Constitutional delay of puberty seldom requires treatment, unless the delay is causing psychosocial problems
TRUE
Weight loss aggravates symptoms of polycystic ovary syndrome, whereas weight gain may ameliorate the symptoms
False, weight gain aggravates, weight loss ameliorate
A low-fat, vegetarian diet helps relieve symptoms of premenstrual syndrome
TRUE
The acidic nature of vaginal secretions during the reproductive years provides protection against a variety of sexually transmitted pathogens
TRUE
Prevention of constipation and treatment of chronic cough may help prevent uterine prolapse
TRUE
In a woman with endometriosis, endometrial tissue that responds to hormonal changes of the menstrual cycle may be found in the lungs
TRUE
With early diagnosis and treatment of cervical cancer, prognosis is excellent
TRUE
Taking oral contraceptives increases the risk for ovarian and endometrial cancers.
FALSE
The risk of testicular cancer is 35 to 50 times greater for men with cryptorchidism than for the general male population
TRUE
Most epithelial ovarian cancers arise from a single cell and involve the loss of tumor suppressor genes and activation of oncogenes
TRUE
1. In 95% of cases of delayed puberty the problem is caused by:
a.
disruption in the hypothalamus.
b.
disruption of the pituitary.
c.
deficit in estrogen or testosterone.
d.
physiological hormonal delays
physiological hormonal delays
2. The first sign of puberty in girls is:
a.
thelarche.
b.
growth of pubic hair.
c.
menstruation.
d.
vaginal discharge
thelarche
3. The first sign of puberty in boys is:
a.
thickening of the scrotal skin.
b.
growth of pubic hair.
c.
enlargement of the testes.
d.
change in voice.
enlargement of the testes.
4. _____ precocious puberty causes the child to develop some secondary sex characteristics of the opposite sex.
a.
Mixed
b.
Incomplete
c.
Isosexual
d.
Homosexual
Mixed
5. Dysmenorrhea is caused by the release of the chemical mediator:
a.
leukotrienes.
b.
prostaglandins.
c.
bradykinin.
d.
C-reactive protein.
prostaglandins
6. Considering the pathophysiology of primary amenorrhea, what anatomic structure is involved in compartment II?
a.
Ovary
b.
Anterior pituitary
c.
Hypothalamus
d.
Vagina
Ovary
7. Considering the pathophysiology of primary amenorrhea, what anatomic structure is involved in compartment IV?
a.
Vagina
b.
Hypothalamus
c.
Ovary
d.
Anterior pituitary
Hypothalamus
8. The most common cause of cycle irregularities is a result of:
a.
disorders within the endometrium.
b.
obstruction of the fallopian tubes.
c.
pregnancy.
d.
failure to ovulate.
failure to ovulate.
9. The clinical manifestations of a woman include the following: irregular or heavy bleeding, passage of large clots, and depletion of iron stores. This person is experiencing:
a.
premenstrual syndrome.
b.
dysfunctional uterine bleeding (DUB).
c.
polycyst
dysfunctional uterine bleeding (DUB)
10. DUB secondary to ovarian dysfunction is abnormal uterine bleeding resulting from:
a.
endometriosis.
b.
progesterone deficiency or relative estrogen excess.
c.
sexually transmitted infections.
d.
congenital abnormalities in the uterine structure.
progesterone deficiency or relative estrogen excess.
11. The pathogenesis of polycystic ovarian syndrome is described as:
a.
a decrease in leptin levels that reduces the hypothalamic pulsatility of gonadotropin-releasing hormone, which reduces the number of follicles that mature.
b.
a disorder in the anteri
excessive androgens that affect follicular decline by suppressing apoptosis, enabling follicles, which normally disintegrate to survive
12. The leading cause of infertility is:
a.
pelvic inflammatory disease.
b.
endometriosis.
c.
salpingitis.
d.
polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS).
polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)
13. Considering the mediating factors of PMS, which drug is used to treat it?
a.
NSAIDs
b.
Estrogens
c.
SSRIs
d.
Progestins
SSRIs
14. Which description of the pathogenesis of PID is false?
a.
It develops when pathogenic microbes ascend from an infected cervix along the endometrial tissue to infect the uterus and adnexa.
b.
It develops from virally infected endometrial cells that mov
It develops from virally infected endometrial cells that move through the fallopian tubes and empty into the pelvic cavity.
15. On assessment a nurse identifies a woman's uterus protruding through the entrance of the vagina to the hymen. The nurse documents this finding as a Grade _____ uterine prolapse.
a.
0
b.
1
c.
2
d.
3
2
16. _____ is the descent of the bladder and the anterior vaginal wall into the vaginal wall.
a.
Rectocele
b.
Vaginocele
c.
Cystocele
d.
Enterocele
Cystocele
17. A _____ cyst develops when an ovarian follicle is stimulated, but no dominant follicle develops and completes the maturity process.
a.
follicular
b.
corpus luteal
c.
corpus albicans
d.
benign ovarian
benign ovarian
18. _____ are benign uterine tumors that develop from smooth muscle cells in the myometrium and are commonly called uterine fibroids.
a.
Endometrial polyps
b.
Myometrial polyps
c.
Leiomyomas
d.
Myometriomas
Leiomyomas
19. The size of benign uterine tumors is thought to be due to the influence of which hormone?
a.
Progesterone
b.
Estrogen
c.
Luteinizing hormone
d.
Gonadotropin-stimulating hormone
a.
Progesterone
b.
Estrogen
20. What is a theory of causation for endometriosis?
a.
Obstruction within the fallopian tubes prevents the endometrial tissue from adhering to the lining of the uterus.
b.
Endometrial tissue passes through the fallopian tubes and into the peritoneal cavi
Endometrial tissue passes through the fallopian tubes and into the peritoneal cavity and remains responsive to hormones.
c.
21. The common clinical manifestations of endometriosis include:
a.
back and flank pain.
b.
infertility and dysmenorrhea.
c.
dysuria and absent menstrual flow.
d.
painless, vaginal bleeding between menstrual periods.
infertility and dysmenorrhea.
22. Which virus is a necessary precursor for developing cervical intraepithelial carcinoma (CIN) and cervical cancer?
a.
Human papillomavirus (HPV)
b.
Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
c.
Herpes simplex II virus (HSV)
d.
Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
Human papillomavirus (HPV)
23. What description is given when all or most of the cervical epithelium shows cellular features of carcinoma, but underlying tissue is not affected?
a.
Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN)
b.
Cervical dysplasia
c.
Cervical carcinoma in situ
d.
Invas
Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN)
24. What process occurs when columnar epithelium is replaced by squamous epithelium in the transformation zone?
a.
Dysplasia
b.
Aplasia
c.
Metaplasia
d.
Epithelplasia
Metaplasia
25. Which of the following factors increases the risk for ovarian cancer after the age of 40?
a.
Use of fertility drugs
b.
Oral contraceptive use
c.
Multiple pregnancies
d.
Prolonged lactation
Use of fertility drug
26. Infertility is defined as inability to conceive after _____ months of unprotected intercourse.
a.
6
b.
12
c.
18
d.
24
12
27. _____ is a condition in which the foreskin cannot be retracted over the glans penis.
a.
Paraphimosis
b.
Priapism
c.
Prephimosis
d.
Phimosis
Phimosis
28. _____ is a fibrotic condition that causes lateral curvature of the penis during erection, which is associated with a local vasculitis-like inflammatory reaction and decreased tissue oxygenation.
a.
Phimosis
b.
Lateral phimosis
c.
Lateral paraphimosis
Peyronie disease
29. _____ is inflammation of the glans penis.
a.
Glanitis
b.
Balanitis
c.
Priapism
d.
Hydrocelitis
Balanitis
Cryptorchidism can be defined as:
a normal developmental state of the testes.
b.
an abnormal state in which there is overdevelopment of the testes.
c.
the lack of scrotum.
d.
testicular maldescent
testicular maldescent
31. _____ is the most common infectious cause of orchitis and usually affects postpubertal males.
a.
Herpes
b.
Escherichia coli
c.
Mumps
d.
Cytomegalovirus
Mumps
32. Which cancer is a germ cell tumor arising from the male gamete?
a.
Penile
b.
Testicular
c.
Prostate
d.
Epididymal
Testicular
33. Which are clinical manifestations of testicular cancer?
a.
Firm, nontender testicular mass
b.
Painful, mobile, firm testicular mass
c.
Painful fluid-filled testicular mass
d.
Soft, nontender testicular mass
Firm, nontender testicular mass
34. How does the epididymis become infected?
a.
The pathogenic microorganisms ascend the vas deferentia from an already infected urethra or bladder.
b.
The pathogenic microorganisms are attached to sperm that travel through the genital tract.
c.
The patho
The pathogenic microorganisms ascend the vas deferentia from an already infected urethra or bladder.
35. Symptoms of benign prostatic hyperplasia are a result of:
a.
infection of the prostate.
b.
obstruction of the urethra.
c.
ischemia of the urethra.
d.
compression of the urethra
compression of the urethra
36. Which infection has clinical manifestations of sudden onset of malaise, low back pain, and perineal pain with high fever and chills, dysuria, nocturia, and urinary retention?
a.
Orchitis
b.
Balanitis
c.
Epididymitis
d.
Bacterial prostatitis
Bacterial prostatitis
37. Which dietary factor is not a risk factor for prostate cancer?
a.
High-fat diet
b.
High-protein diet
c.
High-fiber diet
d.
High-calcium diet
High-fiber diet
38. Which of the following is not a cause of galactorrhea?
a.
Proliferation of the lactiferous ducts of the breast
b.
Hypothyroidism resulting from a decrease in thyroid-releasing hormone (TRH)
c.
Excess prolactin secretion from the anterior pituitary
d.
Hypothyroidism resulting from a decrease in thyroid-releasing hormone (TRH)
39. Which breast disorder is characterized by bilateral nodularity and breast tenderness that waxes and wanes with the menstrual cycle?
a.
Paget disease
b.
Fibroadenoma
c.
Fibrocystic changes
d.
Lobular carcinoma in situ
Fibrocystic changes
40. What are typical findings on breast palpation of a client with fibroadenoma?
a.
Painful, round, movable, and fluid-filled mass
b.
Painless, movable, hard, and irregular mass
c.
Painless, firm, elastic, and well-circumscribed mass
d.
Painful, nonmovabl
Painless, firm, elastic, and well-circumscribed mass
41. Which benign breast tumor affects 50- and 60-year-old women and is characterized by the principal lactiferous ducts becoming dilated and filled with cellular debris?
a.
Mammary duct ectasia
b.
Intraductal papilloma
c.
Phyllodes tumor
d.
Fibroadenoma
Mammary duct ectasia
42. Which cancers are associated with alterations of the BRCA1 gene?
a.
Endometrial and ovarian
b.
Endometrial and cervical
c.
Cervical and breast
d.
Breast and ovarian
Breast and ovarian
43. Which tumor-related gene or protein is an oncogene that transmits a growth signal to the nucleus to stimulate tumor growth?
a.
Her-2/neu
b.
Bcl-2
c.
TP53
d.
C-myc
Her-2/neu
44. Which of the following is usually the first clinical manifestation of breast cancer?
a.
Nipple dimpling
b.
Nipple discharge
c.
Enlargement of one breast
d.
A painless lump
A painless lump
seen with HPV infection
penile cancer
advanced at the time of diagnosis
male breast cancer
most curable cancer
testicular cancer
vasectomy increases risk
prostate cancer
painless diverticulum of the epididymis located between the head of epididymis and the testis
spermatocele
collection of fluid in the tunica vaginalis
hyrdocele
rotation of a testes, which twists blood vessels of the spermatic cord
testicular torsion
abnormal dilation of the vein within the spermatic cord
varicocele