A nurse is discussing a granulocyte. Which type of cell is the nurse describing?
A. Platelets
B. T cells
C. Neutrophil
D. Erythrocyte
Neutrophil
Neutrophils, eosinophils and basophils are types of granulocytes.
A patient has a decreased number of leukocytes. Which term will the nurse use to describe this finding?
A. Leukocytosis
B. Leukemia
C. Lymphoblastic
D. Leukopenia
Leukopenia
Leukopenia is present when the count is lower than normal.
A nurse wants to talk about the most common granulocyte cell. Which type of cells will the nurse describe?
A. Basophils
B. Eosinophils
C. Neutrophils
D. Platelets
Neutrophil
Neutrophilia is another term that may be used to describe granulocytosis because neutrophils are the most numerous of the granulocytes.
A patient has a shift to the left or left shift. What other term can the nurse use to describe this finding?
A. Burkitt lymphoma
B. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
C. Anemia
D. Leukemoid reaction
Leukemoid reaction
Premature release of the immature cells is responsible for the phenomenon known as a shift to the left or leukemoid reaction.
A patient has rheumatoid arthritis and the neutrophils are being sequestered in the spleen. Which diagnosis will the nurse observe documented on the chart?
A. Neutrophilia
B. Felty syndrome
C. Granulocytosis
D. Lymphocytopenia
Felty syndrome
Abnormal neutrophil distribution and sequestration are associated with hypersplenism and a pseudoneutropenia, which in the presence of rheumatoid arthritis constitute Felty syndrome.
A patient has monocytopenia. Which history data is significant for the monocytopenia?
A. Uses prednisone/glucocorticoid therapy
B. Is allergic to penicillin
C. Overweight by 100 pounds
D. Has a parasitic infection
Uses prednisone/glucocorticoid therapy
Monocytopenia, a decrease in monocytes, is rare but has been identified with hairy cell leukemia and prednisone/glucocorticoid therapy.
A patient has an infection with the Epstein Barr virus. Which lab result will be elevated?
A. Basophils
B. Platelets
C. Erythrocytes
D. Lymphocytes
Lymphocytes
Lymphocytosis is rare in acute bacterial infections and is seen most commonly in acute viral infections, particularly those caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), a causative agent in infectious mononucleosis.
Which information should the nurse include when discussing the pathophysiology of infectious mononucleosis?
A. A neoplastic proliferation of leukocyte precursor cells in the bone marrow
B. An infection of B lymphocytes caused by the Epstein-Barr virus
C.
An infection of B lymphocytes caused by the Epstein-Barr virus
Infectious mononucleosis is an infection of B lymphocytes caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV).
A patient has chronic leukemia. Which cell is most affected?
A. Undifferentiated cells
B. Chronic cells
C. Blast cells
D. Mature cells
Mature cells
In chronic leukemia, the predominant cell is more mature but does not function normally.
Which information should the nurse include when describing the pathophysiology of chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)?
A. Malignant transformation of B cells from proliferation of B cell precursors
B. Neoplastic proliferation of immature undifferentiated l
A specific chromosomal translocation called the Philadelphia chromosome
CML is more common in middle-aged to older adults and is frequently associated with a specific chromosomal translocation, called the Philadelphia chromosome.
Which staging classification system can the nurse use to help classify the stage of Hodgkin disease?
A. TNM
B. Cotswold
C. Ann Arbor
D. Braden Scale
Cotswold
Hodgkin disease is further classified by its clinical stage, called the Cotswold Stage.
A patient has recently been diagnosed with Lymphoblastic lymphoma (LL). Which initial assessment is typical of this disease?
A. Painless swollen lymph nodes in the neck
B. Bleeding in the abdomen
C. Tumor in the thyroid
D. Tissue ischemia in the extremiti
Painless swollen lymph nodes in the neck
The first sign of LL is usually a painless lymphadenopathy in the neck.
A patient has heparin induced thrombocytopenia. Which treatment should the nurse implement?
A. Stop the heparin
B. Administer the heparin
C. Change the heparin to IV
D. Give the heparin in the abdomen
Stop the heparin
Treatment is the withdrawal of heparin and use of alternative anticoagulants.
A child is admitted with acute idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). Which history data is significant for ITP?
A. Recently had ionizing radiation
B. Recently had a viral infection
C. Recently had a splenectomy
D. Recently had a pet dog
Recently had a viral infection
Acute ITP is usually secondary to infections (particularly viral).
A patient is admitted to the Emergency department with thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP). Which principle should guide nursing care?
A. This is a relatively common disorder
B. This most often involves heart ischemia
C. This is a life-threatening m
This is a life-threatening multisystem disorder
Thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura (TTP) is a life-threatening multisystem disorder.
Which information is important for the nurse to remember about essential thrombocythemia? Along with increased platelets, there may also be an increase in:
A. red blood cells.
B. Reed-Sternberg cells.
C. M protein cells.
D. mast cells.
red blood cells.
Along with increased platelets, there may be a concomitant increase in the number of red cells.
A patient has a vitamin K deficiency. Which assessment is priority? Monitoring for:
A. muscle spasms.
B. clotting.
C. hemorrhage.
D. heart irregularities.
hemorrhage.
Most individuals with a vitamin K deficiency will experience easy bruising and excessive bleeding.
Which patient should the nurse assess first for bleeding problems? A patient with:
A. a thrombus.
B. vitamin A deficiency.
C. liver disease.
D. an embolus.
liver disease.
Patients with liver disease and a vitamin K deficiency are prone to bleeding.
A patient is septic. Which complication should the nurse monitor for in this patient?
A. Infectious mononucleosis
B. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
C. Von Willebrand disease
D. Shift to the right
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
Infectious disease, particularly involving sepsis, is the most common condition associated with DIC.
Which principle should the nurse use to guide nursing care of a patient with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?
A. An abnormal antibody, called the M protein, becomes the most prominent blood protein
B. A unique mediastinal mass causes dyspnea
Tissue ischemia, clotting and significant hemorrhage occur
The end result of this complex series of pathophysiologic events called DIC is both tissue ischemia and significant hemorrhage with clotting.
Which assessment finding indicates that a patient may be experiencing disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?
A. Bleeding from IV site
B. Mass in the lower jaw
C. Presence of Bence Jones protein
D. Abdominal ascites
Bleeding from IV site
Acute DIC presents with rapid development of hemorrhaging (oozing) from venipuncture sites, arterial lines, or surgical wounds or development of ecchymotic lesions (purpura, petechiae) and hematomas.
A nurse is describing Virchow Triad. Which of the following is an example of endothelial injury?
A. Lack of vitamin K
B. Congestive heart failure
C. Smoking
D. Factor 5 Leiden mutation
Smoking
Endothelial injury is caused by radiation injury, exogenous chemical agents (e.g., toxins from cigarette smoke), endogenous agents (e.g., cholesterol), bacterial toxins or endotoxins, or immunologic mechanisms.
A nurse is describing white blood cells. Which term should the nurse use when discussing white blood cells?
A. Erythrocytes
B. Leukocytes
C. Platelets
D. Plasma
Leukocytes
Leukocyte is the medical term for white blood cells.
Which of the following information should the nurse include when discussing white blood cells?
A. Leukocytosis is never beneficial
B. Leukopenia is never normal
C. Leukocytosis is a decrease in white blood cells
D. Leukocyopenia is an increase in white bl
Leukopenia is never normal
Unlike leukocytosis, leukopenia is never normal.
A nurse is teaching the staff about granulocytes. Which type of cell is the nurse describing?
A. Basophils
B. Red blood cells
C. Platelets
D. B cells
Basophils
Granulocytes include neutrophils, basophils, and eosinophils.
A primary care provider tells the nurse that a patient has a shift to the left or left shift. Which type of patient will the nurse be caring for? One with a:
A. fluid shift.
B. heart disease.
C. bacterial infection.
D. liver condition.
bacterial infection.
Neutrophilia and a left shift are most commonly associated with bacterial infection
While reviewing lab results a nurse finds a patient with a neutrophil count of 1900/mm3. What term will the nurse use to describe this finding?
A. Neutrophilia
B. Neutropenia
C. Granulocytosis
D. Agranulocytopenia
Neutropenia
Neutropenia is a condition associated with a reduction in circulating neutrophils and exists clinically when the neutrophil count is less than 2000/mm3.
A patient has basophilia. What does the nurse suspect the patient is experiencing?
A. Pregnancy
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. An allergic response
D. Cushing syndrome
An allergic response
Basophilia is a response to inflammation and immediate hypersensitivity reactions.
A patient has acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Which lab report should the nurse monitor closely in this patient?
A. Sodium levels
B. Urine analysis
C. Lymphocyte counts
D. Schilling test
Lymphocyte counts
Lymphocytopenia is a major problem in acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS).
Which statement indicates an adolescent patient understands the discharge teaching for infectious mononucleosis?
A. I must avoid sneezing or coughing on anyone
B. I must avoid foods that contain tryamine
C. I will take aspirin for a fever
D. I will avoid
I will avoid strenuous activity
Rest with avoidance of strenuous activity and contact sports is indicated.
A patient has acute leukemia. A nurse recalls the cell most affected by this disease is a:
A. mature cell.
B. blast cell.
C. differentiated cell.
D. hypochromic cell.
blast cell.
Acute leukemia is characterized by undifferentiated or immature cells, usually a blast cell.
A patient has acute leukemia and develops anemia. Which assessment findings are supportive of the diagnosis for anemia?
A. Headache, stroke, and meningitis
B. Bleeding, petechia, and bruising
C. Fever, cough, and pharyngitis
D. Fatigue, dizziness, and pal
Fatigue, dizziness, and pallor
Fatigue, dizziness, shortness of breath, and pallor are indicative of anemia.
A nurse is describing the pathophysiology of chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML). Which concept should the nurse include?
A. Reed-Sternberg cells
B. Philadelphia chromosome
C. Epstein-Barr virus
D. Bence-Jones protein
Philadelphia chromosome
This mutation, called the Philadelphia chromosome, involves the exchange of chromosomal materials between chromosomes 9 and 22 and is associated with CML.
Which concept should the nurse include when describing the pathophysiology of Hodgkin lymphoma?
A. Virchow triad
B. Philadelphia chromosome
C. Bence-Jones proteins
D. Reed-Sternberg cells
Reed-Sternberg cells
Hodgkin lymphoma (HL) is characterized by its progression from one group of lymph nodes to another, the development of systemic symptoms, and the presence of Reed-Sternberg (RS) cells.
Which concept should the nurse include when describing the pathophysiology of multiple myeloma?
A. Burkitt lymphoma
B. M protein
C. Cotswold staging
D. Von Willebrand disease
M protein
Because of the large number of malignant plasma cells, the abnormal antibody, called the M protein, becomes the most prominent protein in the blood for a patient with multiple myeloma.
Which assessment finding is typical in a patient with multiple myeloma (MM)?
A. Hypercalcemia
B. Heart failure
C. Mouth lesions
D. Jaundice
Hypercalcemia
The common presentation of MM is characterized by elevated levels of calcium in the blood (hypercalcemia), renal failure, anemia, and bone lesions.
A patient asks the nurse what is the treatment for multiple myeloma? How should the nurse respond?
A. Anticoagulants
B. Antibiotics
C. Chemotherapy
D. Chelation
Chemotherapy
Although chemotherapy, radiation therapy, and marrow transplant have been used for treatment, the prognosis for persons with MM remains poor.
A patient with multiple myeloma is in the end stages and has had a relapse after chemotherapy. Which drug should the nurse be prepared to administer?
A. Heparin
B. Imatinib
C. Thalidomide
D. Xigris
Thalidomide
A recent addition to treatment of MM in individuals who have a relapse after conventional chemotherapy is the drug thalidomide.
A patient has lymphoblastic lymphoma. Which cell is most affected?
A. Erythrocytes
B. Leukocytes
C. B cells
D. T cells
T cells
The disease arises from a clone of relatively immature T cells that becomes malignant in the thymus.
A patient has lymphoblastic lymphoma. Which organ is most affected?
A. Thymus
B. Thyroid
C. Lungs
D. Liver
Thymus
The disease arises from a clone of relatively immature T cells that becomes malignant in the thymus.
A nurse notices on the chart that the medical diagnosis is lymphoblastic lymphoma. The nurse will most likely provide care to:
A. an elderly male.
B. a child.
C. a middle-aged woman.
D. a newborn.
a child.
Lymphoblastic lymphoma is a form of non-Hodgkin lymphoma most commonly seen in children and adolescents.
A patient has hypersplenism. How should the nurse explain this to the patient?
A. The spleen is small
B. The spleen is encapsulated
C. The spleen is overacting
D. The spleen is removed
C) The spleen is overacting
In conditions where splenomegaly is present, the normal functions of the spleen may become overactive, producing a condition known as hypersplenism.
The nurse discovers a patient has a low platelet count. Which term should the nurse use to describe this finding?
A. Thrombocytopenia
B. Thrombocytosis
C. Thrombocythemia
D. Thrombosis
Thrombocytopenia
Thrombocytopenia is defined as a platelet count below 150,000/mm3 of blood.
When a nurse observes a platelet count of 9,000/mm3, which condition must the nurse monitor for in this patient?
A. Pernicious anemia
B. Spontaneous bleeding
C. Infection
D. Sepsis
Spontaneous bleeding
Spontaneous bleeding without trauma can occur with counts ranging from 10,000/mm3 to 15,000/mm3.
A patient has heparin induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). What should the nurse assess for in this patient?
A. Pulmonary infarction
B. Pulmonary hypertension
C. Pulmonary edema
D. Pulmonary embolism
Pulmonary embolism
Venous thrombosis is more common and results in deep venous thrombosis and pulmonary emboli.
A patient has heparin induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). Which drug should the nurse get ready to administer?
A. Low-molecular-weight heparin
B. Warfarin
C. Chemotherapy
D. Lepirudin
Lepirudin
The chance of blood clots can be diminished using thrombin inhibitors (e.g., argatroban, lepirudin) for a patient with HIT.
A nurse is discussing the pathophysiology of immune/idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura. Which information should the nurse include?
A. Basophils are overactive and attack platelets in the spleen
B. The IgE antibodies attack the complex platelet 4 antigen
The IgG autoantibody mediated complex attacks platelet glycoproteins.
The autoantibodies are generally of the IgG class and are against one or more of several platelet glycoproteins (e.g., GPIIb/IIIa, GPIIb/IX, GPIa/IIa).
Which patient should the nurse assess first? A patient with:
A. infectious mononucleosis.
B. leukocytosis
C. splenomegaly
D. thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura.
Thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura (TTP) is a life-threatening multisystem disorder that is characterized by thrombotic microangiopathy.
Which concept should the nurse include when describing the pathophysiology of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura?
A. Lytic lesions
B. Schizocytes/Schistocytes
C. Macrocytic
D. Hyperchromic
Schizocytes/Schistocytes
A routine blood smear usually shows fragmented red cells (schizocytes) produced by shear forces when red cells are in contact with the fibrin mesh in clots that form in the vessels.
A nurse is checking lab results and notices that a relatively healthy patient has a platelet count of 610,000/mm3. Which diagnosis will the nurse observe documented on the chart?
A. Essential thrombocythemia
B. Essential thrombocytopenia
C. Secondary thro
Essential thrombocythemia
Essential thrombocythemia is diagnosed by a platelet count that exceeds 600,000/mm3 and remains elevated, with no other indicated cause, such as arthritis, iron deficiency anemia, cancer, or splenectomy.
Which of the following terms can the nurse use to describe thrombocythemia?
A. Thrombocytosis
B. Thrombocytopenia
C. Plateletcytosis
D. Plateletpen
Thrombocytosis
Thrombocythemia (also called thrombocytosis) is defined as a platelet count greater than 400,000/mm3 of blood.
Which assessment finding is typical in a patient with essential thrombocythemia (ET)?
A. Facial mass around the jaw
B. Bone pain
C. Enlarged lymph nodes in the neck
D. Decreased perfusion to the extremities
Decreased perfusion to the extremities
Those with ET are at risk for large-vessel arterial or venous thrombosis, and ischemia in the fingers, toes, or cerebrovascular regions is common.
When the nurse is asked which type of impaired clotting problem is inherited, how should the nurse respond?
A. Liver disease
B. Vitamin K deficiency
C. Folate overload
D. Hemophilia
Hemophilia
Inherited causes of impaired hemostasis include hemophilia and von Willebrand disease.
Which information should the nurse include when discussing vitamin K and hemostasis?
A. Oral vitamin K is the treatment of choice for impaired hemostasis.
B. Vitamin K is required for prothrombin synthesis.
C. Lack of vitamin K can lead to excessive clott
Vitamin K is required for prothrombin synthesis.
Vitamin K, a fat-soluble vitamin, is required for the synthesis of prothrombin; the procoagulant factors II, VII, IX, and X; and the anticoagulant factors (proteins C and S).
A nurse is asked why patients with liver disease have bleeding problems. What is the nurses best answer? The bleeding problems are caused from:
A. thrombocytopenia and abnormal platelet functioning.
B. increased protein C levels.
C. decreased fibrinolytic
thrombocytopenia and abnormal platelet functioning.
Thrombocytopenia and thrombocytopathies are manifestations of liver disease.
A nurse recalls consumptive thrombohemorrhagic disorder is commonly called _______________ in the clinical area.
A. Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)
B. Idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura (ITP)
C. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
D. Thro
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
No one term is capable of covering all the possible varieties of these disorders; however, DIC is most commonly used in the clinical setting to describe a pathologic condition that is associated with hemorrhage
Which information should the nurse include when describing the pathophysiology of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?
A. Clotting and hemorrhaging occur
B. Increased levels of protein C contribute to diffuse clotting
C. Excessive deletion of tis
Clotting and hemorrhaging occur
In the presence of DIC, a seeming paradox exists; that is, systemic clotting in the presence of bleeding.
A nurse suspects the patient is experiencing disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Which lab should the nurse check?
A. Urinalysis
B. D-dimer
C. Arterial blood gases
D. Potassium
D-dimer
Detection of D-dimers is a widely used test for DIC.
A patient has a thrombosis. While reviewing the history, the nurse found the patient has atherosclerosis. Which component of Virchow triad does the atherosclerosis correlate?
A. Endothelial injury
B. Stasis of blood
C. Hypercoaguability
D. Volume of blood
Endothelial injury
Endothelial injury to blood vessels can result from atherosclerosis (plaque deposits on arterial walls).
A patient asks a nurse what a moving clot is called. How should the nurse respond? It is called:
A. an embolus.
B. a thrombus.
C. thrombophlebitis.
D. pica.
an embolus.
A thrombus (clots) also has the potential of detaching from the vessel wall and circulating within the bloodstream (referred to as an embolus).
What term should the nurse use to describe a leukocyte count that is higher than normal?
A. Leukocytosis
B. Leukemia
C. Leukopenia
D. Hemostasis
Leukocytosis
Leukocytosis is an elevated leukocyte count which often occurs in response to infection and physiologic stressors.
A patient has an increase in the production of neutrophils in response to an infection. What term should the nurse use to describe this response?
A. Neutropenia
B. Pancytopenia
C. Right shift
D. Neutrophilia
Neutrophilia
An increase in the production of neutrophils in response to infection is called neutrophilia, or a left shift, or shift to the left.
A patient has eosinophilia. Which of the following conditions does the nurse suspect the patient is experiencing?
A. Overuse of steroids
B. Stress response
C. Cushing syndrone
D. Parasitic infections
Parasitic infections
Eosinophils are active in allergic reactions (type I hypersensitivities), malignancy, and parasitic infections.
A patient has agranulocytosis. Which of the following conditions should the nurse monitor for in this patient?
A. Cancer
B. Infection
C. Allergic reactions
D. A left shift
Infection
Agranulocytosis is characterized by a decrease in all granulocytes and is usually the result of drug toxicity to the marrow. Without the production of granulocytes, risk of infection is high.
If a patient has lymphocytosis, which of the following types of infection does the nurse suspect the patient is experiencing?
A. Viral infection
B. Fungal infection
C. Bacterial infection
D. Parasitic infection
Viral infection
Lymphocytosis, an elevated lymphocyte count, generally occurs in response to viral infection since lymphocytes (B and T cells) play an active role in fighting viral infections.
A patient has mononucleosis and asks the nurse which virus causes this disease. How should the nurse respond?
A. Influenza virus
B. Human immunodeficiency virus
C. Epstein-Barr virus
D. Staphylococcus aureus
Epstein-Barr virus
Mononucleosis is caused by infection of the B lymphocytes by Epstein-Barr virus and results in a severe and prolonged upper respiratory tract infection.
A patient has infectious mononucleosis, which immune cell is most affected?
A. T lymphocytes
B. Neutrophils
C. Basophils
D. B lymphocytes
B lymphocytes
Infectious mononucleosis (IM) is an acute infection of B lymphocytes (B cells) with Epstein-Barr virus (EBV).
A nurse is to describe the primary transmission route of the virus that causes infectious mononucleosis. What is the nurses best response?
A. Skin to skin contact
B. Transfer of saliva through close personal contact
C. Contamination of public drinking wat
Transfer of saliva through close personal contact
The virus that causes infectious mononucleosis is primarily transmitted in saliva, for example, with kissing.
Which of the following assessment findings are typical in a patient with infectious mononucleosis?
A. Afebrile and sore throat
B. Headache and spotty rash
C. Pharyngitis and bilateral edema in the extremities
D. Fatigue and enlarged cervical lymph nodes
Fatigue and enlarged cervical lymph nodes
At the time of diagnosis, the individual commonly presents with the classic group of symptoms: fever, sore throat, cervical lymph node enlargement, and fatigue.
A nurse recalls leukemia is classified as:
A. differentiated or undifferentiated.
B. benign or malignant.
C. proliferative or nonproliferative.
D. acute or chronic.
acute or chronic.
Leukemia is classified as being acute or chronic and myelogenous or lymphocytic.
Which statement by the patient indicates more teaching is needed regarding leukemia?
A. Leukemic cells crowd out the other cells in the bone marrow
B. There is an inherited susceptibility to leukemia-causing mutagens
C. Several translocations are observed
Leukemic cells function as normal white blood cells
Leukemic cells, because their differentiation is blocked at an early stage of development, do not function normally.
A patient is admitted with acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL). The nurse is most likely providing care to a:
A. child.
B. woman between the ages of 20 and 40 years.
C. male between the ages of 40 and 60 years.
D. female adult over the age 65.
child.
ALL accounts for almost 74% of all new cases of leukemia in children.
Symptoms that a nurse will typically observe in a patient with acute myelogenous leukemia (AML) include:
A. ecchymosis and petechiae.
B. fatigue and unexplained weight gain.
C. hypertension and myocardial hypertrophy.
D. recurrent infections and clots.
ecchymosis and petechiae.
Thrombocytopenia in AML leads to bleeding and can manifest with ecchymosis (bruising) and petechiae (capillary bleeding under the skin).
Which information indicates the nurse has a good understanding of the important difference between acute and chronic leukemias?
A. Chronic leukemia develops more rapidly than acute leukemia.
B. Acute leukemias are cancerous, while chronic leukemias are be
In chronic leukemia the cancerous cells are more differentiated than in acute leukemia.
Chronic leukemia involves mutations in stem cells that are more differentiated than those in acute leukemia. Unlike cells in acute leukemia, chronic leukemic cells are
A patient has multiple myeloma. Which area in the body does the nurse closely monitor for the tumor masses?
A. Lung
B. Brain
C. Bones
D. Liver
Bones
Multiple myeloma (MM) is a B cell cancer characterized by the proliferation of malignant plasma cells that infiltrate the bone marrow and aggregate into tumor masses throughout the skeletal system.
A patient with multiple myeloma is producing immunoglobulin fragments called Bence Jones proteins. Which organ should the nurse most closely monitor?
A. Liver
B. Kidneys
C. Pancreas
D. Spleen
Kidneys
In multiple myeloma, Bence Jones proteins are excreted in the urine and damage renal tubular cells.
A patient has Hodgkin lymphoma. Which initial clinical manifestation should the nurse assess for in this patient?
A. Bone pain
B. An abdominal mass
C. Lymphadenopathy
D. Dyspnea
Lymphadenopathy
Since Hodgkin lymphoma is a malignancy of lymphocytes that reside in the lymph nodes, one of the first manifestations is lymphadenopathy, or swollen lymph nodes.
Which symptoms should the nurse assess for in a patient with Hodgkin lymphoma?
A. Headache, visual changes, and hearing loss
B. Night sweats, low-grade fevers, and weight loss
C. Hypertension, tachycardia, and chest pain
D. Hematuria, flank pain, and asci
Night sweats, low-grade fevers, and weight loss
Inflammatory cytokines released by Hodgkin lymphoma tumors often cause night sweats, low-grade fevers, and weight loss.
A patient has non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL). When the nurse is reviewing the history, which finding is a risk factor for NHL?
A. Appendectomy 1 year ago
B. Bacterial infection
C. Heart disease
D. Organ transplant 2 years ago
Organ transplant 2 years ago
Causes of NHL include immunosuppression following organ transplantation, viral infection, and chemical exposure.
A nurse is describing characteristics of non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL). Which information should the nurse include?
A. NHL will often spread to the nasopharynx, gastrointestinal tract, and bone.
B. NHL remains localized in one set of lymph nodes.
C. NHL usua
NHL will often spread to the nasopharynx, gastrointestinal tract, and bone.
NHL does not remain localized in the lymph nodes, but often spreads to these areas and other soft tissues.
A nurse is discussing the lymphoma that is associated with Epstein-Barr virus infection and most commonly occurs in Africa. Which lymphoma is the nurse describing?
A. Hodgkin lymphoma
B. Low-grade non-Hodgkin lymphoma
C. High-grade non-Hodgkin lymphoma
D.
Burkitt lymphoma
Burkitt lymphoma is associated with Epstein-Barr virus infection and most commonly occurs in African children, although some cases do occur in the United States.
Following a splenectomy, the nurse must monitor this patient who has a higher risk of:
A. developing genetic mutations.
B. developing lymphoma.
C. acquiring infections.
D. acquiring Felty syndrome.
acquiring infections.
The spleen is a secondary lymphoid organ and contains lymphocytes and residential macrophages. Individuals who have had their spleen removed are at increased risk of acquiring infections.
A patient has hypersplenism. Which of the following lab results will the nurse observe that is typical for this disease?
A. Increased red blood cells
B. Increased white blood cells
C. Decreased arterial blood gases
D. Decreased platelets
Decreased platelets
Hypersplenism often results in anemia, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia caused by sequestration of blood components in the spleen.
A patient develops heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). Which principle should the nurse use to provide care? In these types of patients, the administration of heparin induces:
A. platelet aggregation and thrombus formation.
B. the antibody-mediated de
platelet aggregation and thrombus formation.
HIT occurs when heparin induces a paradoxical reaction resulting in platelet aggregation and thrombus formation. Consumption of platelets in the thrombi leads to thrombocytopenia and increased risk of bleeding.
When a nurse is asked what causes idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP), what is the nurse's best response? ITP is caused by:
A. a vaccine-induced hypersensitivity reaction against platelets.
B. viral-induced hyperproliferation of platelets.
C. antibo
antibody destruction of platelets in the spleen.
ITP is a type II hypersensitivity reaction with antibody formation to altered platelet antigens and subsequent platelet destruction in the spleen.
Which of the following group of symptoms would lead the nurse to suspect a pediatric patient has idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)?
A. Multiple infections and erythematous rash
B. Epitaxis, gum bleeding, and petechiae
C. Lower extremity that is wa
Epitaxis, gum bleeding, and petechiae
Decreased platelet levels in ITP increase a child's risk of bleeding. Manifestations of bleeding include epitaxis (nose bleeds), gum bleeding, and petechiae.
A nurse is describing the pathophysiology of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP). Which information should the nurse include? ITP involves:
A. antibody destruction of platelets.
B. pathological activation of the clotting cascade.
C. a microangiopath
a microangiopathic condition with platelet aggregation.
A microangiopathic (disease of small blood vessels) condition prevails, with platelet aggregation causing occlusion of arterioles and capillaries in the microcirculation. TTP is a microangiopathic.
In addition to a reduced platelet count, what other problem should the nurse monitor for in a patient with thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)?
A. Leukopenia
B. Tissue ischemia
C. Hepatomegaly
D. Pneumonia
Tissue ischemia
TTP is characterized by platelet aggregation and formation of thrombi within the microcirculation which cause ischemia and tissue hypoxia.
When the nurse is reviewing lab reports, which finding is typical of a patient experiencing thrombocythemia?
A. Decreased platelet count
B. Increased platelet count
C. Normal platelet count
D. Variable platelet count
Increased platelet count
Thrombocythemia is characterized by excessive clot formation due to an elevated platelet count.
Which statement indicates the nurse has a good understanding of hemophilia? Hemophilia is caused by:
A. autoimmune platelet lysis.
B. an inherited clotting factor deficiency.
C. proliferation of megakaryocytes in the bone marrow.
D. stem cell defect in pl
an inherited clotting factor deficiency.
Thrombocythemia is characterized by excessive clot formation due to an elevated platelet count.
When reviewing the history of a patient with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), which finding is significant?
A. Overweight
B. Smoked for 20 years
C. Had migraine headaches
D. Admitted with sepsis
Admitted with sepsis
This complex disorder is a complication that can result from a broad spectrum of clinical conditions, including sepsis, trauma, obstetrical complications, liver disease, hematologic disorders, and some malignancies.
Which lab result will be elevated in a patient with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?
A. Platelets
B. Fibrin degradation products
C. Clotting factors
D. Activated protein C
Fibrin degradation products
In DIC, a sign of fibrinolysis and clot breakdown is the presence of fibrin degradation products.
Which vitamin deficiency will cause the patient to have decreased clotting capabilities and increased risk of bleeding?
A. C
B. E
C. A
D. K
K
Vitamin K is required for normal clotting factor synthesis by the liver.
Which statement indicates the nurse needs more instruction regarding Virchow triad? One of the factors associated with Virchow triad is:
A. venous stasis.
B. endothelial injury.
C. increased heparin levels.
D. hypercoagulability.
increased heparin levels.
The Virchow triad for identifying risk factors associated with thrombus formation includes any condition involving venous stasis, endothelial injury with subsequent activation of clotting cascade, and/or hypercoagulability. Hepar