
Ca++ (Calcium)
Which statement is true regarding muscle contraction?
A. Contraction of cardiac muscles results from lengthening of sarcomeres?
B. Calcium removal from the cytoplasm causes contraction
C. Calcium entry into the cytoplasm causes relaxation
D. Cardiac myocy
D. Cardiac myocytes are terminally differentiated
Which phase of the cardiac action potential is caused by closure of the fast sodium channels?
Phase 1
Which refers in intermittent, spontaneous generation of action potentials?
Rythmicity
Which statement is true regarding the vagus nerves?
A. The left vagus nerve supplies the SA node.
B. Parasympathetic nerves innervate all of the ventricles.
C. Parasympathetic nerve stimulation reduces the heart rate.
D. The right vagus nerve supplies bot
C. Parasympathetic nerve stimulation reduces the heart rate.
Which term refers to an increased speed of conduction?
Dromotropic
Which waves on ECG is representative of depolarization of the later walls
S wave
Which waves on ECG is representative of septal depolarization?
Q wave
Which waves on ECG is representative of apical depolarization?
R wave
Which waves on ECG is representative of ventricular repolarization?
T wave
Which part of the cardiac cycle in which the cardiac muscle obtains oxygen and rids itself of waste products?
Diastole
Myocytes leak the enzyme creatine kinase into the bloodstream in response to cell ______?
Ischemia
The echocardiogram is especially useful in the measurement of the _____?
Heart motion with the chest
What portions of the heart does the left anterior descending branch supply?
The Septal, apical and anterior portion of the heart.
What portion of the heart does the left circumflex supply?
lateral and posterior left ventricles
What is a major determinate of stroke volume?
Preload
Afterload
Contractility
Atherosclerosis predisposes to a number of processes that are factors in myocardial ischemia. These processes include
Thrombus formation
Abnormal vascular regulation by endothelial cells in small vessels of the heart contributes to
Ischemic heart disease
What is the marker of choice for detecting a myocardial infarction?
Elevated serum levels of cardiac troponin
In a patient with mitral stenosis, cardiac catheterization findings would indicate increased pressure in the
Left atria
Which condition may result in chronic pulmonary hypertension, right ventricular hypertrophy, and right-sided heart failure?
Mitral valve stenosis
The primary cause of sudden cardiac death is usually due to
Ventricular dysrhythmia
What factor causes a congenital heart disease to produce cyanosis
Right-to-left shunting of blood
Which clinical manifestation differentiates myocardial infarction (MI) from angina pectoris?
ST-segment changes on the ECG
Elevated serum levels of troponin
Radiating Chest Pain
The pathologic changes that occur in the development of coronary atherosclerotic lesions include cell damage resulting from which of the following?
The effects of oxidized lipids
An inflammatory response
The formation of plaques
Tetralogy of Fallot is characterized by which of the following?
ventricular septal defect
Right ventricular hypertrophy
Obstructed right ventricular outflow
An aorta positioned above the ventricular septal opening
Which medication classification is used to decrease preload in patients with heart failure?
Diuretics
A patient with heart failure reports awakening intermittently with shortness of breath. Which terms appropriately describes this clinical manifestation?
Paroxysmal nocturnal
Which left atrial pressure readings indicates a risk of increased capillary filtration that results in the clinical manifestations of pulmonary edema?
25 mm Hg
A patient has a regular heart rate of 54 beats/min. The nurse would document this rhythm as
Bradycardia
Atrial fibrillation is best described as when
Disorganized and irregular atrial waves are accompanied by an irregular ventricular rate
A common cause of heart failure is which of the following?
Coronary artery disease
Hypertension
Cardiomyopathy
A patient is admitted to the hospital with left-sided heart failure. Which clinical manifestation would the nurse expect the client to exhibit?
Dyspnea
Crackles in lungs
Cough
Which diagnostic analysis is used to identify patients with heart failure?
BNP (B-type natriuretic peptide)
Echocardiogram
Chest X-ray
What effect does stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system have on the arterioles and resulting systemic reaction?
increase vascular resistance
increased blood pressure
increased after load
constriction
The nurse includes what information when educating a client concerning a first-degree heart block?
-An electrocardiogram is used to identify this conduction disorder.
-Congenital heart defects are often the cause of the disorder.
-The condition is monitored, but not actively managed.
A patient experiencing an acute myocardial infarction (MI) is given a drug to lyse the clot in the coronary artery. What is the best explanation for the sudden development of a serious arrhythmia once circulation is restored?
The return of oxygen perfusion resulted in reperfusion injury.
For the patient in hypovolemic shock, what compensatory mechanism will help preserve adequate circulation?
The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone cascade
What is the underlying problem common among all types of shock?
Inadequate cellular oxygenation
What is the pathophysiologic phenomenon underlying disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?
Clotting that leads to bleeding
Which describes a pathologic manifestation of neurogenic shock?
Loss of sympathetic activation of arteriolar smooth muscle
Early compensation for hypovolemic shock includes
Release of epinephrine from adrenal glands
Circulatory shock is best defined as
Inadequate tissue perfusion
The shift to anaerobic metabolism in shock results in
Increased lactate production
Uncontrolled massive bleeding causes what type of shock?
Hypovolemic
Activation of the renin-angiotensin system in shock causes
fluid retention
The vasoactive mediators released in septic shock contribute to increase
Vascular permeability
Which type of shock is characterized by generalized vasodilation and peripheral pooling of blood?
Septic
Neurogenic
Anaphylactic
Which statement is true regarding kidney function?
They are responsible for maintaining fluid and electrolyte homeostasis.
Serious renal impairment manifests itself after the functional loss of
75%
Which statement is true regarding the anatomic location of the kidneys?
The kidneys are protected by both strong back and flank muscles.
Which portion of the kidney contains the collecting tubules?
Pyramids
What percentage of cardiac output do the kidneys receive?
25%
Which part of the nephron is the site of fluid filtration from the blood?
Glomerulus
Which part of the loop of Henle is completely permeable to water?
Descending
Which hormone inhibits the reabsorption of sodium and water at the distal convoluted tubules?
Atrial natriuretic peptide
Which statement is true regarding filtration?
A. It is approximately 25 mm Hg across the glomerulus.
B. Colloid osmotic pressure is caused by proteins in blood.
C. Hydrostatic pressure is a primary force that assists filtration.
D. Plasma proteins normall
B. Colloid osmotic pressure is caused by proteins in blood.
Mesangial cells are responsive to glomerular stretch and are stimulated to contract as a result of
Additional blood entering the glomerulus
Which part of the kidney does antidiuretic hormone act?
Collecting tubule
Which diuretic blocks the Na+-K+-2Cl- pumps in the ascending loop of Henle?
Loop
In chronic renal failure, calcium is ____
found to be abnormally low in blood serum?
Which area can be seen on cress-section of the kidney?
Cortex
Medulla
Pyramids
Pelvis
A patient is admitted to the emergency room complaining of pain located in the costovertebral angle in the back. This supports the suspicion that the pain is most likely a result of a(n)
Renal disorder
An infection of the renal pelvis and interstitium is known as
Pyelonephritis
A classic manifestation of chronic pyelonephritis is
Atrophic kidneys with diffuse scarring
The most common physiologic abnormality found in patients with a renal stone is
Hypercalcemia
Glomerulonephritis results from
Antigen-antibody complexes
Which of the following statements are true about autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD)?
-It presents with pain being the most frequent client complaint.
-It results in the formation of cysts that involve the entire nephron.
-It results in urinary tract infections, often due to Enterobacter organisms.
Predisposing factors associated with pyelonephritis include
Urinary obstruction
catheterization
Pregnancy
Diabetes
Neurogenic bladder
Complete urinary obstruction causes which of the following?
Decreased glomerular filtration
Increased predisposition to infection
Increased urinary stasis
Increased urinary frequency
Which is a clinical manifestation of glomerulonephritis?
Proteinuria
Periorbital edema
Coffee-colored urine
What clinical finding suggests a diagnosis of nephritic syndrome?
Hypercoagualbility
hypoalbuminemia
hypoproteinemia
hyperlipidemia
edema
The retention of nitrogenous wastes is referred to as
Azotemia
Postrenal failure is a result of
Obstruction
Which is a characteristic finding in renal failure?
Increased serum phosphorus
Which hormone is responsible for renal failure induced anemia?
Erythropoietin
Which is the leading cause of chronic renal failure
Diabetes mellitus
What level of nephron loss constitutes the first stage of renal failure?
Loss of 50%
What is a risk factor for acute rental failure?
Diabetes Mellitus
Advanced Age
Hypertension
atherosclerosis
A patient with chronic renal failure who exhibits the inability to excrete fluid is likely to present with which of the following?
Rales
Bounding pulses
Peripheral edema
Jugular venous distention
abnormal crackling sound which occurs during breathing?
Rales
Which are restricted when treating a client in renal failure?
Sodium
fluids
protein
potassium
What are types of dialysis
Hemodialysis
Continuous renal replacement
Continuous cycling peritoneal dialysis
Continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis
Incontinence manifested by constant or intermittent dribbling is known as
overflow incontinence
Which statement is true concerning incontinence? (Select all that apply.)
A. Functional incontinence is often the result of environmental limitations.
B. Stress incontinence is caused by increased intra-abdominal pressure.
C. Urge incontinence is a result
A. Functional incontinence is often the result of environmental limitations.
B. Stress incontinence is caused by increased intra-abdominal pressure.
C. Urge incontinence is a result of involuntary detrusor contractions.
D. Stress incontinence is affected
A manifestation of calculi in the ureters include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A. Enuresis
B. Hematuria
C. Flank pain
D. Tachycardia
E. Intermittent pain
B. Hematuria
C. Flank pain
D. Tachycardia
E. Intermittent pain
Calculi
Kidney stones
In a normal bladder environment, cystitis is prevented by which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A. Flushing effects of voiding
B. High urea concentration
C. high urine osmolarity
D. Low pH in urine.
E. A short urethra
A. Flushing effects of voiding
B. High urea concentration
C. high urine osmolarity
D. Low pH in urine.
Factors that predisposes elderly persons to cystitis is
Chronic illness such as diabetes
Benign prostatic hypertrophy
decreased estrogen in women
benign prostatic hypertrophy
bowel incontinence
Clinical manifestations of cystitis include
Dysuria
Urinary frequency
cloudy urine
pain in the supra public area
Which procedure is commonly used in the treatment of muscle-invasive malignant bladder tumors?
Cystectomy
Radiation therapy
The etiology of secondary vesicoureteral reflux of the bladder includes which of the following?
Surgeries involving the ureterovesical junction
increased pressure within the bladder
inflammatory processes
A process that improves the ability of the sperm to fertilize the egg is
capacitation
What is the normal capacity of the adult bladder
450 to 500 ml
The male external genitals includes
Epididymis
Testis
Which statement regarding male erection and ejaculation is true? (Select all that apply.)
A The sympathetic nervous system mediates male erection.
B The parasympathetic nervous system mediates male erection
C The sympathetic nervous system medicates male
B The parasympathetic nervous system mediates male erection
C The sympathetic nervous system medicates male ejaculation.
The function of the hypothalamic-pituitary-testicular axis is to
Assure normal male sexual development
Control maturation of the sperm
Normal aging of the male will likely result in a decrease in
Testes size
Penis size
The numbers of testosterone producing Leydig cells
A diagnosis of cryptorchidism indicates that the client has
an undescended testis
What condition constitutes an emergency situation?
Testicular torsion
It is most important that the nurse teach the technique for testicular self-examination to males of which age group?
18 to 35 years old
Which sexually transmitted infection is manifested by the growth of clusters of warts on the penis and other areas of the genitalia
Condylomata acuminata (not herpes because those warts are grouped together on the erythematous base)
Characteristics of benign prostatic hypertrophy includes
Hesitancy
Weak Urine flow
incomplete bladder emptying
A patient is diagnosed with Stage III penile cancer. Which is true of this diagnosis?
There is inguinal node involvement
Surgical removal of the lesion is possible
A client is being evaluated for possible secondary impotence. Which assessment finding would support such a diagnosis?
Diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus
Takes an antidepressant medication
Serum testosterone level is low
client is borderline obese
What hormonal change is responsible for the stimulation of ovulation?
Increases in both luteinizing hormone (LH) and FSH
What hormone stimulates the production of breast milk?
Prolactin
Cessation of menstruation occurs because
Estrogen secretion is decreased
Which is a structural change associated with aging?
Bone density decrease
In the female, the hormone progesterone is responsible for
Preparation and maintenance of the endometrium
Female menopause represents changes that include which of the following?
Cessation of estrogen secretion by the ovaries
Shrinking of both the uterus and its cervix
A patient reports that she is bleeding between menstrual periods. The nurse would document this as
metrorrhagia
In perimenopausal women, dysfunctional uterine bleeding is commonly associated with
Irregular estrogen production
A patient reports a sensation of pressure within the vagina. On examination, an anterior bulge is noted. This finding supports a diagnosis of
Cystocele
At what period during the life span would a finding of leiomyomas be less likely?
During the years after menopause
the presence of endometrial tissue outside the lining of the uterine cavity is
endometriosis
Which breast condition is a malignant disorder?
Carcinoma
Assessment data that would support a diagnosis of pelvic inflammatory disease?
Palpated pelvis mass
abdominal tenderness
purulent vaginal discharge
white blood cell could of 11000/mm^4
What is the causative organism of syphilis
Treponema pallidum
During a physical assessment, the client shares that they have been diagnosed with genital warts. The nurse recognizes the client's immediate need to be
Screened for possible cervical cancer
A women with signs and symptoms of gonorrhea should be assessed and treated early for
Pelvic inflammatory disease
What special precautions are appropriate for a pregnant woman diagnosed with HSV type 2 herpes infection?
A cesarean section if the lesions are active at the time of delivery.
Which of the following is a systemic sexually transmitted infection? (Select all that apply.)
A. Syphilis
B. Chancroid
C. Hepatitis B
D. Cytomegalovirus
E. Granuloma inguinale
Syphilis
Hepatitis
Cytomegalovirus
Anal intercourse can result in the transmission of enteric infections of the gastrointestinal tract such as
Shigella
Giardiasis
Campylobacter
Which specialized cell in the stomach produce a substance needed for adequate intestinal absorption of vitamin B12?
Parietal
Which statement is true related to the affect the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems have on the activity of the intrinsic nervous system?
Sympathetic stimulation decreases its activity
Sympathetic innervation inhibits gastrointestinal (GI) motility by
secreting norepinephrine
The function of choleystokinin is that it
is responsible for fat digestion and absorption
Nutrients are propelled through the gastrointestinal tract by a process known as
peristalsis
How and where are water and electrolytes absorbed?
Primarily in the small intestine as a result of osmosis
What role does histamine play in gastrointestinal function?
It is a powerful stimulant of gastric acid secretion
The muscular activity involved in the digestive and absorptive function of the GI tract include
Mixing movements
propulsive movements
What gastrointestinal alteration is increased with aging?
Constipation
Hiatal herniation
The patient's perceived difficulty in swallowing, the general inability to initiate swallowing, or even the feeling that swallowed solids or liquids "stick" in the throat is called?
Dysphagia
In abdominal disorders, the location of "referred" pain felt by the patient is usually?
In the same dermatome as the source
Which type of colon polyp is most likely to carry the risk of cancer?
Adenomatous
The term diverticulosis refers to a condition characterized by
The term diverticulosis refers to a condition characterized by
Although symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is sometimes similar to those of inflammatory bowel disorder (IBD), one important difference is that
IBD has identifiable pathology of the gastrointestinal tract, whereas IBS has no identifiable pathology
Which of the following make mechanical obstruction of the intestinal lumen of the small or large bowel an acute emergency?
Distention from accumulating gas and fluid impede venous return, leading to bowel wall ischemia
When telescoping or invagination of a portion of the bowel into an adjacent distal portion occurs in an infant, the condition is diagnosed as
Intussusception
Heartburn is most likely the consequence of which of the following?
An esophageal spasm
The backflow of gastric contents into the esophagus
Stimulation of the esophageal sensory nerve endings
The strong risk factors for colon cancer include which of the following?
Aging
Heredity
High-fat diet
The factors that increase the risk of developing ulcerative colitis are believed to include which of the following?
Genetics
Environmental Risk
Immunologic disorders
Ulcerative colitis and Crohn disease share several similarities. Specific distinctions or differences that are unique to Crohn disease include?
Smoking's increasing the risk
Pain that is severe and localized
Primary affecting of the proximal portion of the colon
Appendicitis is one of the most common abdominal conditions requiring emergency surgery. Although its symptoms sometimes overlap with those of other abdominal disorders, appendicitis is initially characterized by
Nausea
Diarrhea
Periumbilical Pain
Migrating lower-right abdomen pain
What are common but serious consequence of progressive inflammation of diverticula (diverticulitis)
Peritonitis
Bowel abscesses
Intestinal obstruction
Bowel wall perforation
A distensible sack that concentrates and stores bile
the gallbladder
During ingestion of a meal, contraction of the gallbladder is thought to be regulated by
Hormonal Control
Most gallstones among patients in the United States are formed from
Cholesterol
Which characteristic is found in the condition of cholelithiasis (gallstones)?
Gallstones are twice as frequent in women as in men.
Cholecystitis is caused by
inflammatory reactions
Regarding both acute and chronic cholecystitis, which statement is true?
A. Chronic cholecystitis is often caused by fever and bacterial infection, whereas acute cholecystitis is not.
B. Rupture of the gallbladder is more likely to occur with acute rather
B. Rupture of the gallbladder is more likely to occur with acute rather than chronic cholecystitis.
What component of bile helps keep cholesterol from precipitating into crystals
Lecithin
The most serious consequence of acute pancreatitis resulting from biliary obstruction is
The development of circulatory shock
The primary aim of treatment of acute pancreatitis is to
Reduce pancreatic secretion
Which serum enzyme is the most specific for diagnosing acute pancreatitis?
Lipase
Acute necrotizing pancreatitis raises the threat of what devastating sequela?
Multisystem organ dysfunction
The chronic inflammatory lesions in the pancreas and persistence of symptoms seen in chronic pancreatitis are most frequently the complications of
Alcohol consumption
The treatment for chronic pancreatitis is primarily directed toward which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A. Treatment of endocrine insufficiency
B. Pancreatic enzyme replacement
C. Prevention of complications
D. Draining of the biliary tree
E.
A. Treatment of endocrine insufficiency
C. Prevention of complications
E. Pain relief
The blood supply is delivered to the liver by way of
A dual arterial sources
Esophageal varices are a complication of liver disease and are a result of
Elevated portal pressure
The primary signs and symptoms of hepatic derangements
Are similar regardless of primary or secondary causes
What term is used to describe the process of converting bilirubin from its freely lipid-soluble form to the form that is tightly bound to the plasma protein albumin?
Conjugation
What condition occurs when a form of bilirubin diffuses into the brain and causes a type of encephalopathy?
Kernicterus
Reye syndrome is characterized by encephalopathy
Secondary to severe hepatic dysfunction
Biliary atresia is classified as a condition of
Extrahepatic ductopenia
The major indication of a failed Kasai procedure is
Biliary atresia
Portal hypertension occurs as a result of which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A. Obstruction of blood flow in the liver's venous sinusoids
B. Dysfunctional drainage into the superior vena cavaIncorrect
C. Increased venous pressure distal to a
A. Obstruction of blood flow in the liver's venous sinusoids
D. Impaired drainage into the central veins
E. A buildup of venous pressure
Which statement characterizes the nature and capabilities of the liver? (Select all that apply.)
A. The liver plays a role in the digestion of fats.
B. Blood detoxification is a function of the liver.
C. Liver function is seriously impaired with even mini
A. The liver plays a role in the digestion of fats.
B. Blood detoxification is a function of the liver.
E. The liver is vulnerable to illness, but has considerable repair abilities.
Which manifestation is typical of hepatocellular failure? (Select all that apply.)
A.Skeletal muscle hypertrophyIncorrect
B. Hypoalbuminemia
C. Glucose imbalance
D. Masculinization
E. Osteomalacia
B. Hypoalbuminemia
C. Glucose imbalance
E. Osteomalacia
Appropriate early treatment for infants with jaundice-related encephalopathy may include
Phototherapy (bilk-lights)
Exchange transfusion
Phenobarbital to increase the levels of UDPGT
At present, universal vaccination of children is recommended for
Hepatitis A
Hepatitis B
The development of hepatocellular carcinoma is which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A. Diagnosed less frequently among elderly persons than among young adults
B. Frequently associated with a more positive prognosis in older patients
C. Less fr
D. Regularly associated with chronic alcohol use
E. Usually associated with chronic viral hepatitis
What identified risk factors make it necessary for liver transplant patients to undergo extensive psychological evaluation before surgery?
Current abuse of alcohol
Ineffective psychosocial support
Ascites is related to
Portal hypertension
Hypoalbuminemia
The anatomic center of coordination and communication between nervous system and endocrine system is the
Hypothalamus
Which is true regarding the function of hormones?
They may act to target and influence either the secreting cell or cells at other locations
Steroids dissolve poorly in blood and require a transport protein (globulin) to convey them through the circulation because they
are lipid soluble molecules
Hormones are synthesized within an endocrine organ's cell organelles with
Hormone synthesis sometimes taking place in other organs or cell types
Which hormone is known for its ability to be stored and synthesized but is bound until it is needed for systemic use?
Thyroid
Some hormones are secreted in cyclic patterns. In these cases, which statement is true?
A Hormones controlling menstruation are circadian in nature.
B Circadian rhythms always dominate over systemic needs or stressors.
C Hormones that control reproductive
D Immediate systemic needs can override cyclic patterns and modify hormone secretion.
A description of the feedback mechanism implemented by the thyroid gland would state that?
A Positive feed-forward occurs when excessive levels of thyroid-stimulating hormone shut down thyroid gland release of hormones but provides similar hormonal action
D Negative feedback occurs when low levels of circulating T3 and T4 trigger thyrotropin-releasing hormone to stimulate release of pituitary thyroid-stimulating hormone that then stimulates thyroid secretion of T3 and T4 , resulting in rising levels that i
The phenomenon that occurs when cells decrease their number of receptors when exposed to prolonged periods of high concentrations of a hormone is called
Downregulation
Cells can increase their number of receptors in response to chronically low hormone concentrations, so that they are more sensitive to the hormone despite a lower than normal hormone concentration. This phenomenon is called
Upregulation
Intracellular activation of hormones by secondary signal amplification refers to which process?
Tiny amounts of circulating hormones cause a cascade effect of progressively larger number of chemical reactions at each step.
When it is necessary for another substance to be produced through intermediate processes to serve as a catalyst for intracellular responses, the new substance is referred to as a
Second messenger
Hormonal cell receptors that influence intracellular activity are specific to hormone types and are located on which of the following parts of the cell?
Walls
Nuclei
Cytoplasm
The biologic activity of a particular hormone is based in part on its rate of which of
Release
Synthesis
Excretion
Metabolism
The pituitary gland produces a hormone that is a potent anabolic agent that causes the development of all tissues of the body that are capable of responding to it. This hormone is called
Growth hormone
The conditions of pituitary gigantism in children and acromegaly in adults are produced by excessive levels of
Growth Hormone
The uncontrolled hormone production in acromegaly and gigantism is most often the result of
Benign somatotropic tumor in the pituitary gland
Low serum levels of which hormone is helpful in differentiating between primary or secondary causes of hypothyroidism?
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
Children who have midline craniocerebral defects, nystagmus, retinal abnormalities, and other midline or midfacial abnormalities (e.g., cleft lip or palate) should be evaluated for deficiencies in
Growth hormone
If annual development assessment shows a child to have growth hormone deficiencies, treatment alternatives include
Pharmacologic agents that affect growth hormone secretion
The most significant regulator of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) release is
Osmotic pressure of plasma
When damage occurs to the antidiuretic hormone (ADH)-producing cells in the hypothalamus from head trauma, intracranial tumors, or neurosurgery, what disorder is suggested by a large diuresis of very dilute urine?
Diabetes inspidus
The pathology of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) secretion, leading to dilution of serum and an excess of water relative to solute, produces
Hemoconcentration and falsely high hemoglobin
Changes in urine osmolality seen in syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) secretion cause
uncreased water retention without sodium
An enlarged thyroid gland produces a colloid goiter when
Lack of iodine prevents T4 and T3 but without stopping thyroglobulin formation
In adrenocortical insufficiency, such as Addison disease, the most severe manifestations are the result of
an insufficient amount of circulating cortisol
Cushing syndrome differs from Cushing disease in that the term Cushing syndrome is used only to describe
Hypercortisolism manifestations, regardless of cause
If the cause of hypercortisolism is an adrenal tumor, which option is indicated?
Unilateral removal of the affected gland
A severely hypertensive patient presents with the classic triad of headache, tachycardia, and diaphoresis, and laboratory tests show excessive circulating catecholamine levels. Which rare, but treatable, disorder is suspected?
Pheochromocytoma
The origin of congenital adrenal hyperplasia occurs when circulating cortisol levels
are insufficient to provide negative feedback to the anterior pituitary gland
Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIAHD) secretion can be attributed to
Malignant lung disorders
Nonmalignant lung disorders
The secretion of the appropriate amount of free thyroid hormones in circulating body fluid is regulated by the feedback interaction between which hormone sources?
Pituitary
Hypothalamus
Thyroid
The role of iodine in proper thyroid gland function relates to which of the following?
Oxidation to iodide
Coupling to molecular tyrosine
Trapping of dietary iodine in thyroid cells
Diabetes mellitus is most accurately defined as a disorder that affects
The utilization of all energy nutrients
Which characteristic uniquely belongs to Type 2 diabetes mellitus?
An absent first-phase insulin response and diminished second-phase response
The pathophysiology of gestational diabetes mellitus most closely resembles that of
Type 2 diabetes
What likelihood is there that gestational diabetes will persist or recur after pregnancy?
About 90% of women with a history of gestational diabetes mellitus will have a recurrence in subsequent pregnancies.
Current views about the target group and frequency of screening for diabetes are based on concern for the high prevalence in the adult population of
Undiagnosed type 2 diabetes mellitus
Elevated glucose levels in individuals with diabetes mellitus greatly influence fluid balance and hydration because
Fluids are lost as the kidneys clear excessive glucose during hyperglycemia
Macrovascular complications of diabetes mellitus include
schemic cerebrovascular accidents
Microvascular complications of diabetes mellitus are seen in
Retinopathy and nephropath
Oral antidiabetic agents have been used with success
With dietary planning for type 2 diabetes
Which statement is true regarding insulin preparations available for use in the United States?
A U.S. insulin is limited to bioengineered human insulin.
B All U.S. preparations are designed to be administered twice daily.
C U.S.-manufactured regular insul
A U.S. insulin is limited to bioengineered human insulin.
For the individual with type 2 diabetes, the immediate problems brought about by hyperglycemia can lead to
Insulin resistance
Polydipsia and polyuria
Further diminished insulin secretion
Nonketotic hyperglycemic hyperosmolar coma in type 2 diabetes is characterized by
Striking dehydration
mortality rate of 11%
With no or slight ketosis
Insulin resistance during pregnancy is precipitated by which hormone
Human chorionic somatomammotropin
Estrogen
Cortisol
Ketoacidosis results in which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A Increase in hormonal levels of cortisol
B Continued insulin deficiency
C Accumulation of fatty acids
D Impaired lipolysis
E. Increased pH
A Increase in hormonal levels of cortisol
B Continued insulin deficiency
C Accumulation of fatty acids
Individuals with diabetes mellitus are particularly susceptible to infections of
Skin
Vagina
Urinary Tract
Mature bone cells are referred to as
Osteocytes
Where are osteogenic cells located
medullary cavity
the growth that replaces cartilage with bone is called
longitudinal
when one leg that is longer than the other. An unilateral injury to which portion of the bone during a growing phase will result in one leg being longer than the other?
Epiphyseal plate
When an x-ray of a fractured humerus shows that the callus is formed, this coincides with which stage of fracture healing?
Stage 3
A client sustains a knee injury when the knee is in the flexed position. The knee is locked and producing significant pain. This assessment supports an injury to the client's
Menisci
The metacarpophalangeal joint of the hand is an example of which type of joint
Condyloid
Which statement best describes cartilage?
Chondrocytes are the cellular component.
Which statement is true regarding the function of the ligament?
A Attaches to muscle.
B Connects bone to bone.
C Assists in the generation of movement.
D Has greater collagen content then tendons.
B Connects bone to bone.
Which statement regarding skeletal muscle is the most accurate?
A contractile unit is a sarcomere
A marathoner completes a race and is experiencing fatigue. Which statement is the most accurate description of what is happening at a cellular level?
Oxygen is used to reform glucose and glycogen from lactic acid.
Which statement is true regarding contraction?
A Isometric contraction refers to contraction with no change in muscle length.
B Muscle contraction always results in shortening of the muscle length.
C Eccentric contraction generates the least amount of ten
A Isometric contraction refers to contraction with no change in muscle length.
The classification of bone type are which of the following?
A. Cancellous
B. Trabeculae
C. Concentric
D. Compact
E. Cortical
A. Cancellous
B. Trabeculae
D. Compact
E. Cortical
Which is a cause of decreased bone mass or weakness of bone?
Old age
lost estrogen
immobilization
internal fixation
What is a broad category of joints?
Diarthroses
Synarthroses
When viewed on x-ray, the bone has a linear fracture that occurs in a straight line across the bone. Which term best describes this type of fracture?
Transverse
The x-ray film shows a fracture where one side of the cortex is intact and flexed and the other side has signs of interruption (fracture). Which term best describes this type of fracture?
Greenstick
A motor vehicle accident has resulted in a fracture where the articular surfaces of the tibial surface and femoral condyles are no longer in contact with one another. Which term best describes this condition?
Dislocation
A child presents with bone deficiency and a bowlegged appearance. This assessment data supports a diagnosis of
Rickets
Which statement is true regarding osteomyelitis?
Radiographic signs include bone destruction.
What is the most common site for Mycobacterium tuberculosis in the bone?
Vertebral column
What is a common site for bone metastases to occur?
Vertebral bodies
A 10-year-old boy has a metastatic lesion in the metaphyseal region of the femur that is referred to as
an osteosarcoma
A 25-year-old athlete reports a sudden popping sound in the knee. This results in difficulty with weight bearing and acute swelling of the knee. This assessment data supports damage to which anatomic structure?
Anterior cruciate ligament
A patient has a tendon strain, and there is a suspected large tear of the contractile unit. Which grade of tendon tear is most consistent with this information?
Grade II
Which statement is true regarding compartment syndrome?
Pain, pallor, and absent pulses are symptoms
Which statement is true regarding wound repair?
A The acute response lasts 2 weeks.
B The subacute phase lasts 4 weeks.
C Macrophages are not involved in wound repair.
D A matrix of macrophages and lymphatics develops.
A The acute response lasts 2 weeks.
Which forms of muscular dystrophy are X-linked?
Duchenne
Which statement is true regarding myasthenia gravis?
A Men are affected more than women.
B Weakness begins with respiratory muscles.
C The peak age in women is 40 to 50 years of age.
D Acetylcholine receptor antibodies are produced.
D Acetylcholine receptor antibodies are produced.
Which statement is true regarding osteoarthritis?
There is progressive loss of articular cartilage.
Which statement is true regarding infectious (aseptic) arthritis?
The average duration of antibiotic treatment is 4 to 6 weeks.
What is responsible for producing rheumatoid factor antibodies?
B cells
Which statement is true regarding systemic lupus erythematosus?
Its a chronic inflammatory disease
Which statement is true regarding scleroderma?
There is skin thickening with deposition of connective tissue
Which statement is true regarding ankylosing spondylitis?
more common in men
Which statement is true regarding dermatomyositis?
Most patients initially complain of hip and leg weakness.
Reiter syndrome is commonly characterized with
HLA-B27 antigen
A 6-year-old boy presents with polyarthritis. His parents report no past medical history except for a sore throat 6 weeks previously. On physical examination, a murmur is noted. The assessment data support a diagnosis of
acute rheumatic fever
Lyme disease is caused by
Borrelia burgdorferi
A 60-year-old client reports pain in the knees. The client denies any previous infection or pain in the spine. The assessment data support a diagnosis of
Osteoarthritis
What are the criteria for diagnosing rheumatoid arthritis? (Select all that apply.)
A Simultaneous symmetric swelling of joints
B Soft-tissue swelling of at least three joints
C Subcutaneous rheumatoid nodules
D Swelling of at least one wrist joint
E Morn
A Simultaneous symmetric swelling of joints
B Soft-tissue swelling of at least three joints
C Subcutaneous rheumatoid nodules
E Morning stiffness in joints
A client is diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus. Which assessment data support this diagnosis? (Select all that apply.)
A African American female
B Contractures of the fingers
C Facial butterfly rash noted
D Swelling and pain in knees
E Pain worse
A African American female
B Contractures of the fingers
C Facial butterfly rash noted
D Swelling and pain in knees
A client is diagnosed with ankylosing spondylitis. Which assessment data support this diagnosis?
Lower back pain
18 year old men
The region of a burn that experiences decreased blood flow is referred to as the zone of
Stasis
It is true that the body responds to burns by
Triggering adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
A patient presents with an excruciating painful burn that is red and ivory. There are multiple moist, thin-walled blisters that formed within minutes of the burn. The burn would be classified as a
Superficial partial-thichness
When using the Parkland formula, initial fluid resuscitation involves the use of
Lactated ringers
Which statement is true regarding respiratory dysfunction associated with burns?
Dysfunction is a result of obstruction.
Which statement is true regarding the immune response in burn patients?
Suppression of the immune system can increase the risk of infection.
Which statement is true regarding burn management?
A The most common source of bacteria introduction is from bandages.
B The goals of daily burn care are to cleanse and debride the wounds.
C Blisters are best managed by being drained.
D Patients should no
B The goals of daily burn care are to cleanse and debride the wounds.
Which statement is true regarding the healing of burns?
A Healed burn tissue is resistant to trauma.
B Scar tissue develops contours that are often raised.
C Caucasians with blond hair tend to have significant scarring.
D Burn garments help burn healing b
B Scar tissue develops contours that are often raised.
A patient presents with a burn that is white with cherry red areas. The entire affected area has a hard, dry, leathery appearance. This burn would be classified as a
Third-degree
Groups that are at high risk for fire-related injuries and death include
Children younger than 4
adults older than age 65
african americans
native americans