RHIT Domain 6 (Chapters 17 to 21) Sayles Review Quizzes

False
(in addition to planning, organizing, and controlling)

(Chapter17)
True or false. Leading is one of the four management functions in addition to planning consolidating, and controlling.
True
False

Low concern for people and high concern for production

According to Blake and Mouton's leadership grid, authoritarian leadership reflects which of the following?
Low concern for people and a low concern for production
Low concern for people and high concern for production
High concern for people and low conce

Agreeableness

DeRue organized leadership traits into three categories: demographic task, competence, and interpersonal attributes. Which of the following falls into the interpersonal attribute?
Agreeableness
Gender
Intelligence
Emotional Stability

People-oriented

There are two broad categories of behavioral characteristics. The first is task-oriented and the second is which of the following?
Role-oriented
Position-oriented
Job-oriented
People-oriented

Consultative

According to Vroom and Jago's decision-making strategies the "c" stands for which of the following?
Chief
Clinical
Consultative
Coordination

Expert

What is the type of power given to leaders who are authorities in their fields or have knowledge or skills that are in short supply are referred to as?
Expert
Referent
Legitimate
Influence

Exploitive autocracy
(the leader wields absolute power and uses the team to serve his or her own personal interests.)

Which of the following is the harshest form of leadership?
Participative Leadership
Bureaucracy
Exploitive autocracy
Benevolent autocracy

Theory X and Y

McGregor investigated leadership styles related to a leader's philosophy about the members of a group or team. Those theories were classified as which of the following?
Theory A and B
Theory M and N
Theory S and T
Theory X and Y

Transformational

What is the name of the theory that is exemplified by leaders who inspire and motivate a group of people and creates a vision of the future?
Transactional
Transformational
Inspirational
Motivational

Build a team to guide change

In Kotter's method of leading change which comes first?
Communicate vision to all employees
Build a team to guide change
Generate short term wins
Develop a vision and strategy

True

True or false. In change management when considering how the change will occur, a leader must consider the type of employees impacted by the change, the work situation where the change will occur, and how supervisors will work with their staff.
True
False

Critical change

Which of the following is a disciplined process of actively and skillfully conceptualizing, analyzing, synthesizing, applying, and evaluating information?
Exploration of change
Leadership
Change management
Critical change

CIO
(The chief information officer CIO is responsible for leading, planning, budgeting, resourcing, and training the information technology IT staff. The CIO needs to know how to create business models and make rigorous decisions based on the analysis of

Who is responsible for leading planning, budgeting, resourcing, and training the IT staff?
CEO
CFO
CIO
COO

Not appearing to change or waiver when difficulties occur

When discussing leadership traits integrity refers to the leader __________.
Treating all members of the team fairly
Keeping everyone on task and projected outcomes
Not appearing to change or waiver when difficulties occur
respecting all members of the te

Upper management
(The team charter, provided by upper management is the document that describes the concerns the team was created to address, the team's goal or vision, and lists the initial members of the team and their respective departments.)

Who provides the team charter?
The team leader
Upper management
Group consensus
Middle management

False
(A general rule of thumb is a team should be no greater than 20 members to run efficiently and achieve the stated goals and objectives in a reasonable time frame)

True or false. A good size for a team is approximately 35.
True
False

Creating

Which of the following is not part of the group dynamic model proposed by Tuckman?
Creating
Norming
Storming
Forming

True

Consensus building is a decision-making method that seeks consent of all participants to resolve those differences so an acceptable result can be found.
True
False

Noise

What is the term used in the communication model for those things (sounds or motion) that distract?
Encoding
Media
Ideation
Noise

bureaucracy

The leader relies primarily on rules and regulations

participative

Plans and decisions are made by the team and leader

democratic

Participative and supports collective decision making by the group

consultative

The leader remains open to input from members of the team

Laissez-faire

Style reflects a leader who holds a title and responsibility but is hands-off

Authoritarian

Domineering and decisions are made from a distance

Standardize clinical decision making

(Chapter18)
Which of the following is the goal of clinical practice guidelines?
Describe the outcomes of healthcare-related services
Standardize clinical decision making
Standardize the content of clinical pathways
Regulate accreditation standards

Brainstorming

Which of the following is a technique used to generate a large number of creative ideas from a group?
Affinity grouping
Brainstorming
Motivating technique
Nominal group technique

System
(The Problem Is Usually the System)

Problems in patient care and other areas of the healthcare organization are usually symptoms inherent in which of the following?
Infrastructure
Output
Principle
System

It is a set of processes used to determine the appropriateness of medical services provided during specific episodes of care.

Which of the following statements best defines utilization management?
It is the process of determining whether the medical care provided to a patient is necessary.
It is a set of processes used to determine the appropriateness of medical services provide

Checksheet
(consists of a simple list of categories, issues, or observations on the left side of the chart and a place on the right to record incidences by placing a checkmark )

Which of the following is a data collection tool that records and compiles observations or occurrences?
Pareto chart
Force-field analysis
Checksheet
Scatter diagram

Clinical performance measure

A hospital's c-section rate is an example of which of the following?
Clinical performance measure
Clinical guideline
Clinical standard
Clinical protocol

Outcome indicators

Donabedian proposed three types of quality indicators: structure indicators, process indicators, and _____________.
Performance indicators
Management indicators
Outcome indicators
Output indicators

Fishbone diagram

The medical transcription improvement team wants to identify the cause of poor transcription quality. Which of the following tools would best aid the team in identifying the root cause of the problem?
Flowchart
Fishbone diagram
Pareto chart
Scatter diagra

Customer expectations

Many organizations and quality experts define quality as meeting or exceeding ______________.
Patient quotas
System outputs
Customer expectations
Data collection

True (it's called Tracer Methology)

True or false. The Joint Commission's methodology for accessing quality of healthcare during its survey process is to follow specific patients through their entire admission and to identify noncompliance with standards as reflected in the experience of pa

Patient representative

Which of the following is used in healthcare organizations to handle minor complaints and to seek remedies on behalf of patients?
Claims management
Health Information Management
Housekeeping
Patient representative

Flowchart

The leader of the coding performance improvement team wants all of her team members to clearly understand the coding process. Which of the following would be the best tool for accomplishing this objective?
Flowchart
Force-field analysis
Pareto chart
Scatt

Performance improvement

The continuous study and adaptation of a healthcare organization's functions and processes to increase the likelihood of achieving desired outcome is called which of the following?
Multivoting technique
Performance improvement
Productivity indicators
Stru

False

True or false. Sentinel events are events that showcase the good quality of care provided by a healthcare facility.
True
False

Pay for performance

Initiatives and programs that reward organizations and providers for quality outcomes are called which of the following?
Dashboards
Incidents
Pay for performance
Tracer methodology

False
(It was the Joint Commission)

True or false. The National Committee on Quality Assurance (NCQA) has issued specific National Patient Safety Goals (NPSG) in response to its identification of patient safety as its top priority in accrediting managed healthcare organizations.
True
False

Benchmarking

Which of the following elements of team success compares an organization's performance against that of external standards?
Collecting and gathering data
Benchmarking
Process redesign
Analyzing process data

Affinity grouping
(Write ideas generated in a brainstorming session on sticky notes. Without talking to each other, each team member reviews the ideas on the notes and places each in natural groupings that seem related or connected to each other.)

A _____________ allows the team to organize similar ideas into logical groupings.
Affinity grouping
Brainstorming
Motivating technique
Nominal group technique

Deemed status
(recognized as meeting the Medicare Conditions of Participation, which are the administrative and operational guidelines and regulations under which healthcare facilities are allowed to take part in the Medicare and Medicaid programs. )

An organization that is recognized by CMS as meeting the Medicare Conditions of Participation has attained which of the following?
Approved status
Deemed status
Licensed status
Government status

Third-party payer

Which of the following would be considered an external customer?
Cath lab manager
Hospital laboratory
Third-party payer
Risk management department

Lean
(In many ways, Lean is a good fit for healthcare organizations and many of the principles of Lean are transferrable from its origins in the automotive industry to other industries, including healthcare)
(Six Sigma uses statistics)

The process improvement methodology that is focused on eliminating waste while also improving the flow of work processes is called which of the following?
Benchmarking
High-reliability organizations
Lean
Six Sigma

Medication reconciliation

What is the process that monitors and confirms that a patient receives consistent dosing across all facility transfers called?
Sentinel event
Risk management
Clinical documentation improvement
Medication reconciliation

False
(An incident report documents the event for operational purposes and is not used for patient care, so it is considered an extremely confidential document that is never filed in the health record and should not be photocopied or prepared in duplicate

Because of their importance to patient care, incident reports are always filed in the patient's health records.
True
False

Utilization management

Which of the following is an important part of quality patient care as it helps to ensure necessary and appropriate care, effectiveness of the services provided to the patient, and timely and safe discharge of patients?
Clinical performance measure
Perfor

False

True or false. DNV GL is a voluntary accreditation organization that is relatively new to healthcare and has not yet received deemed status from CMS.
True
False

Performance measurement
(Rationale: Systems thinking is a vital part of PI and is an objective way of assessing work-related ideas and processes with the goal of allowing people to uncover ineffective patterns of behavior and thinking and then finding way

The process of comparing the outcomes of an organization, work unit, or employee against pre-established performance plans and standards is referred to as which of the following?
a. Case management
b. Performance measurement
c. Systems thinking
d. Utiliza

Management

(Chapter19)
Which of the following is the process of planning, controlling, leading, and organizing the activities of a healthcare organization or department within an organization?
Strategy
Management
Leading
Planning

False (Strategy)

True or false: Planning is a course of action designed to produce a desired (business) outcome.
True
False

Strategic plan

What is the document in which the leadership of a healthcare organization identifies the organization's overall mission, vision, and goals to help set the long-term direction of the organization as a business entity?
Strategic plan
Strategy
Planning
Contr

Planning, controlling, leading, organizing

What are the four functions of management that HIM directors use in the day-to-day and long-term operation of the department to ensure the healthcare organization is in compliance with management of HIM functions?
Strategy, controlling, management, planni

Planning

Which of the following is the examination of the future and preparation of action plans to attain goals of the department or healthcare facility?
Controlling
Leading
Organizing
Planning

True

True or false: Controlling is the function in which performance is monitored according to policies and procedures.
True
False

Organization

What is the coordination of all the tasks and responsibilities of a department to ensure the work that needs to be accomplished is completed correctly called?
Organization
Specialization
Controlling
Strategy

Vision

The ______ statement is a short description of an organization's ideal future state.
Values
Vision
Mission
Organization

Mission

What is a written statement that identifies the core purpose and philosophies of a healthcare organization?
Vision
Values
Organization
Mission

False (Values Statement)

True or false: The vision statement is a short description that communicates an organization's social and cultural belief system.
True
False

Strategic planning

Healthcare organizations update their mission and vision statements regularly as part of what process?
Organizational planning
Management planning
Strategic planning
Leading planning

Policies

Which of the following are the principles describing how a department or an organization will handle a specific situation or execute a specific process?
Vision
Procedures
Planning
Policies

False (implementation)

True or false: Values are a process by which the policies are put into action.
True
False

Strategic information systems planning

The process of identifying and prioritizing various upgrades and changes that might be made in an organization's information systems

Work analysis

The process of gathering information about what it takes to get a job done

Workflow

The process and steps it takes to accomplish a task

Change management

The formal process of introducing change, getting it adopted, and diffusing it throughout the organization

Job description

List of duties, reporting relationships, working conditions, and responsibilities for a particular job

Job classification

A method of evaluating a job description against written descriptions of various classification grades

Job evaluation

The process of applying predefined compensable factors to determine their worth

Project Management

A formal set of principles and procedures to help control the activities associated with implementing a large undertaking to achieve a specific goal

Project management life cycle

The period in which the processes involved in carrying out a project are completed

Gantt Chart

A graphic tool used to plot tasks and show the duration of project tasks and displays overlapping tasks

(Program evaluation and review technique) PERT chart

A project management tool that diagrams a project's timelines and tasks as well as their interdependencies

Impact Analysis

A collective term used to refer to any study that determines the benefit of a proposed project

Justice

(Chapter 20)
The ethical principle of ____ recognizes the importance of treating people fairly and applying rules consistently.
Autonomy
Justice
Respect
Morality

Denial of employment based on religion

Discriminatory employment practices include which of the following?
Having preference policies in hiring
Calling a person's references
Denial of employment based on religion
Hiring a person who is pregnant

False
(Should be based on comparison of job content, rather than on job title.)

True or false: The Equal Pay Act requires that men and women in the same workplace receive equal pay for performing equivalent work based on job title.
a. True
b. False

False
(Title VII applies to employers with 15 or more employees.)

True or false: Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 applies to all employers and prohibits employment decisions based on an individual's race, color, religion, sex, or national origin.
a. True
b. False

Disparate treatment

Discrimination in employment based on intentional unequal treatment of an individual who is a member of a protected class is known as which of the following?
a. Disparate treatment
b. Protected treatment
c. Harassment
d. Hostile work environment

False

True or false: Sexual harassment in the workplace applies only to female workers; it can be committed by supervisors.
a. True
b. False

OSHA

What law requires employers to create a safe work environment and to ensure that employees receive safety training?
FLSA
NLRA
ERISA
OSHA

False
(Should be age 40 and older)

True or false: The federal Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967 prohibits age discrimination against job applicants or workers age 50 and older; this includes hiring, compensation, and other employment decisions based on age.
a. True
b. False

true

True or false: Consistent with the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990, reasonable accommodation for an employee with a vision impairment might include installation of additional workspace lighting and a larger computer monitor.
a. True
b. False

Nonexempt
(All groups of employees covered by the provisions of the Fair Labor Standards Act; clerical hourly-paid jobs are nonexempt. )

An HIM technician is paid an hourly rate and is eligible for overtime pay, consistent with the Fair Labor Standards Act. Her position would be classified as which of the following?
a. Exempt
b. Nonexempt
c. Full-time
d. Professional

Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA)

What law provides employees the opportunity to purchase health insurance for a given period of time after they have been laid off?
Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act
Age Discrimination in Employment Act
Employee Benefits Security Administratio

National Labor Relations Act

Which of the following federal laws prohibits employers from interfering with employees' rights to form labor unions and bargain collectively?
Equal Employment Opportunity Act
Americans with Disabilities Act
National Labor Relations Board
National Labor R

Contract negotiations between a union and an employer

Which of the following refers to collective bargaining?
Salary negotiations between managers and administration
Hearings to establish whether sexual harassment occurred in the workplace
Contract negotiations between a union and an employer
Employees worki

true

True or false: By law, supervisors are excluded from an employee union bargaining unit.
a. True
b. False

Recruitment

Human resources management activities focused on developing a pool of job applicants are part of which of the following?
a. Forecasting
b. Recruitment
c. Appraisal
d. Interviewing

Employee interview

Which of these would be a source of data for job analysis?
a. Job posting
b. Employee interview
c. Advertising
d. Professional journal

false

True or false: A disadvantage of internal recruiting of job candidates is that the process is more costly.
a. True
b. False

Specifications

Required education, experience, and skills needed to perform a job are provided in the position's job _________.
a. Description
b. Summary
c. Specifications
d. Interview

true

True or false: In order to be fair and legal, job candidate selection tests should meet standards for both validity and reliability.
a. True
b. False

false
(An employee's immediate supervisor is traditionally the primary evaluator (appraiser) of performance. The supervisor has authority over and is ultimately responsible for performance of a unit, and typically is in a good position to observe an indiv

True or false: Due to the supervisor's authority and ultimate responsibility for performance of a unit, he is the only appropriate reviewer of an individual employee's performance.
a. True
b. False

Graphic rating

An appraisal form using a numerical scale that lists traits with a range of performance for each is the ____ method.
a. Ranking
b. Graphic rating
c. Critical incident
d. Forced distribution

Progressive penalties

Which policy ensures that the minimum penalty appropriate to the level of employee offense is applied?
a. Employment at will
b. Discipline without punishment
c. Downsizing
d. Progressive penalties

Serial work division

If steps in a revenue cycle process are handled separately in sequence by individual workers, the method of organizing work is called which of the following?
a. Serial work division
b. Parallel work division
c. Processing
d. Benchmarking

true

True or false: One full-time equivalent (FTE) employee is typically expected to work 2,080 hours in a year.
a. True
b. False

true

True or false: Onboarding of new employees involves their socialization into the values and culture of an organization.
a. True
b. False

Nonmaleficence

(Chapter 21)
The legal term for "First do no harm" is which of the following?
a. Ethics
b. Beneficence
c. Nonmaleficence
d. Autonomy

False
( It is autonomy. Beneficence means promoting good for others or providing services that benefit others, such as releasing health information that will help a patient receive care.)

Beneficence is an ethical principle meaning a patient has the right to choose their course of treatment.
a. True
b. False

True
(for example, should life support be discontinued or continued, or who decides which patient will receive a single kidney. )

An ethical Dilemma occurs when one is faced with a choice between 2 or more situations.
a. True
b. False

Personal cultural competence

What is one assessing when addressing how one views language, communication style, belief systems, customs, attitudes, perception, and values?
a. Personal cultural competence
b. Ethics
c. Values
d. Egoism

true

A cultural audit is a strategy to define an organization's values, symbols, and routines and identify areas for improvement.
a. True
b.False

Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC)

What organization was established to help provide equality for minority groups, women, people with disabilities, and veterans?
a. Equal Opportunity For All (EOFA)
b. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC)
c. CLASS ACT
d. Equality Employment Organi

False
(1928)

Ethical Principles and values have been important to the HIM profession since 1942.
a. True
b.False

Receipt of Breach Notice

If a patient receives a _____________ from a healthcare organization it indicated that the patient's protected health information was involved in a data breach.
a. Notice of Breach
b. Release of Information
c. Protected Health Breach Notice
d. Receipt of

False
(healthcare facilities will receive the highest reimbursement dollar amount possible.)

Codes are associated with reimbursement rates and therefore, there are inherent incentives to code so the healthcare facilities will receive the lowest reimbursement dollar amount possible.
a. True
b. False

Medical identity theft

_____ is the fraudulent use of an individual's identifying information in a healthcare setting.
a. Abuse
b. Fraudulent theft
c. Medical identity theft
d. Healthcare identity thievery

True

HIM professionals are able to assist patients with the process of finding out what happened in case of medical identity theft and help guide the patient in fixing the errors in the record.
a. True
b. False

Ethics Committee

What is the committee of the organization tasked with reviewing ethics violations and determining the course of action required to remedy the violations.
a. Ethics Committee
b. Committee of Ethics Violations
c. Privacy and Security Committee
d. Committee

Contact the insurer and the provider who billed for the services to correct the information

If a patient notices an unknown item in the explanation of benefits they receive from an insurance company and they do not recognize the service being paid for, the patient should_____.
a. Not do anything
b. Contact the insurer and the provider who billed

true

Breach of healthcare ethics is the situation in which ethics are violated, whether it is intentional or accidental.
a. True
b.False

Retrospective documentation

Healthcare providers add documentation after care has been given

Need-to-know principle

The minimum necessary standard for ROI

unbundling

The practice of using multiple codes to bill for the various individual steps in a single procedure rather than using a single code that includes all of the steps

upcoding

The practice of assigning diagnostic or procedural codes that represent higher payment rates than the codes that reflect the documentation

Institutional Review Board

The committee that oversees the clinical research that is conducted for healthcare, and has the responsibility over the ethical application of research

Belmont Report

The report that provides the foundation for ethical research

Managed Care

Helps control the cost of healthcare by providing services at a fixed cost

Double billing

Two providers bill for one service provided to one patient

Beneficence
(occurs when a researcher determines what the maximum potential is for society, compared to the minimum risk of harm done to the participants in the research. An example would be a researcher looking at a trial for finding the cure for the com

A researcher determines what the maximum potential is for society compared to the minimum risk of harm done

Query the physician

When more information is needed, or the information needs to be clarified, in regards to coding

Autonomy

The right to determine what does or does not happen to him or her, this includes the informed consent process for human research subjects