Each muscle fiber is surrounded by a connective tissue called?
a. Fasiciculi.
b. Perimysium.
c. Endomysium.
d. Epimysium.
C
What is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum into the myofibril, causing tension development in a muscle?
a. Calcium ions that bind to troponin.
b. Calcium ions that bind to tropomyosin.
c. Sodium ions that bind to troponin.
d. Sodium ions that bind t
A
What type of muscular contraction occurs in the pectoralis major during the slow, controlled, downward phase of a bench press?
a. Concentric.
b. Isometric.
c. Myocentric.
d. Eccentric.
D
What is the thick structural protein inside the sarcomere?
a. Actin.
b. Myosin.
c. Sarcoplasm.
d. Sarcolemma.
B
A muscle fiber that is small in diameter has a slow contraction speed, and a high capillary density would be classified as?
a. Type I.
b. Type IIa.
c. Type IIb.
d. Type IIc.
A
Through which of the following valves does blood flow after contraction of the right atrium?
a. Aortic.
b. Pulmonary.
c. Mitral.
d. Tricupsid.
D
During a typical electrocardiogram, atrial depolarization is represented by?
a. P-wave.
b. QRS complex.
c. T-wave.
d. U-wave.
A
While reading an ECG, electrical potential that depolarizes the ventricles is represented by?
a. P-wave
b. QRS complex
c. T-wave
d. U-wave
B
What blood vessel functions to exchange oxygen, fluid, nutrients, electrolytes, hormones, and other substances between the blood and the interstitial fluid in the various tissues of the body?
a. Arteries.
b. Capillaries.
c. Veins.
d. Venules.
B
Where are normal rhythmic electrical impulses initiated in the heart?
a. Sinoatrial (SA) node.
b. Atrioventricular (AV) bundle.
c. Purkinje fibers.
d. Atrioventricular (AV) node.
A
When performing a biceps curl, tension in the biceps brachii muscle increases. Which of the following structures detects and responds to the tension by reflexively reducing muscle activation?
a. Golgi tendon organ.
b. Muscle spindle.
c. Pacinian corpuscle
A
An athlete training for a marathon would benefit from having a high concentration of which muscle fiber type?
a. Type I.
b. Type IIa.
c. Type IIb.
d. Type III.
A
A college football player decides to add 30 minutes of intense stationary cycling every other day to his current resistance training program. Which of the following best describes the effect the stationary cycling will have on his performance?
a. No effec
C
Which of the following represents the correct transmission of the heart's electrical impulse?
"a. AV node, AV bundle, SA node, Purkinje fibers.
b. SA node, AV node, AV bundle, Purkinje fibers.
c. SA node, Purkinje fiber, AV node, AV bundle.
d. AV node, AV
B
Which of the following represents a muscle of expiration?
a. Scalene.
b. External Intercostal.
c. Internal Intercostal.
d. Anterior Serratus.
C
Identify the correct path in which inhaled air is distributed to the lungs.
a. Trachea, Bronchi, Bronchioles, Alveoli.
b. Trachea, Alveoli, Bronchi, Bronchioles.
c. Trachea, Bronchioles, Bronchi, Alveoli.
d. Trachea, Alveoli, Bronchioles, Bronchi.
A
Heavy resistance exercise has what effect on cardiac output?
a. Increases rapidly.
b. Decreases.
c. No change.
d. Decreases rapidly.
C
What is the value of a metabolic equivalent (MET)
a. 2.5 ml of oxygen per kilogram of body weight per minute.
b. 3.5 ml of carbon dioxide per kilogram of body weight per minute.
c. 3.5 ml of oxygen per kilogram of body weight per minute.
d. 2.5 ml of carb
C
Which of the following structures of a sarcomere shrinks in the pectoralis major muscle during the concentric action of a bench press?
A. A-band.
B. M-line.
C. H-zone.
D. Z-line.
C
Which of the following identifies the layer of connective tissue enveloping a bundle of muscle fibers?
A. Endomysium.
B. Perimysium.
C. Epimysium.
D. Endomysium.
B
A junior hockey player is performing a standing dumbbell curl exercise. Which of the following muscles acts as an antagonist to the biceps brachii?
A. Triceps Brachii.
B. Brachialis.
C. Coracobrachialis.
D. Flexor Carpi Radialis.
A
The amount of force produced by a muscle at any given time is directly related to which of the following.
A. The number of myosin cross bridge heads that are attached to actin filaments.
B. The number of actin cross bridge heads that are attached to myosi
A
When a motor unit is stimulated, all of its innervated muscle fibers fully contract due to...
A. the size principle.
B. the principle of selective recruitment.
C. the all-or-none law.
D. muscle tetanus.
C
A high myoglobin content is a characteristic of which muscle fiber type?
A. Type I.
B. Type IIa.
C. Type IIx.
D. Type III.
A
Having a high concentration of Type II muscle fibers would be most beneficial to an athlete participating in which of the following sports?
A. Marathon.
B. Cross Country Skiing.
C. Distance Cycling.
D. Tennis.
D
A volleyball player would like to increase her vertical jump, how can this athlete improve her force production?
A. Recruit small muscles or muscle groups during an activity.
B. Increase the cross sectional area of muscles uninvolved in the activity.
C. P
C
When punting a football, the punter's leg is stretched just prior to making contact with the football. Which of the following structures detects and responds to that stretch by reflexively increasing muscle activity?
A. Golgi tendon organ.
B. Muscle spind
B
Through which valve does blood flow after contraction of the left ventricle?
A. Aortic.
B. Pulmonary.
C. Mitral.
D. Tricuspid.
A
Which component of the electrical conduction system of the heart has the greatest discharge rate?
A. SA Node.
B. AV Node.
C. AV Bundle.
D. Purkinje Fibers.
A
Which of the following occurs during the T wave of a typical ECG?
A. Atrial depolarization.
B. Atrial repolarization.
C. Ventricular depolarization.
D. Ventricular repolarization.
D
Which of the following muscles help expand the lungs by elevating the rib cage?
A. Internal intercostals.
B. External intercostals.
C. Internal obliques.
D. External obliques.
B
During a session of intense aerobic exercise, what percentage of total body energy is required for pulmonary ventilation?
A. 5%.
B. 10%.
C. 20%.
D. 30%.
B
The skull, vertebral column, ribs, and sternum are referred to as the?
a. Axial Skeleton.
b. Appendicular Skeleton.
c. Central Skeleton.
d. Peripheral Skeleton.
A
The structures of the skull are an example of what type of joint?
a. Cartilaginous.
b. Synovial.
c. Orthotic.
d. Fibrous.
D
When passing a basketball which muscles act as the agonist and antagonist?
a. Agonist: Biceps. Antagonist: Triceps.
b. Agonist: Triceps. Antagonist: Infraspinatus.
c. Agonist: Triceps. Antagonist: Biceps.
d. Agonist: Infraspinatus. Antagonist: Triceps.
C
A lever in which the muscle force and resistive force act on opposite sides of the fulcrum is referred to as?
a. First class.
b. Second class.
c. Third class.
d. Fourth class.
A
A volleyball player is performing standing plantar flexion against resistance. Which of the following types of levers occurs at the ball of the foot during this exercise?
a. First class.
b. Second class.
c. Third class.
d. Fourth class.
B
Punting a football requires flexion of the hip that occurs in which plane of action?
a. Sagittal.
b. Frontal.
c. Biaxial.
d. Transverse.
A
Which of the following shoulder movements and planes of action are associated with a tennis backhand?
a. Adduction/frontal.
b. Abduction/frontal.
c. Adduction/transverse .
d. Abduction/transverse.
D
During freestyle swimming, which of the following muscles acts as a synergist to the deltoid with regards to upper arm movement?
a. Infraspinatus.
b. Brachioradialis.
c. Gracilis.
d. Sartorius.
A
Which of the following represents the equation for Power?
a. Force x Distance.
b. Work / Distance.
c. Force x Time.
d. Work / Time.
D
How much work is required to lift a 100 kg barbell 2 m for 5 repetitions?
a. 9,800 J.
b. 1,000 J.
c. 1,000 W.
d. 9,800 W.
A
Which type of muscle arrangement is NOT matched with the correct muscle example?
a. Rectus femoris: Bipennate.
b. Biceps Brachii: Longitudinal.
c. Deltoid: Multipennate.
d. Gluteus Medius: Radiate.
B
All of the following are advantages of weight stack machines EXCEPT?
a. Safety
b. Design flexibility
c. Ease of use
d. Simulation of real life activities
D
An athlete is utilizing a cycle ergometer and in order to increase the intensity she turns the knob which controls the brake pad, this type of resistance is referred to as?
a. Friction
b. Fluid Resistance
c. Elasticity
d. Inertia
A
The normal lumbar spine has what kind of curvature?
a. Kyphotic.
b. Scoliotic.
c. Ventral.
d. Lordotic.
D
Of the following back postures during lifting, which has been found to be the best at avoiding injury?
a. Rounded.
b. Scoliotic.
c. Kyphotic.
d. Slightly Arched.
D
How many thoracic vertebrae are in the human body?
A. 5
B. 7
C. 10
D. 12
D
How does the patella increase the mechanical advantage of the quadriceps muscle group?
A. It increases the area in which the quadriceps tendon exerts force.
B. It maintains the moment arm through which the quadriceps tendon exerts force.
C. It increases t
B
As the moment arm of the applied force lengthens, which of the following describes the resultant effect on mechanical advantage?
A. It increases.
B. It decreases.
C. There is no change.
D. There is not enough information.
A
Which of the following exercises involves a first-class lever?
A. standing calf (heel) raise.
B. dumbbell biceps curl.
C. Lying Triceps extension.
D. Lying hamstring curl.
C
Which of the following lever classes has the fulcrum at one end and the effort is applied between the fulcrum and the load?
A. Class I lever.
B. Class II lever.
C. Class III lever.
D. Class IV lever.
C
An athlete with tendon insertions farther from the joint, would have an advantage during which of the following activities?
A. Tennis.
B. Sprinting.
C. Powerlifting.
D. Swimming.
C
Which of the following activities occurs primarily in the transverse plane?
A. shooting a basketball.
B. setting a volleyball.
C. punting a football.
D. swinging a bat.
D
Which of the following represents the equation for work?
A. Force X Distance.
B. Force / Time.
C. Force X Time.
D. Distance / Time.
A
When comparing the power produced by two athletes performing the back squat, the strength and conditioning professional should use which of the following formulae to calculate power?
A. fore X distance.
B. Sets X rep X weight lifted.
C. Work / time.
D. ac
C
Using the International System of Units and dividing Joules (J) by Seconds (s), will give us what unit of measurement?
A. Newtons.
B. Meters.
C. Force.
D. Watts.
D
How much work is required to lift a 75 kg barbell, 1.75 m for 6 repetitions?
A. 82.75 J.
B. 787.5 J.
C. 4,410 J.
D. 7,717.5 J.
D
It took an American football lineman 14 seconds to complete 10 repetitions of a 102 kg bench press. If the bar had to travel 1.47 meters each repetition, what was the average power output during this set?
A. 107.1 W.
B. 1,049.58 W.
C. 14,694.12 W.
D. 20,9
B
Maximal force output of a muscle is generally greater when all of the following occur EXCEPT?
A. More motor units are involved.
B. The motor units are greater in size.
C. The motor units are firing faster.
D. The motor units contain Type I fibers.
D
How would the muscle fiber arrangements of the rectus abdominal muscle be classified?
A. Longitudinal.
B. Fusiform.
C. Bipennate.
D. Unipennate.
A
A muscle has the greatest capability to generate force when it is at which of the following states of length?
A. Stretched.
B. Shortened.
C. Contracted.
D. Resting.
D
When a male gymnast performs a push-up exercise, which of the following muscle actions occurs at the erector spinae muscle group?
A. Concentric .
B. Eccentric.
C. Isometric.
D. Myocentric.
C
An athlete could benefit from the use of a weight belt during the performance of which of the following sets?
A. 10 Reps of the Bench Press with 75% of the 1 RM.
B. 4 Reps of the Bench Press with 90% of the 1 RM.
C. 10 Reps of the Standing Shoulder Press
D
All of the following muscles are part of the rotator cuff EXCEPT?
A. Supraspinatus.
B. Infraspinatis.
C. Teres Major.
D. Teres Minor.
C
Flexion and extension of the knee occurs primarily in what anatomical plane?
A. Sagittal
B. Frontal
C. Transverse
D. Coronal
A
A female tennis player is beginning a resistance training program and can incorporate all of the following to reduce the risk of injury EXCEPT?
A. Performing several variations of an exercise.
B. Performing one warm-up set with light weight.
C. Performing
C
Which of the following exercises would closely mimic the resistance encountered while swimming the breast stroke?
A. Triceps Pushdown.
B. Seated Shoulder Press.
C. Lat Pulldown.
D. Biceps Curl.
C
The phosphagen energy system would primarily supply ATP for which of the following activities?
a. 100-m dash.
b. 400-m dash.
c. 1600 meters.
d. Marathon.
A
Which of the following pathways/systems has the highest capacity for energy production?
a. Phosphagen.
b. Slow glycolysis.
c. Oxidation of carbohydrates.
d. Oxidation of fats and proteins.
D
A male athlete fatigues during the running of a marathon and must pull out of the race. Which is the most probable factor that limited his performance in the race?
a. Depleted creatine phosphate.
b. Depleted muscle glycogen.
c. Depleted fat stores.
d. Low
B
Which of the following is the primary energy system at work when the body is at rest?
a. Phosphagen.
b. Slow glycolysis.
c. Fast glycolysis.
d. Oxidative.
D
ATP used during the 400-m dash would be primarily supplied from what energy system?
a. Phosphagen.
b. Slow glycolysis.
c. Fast glycolysis.
d. Oxidative.
C
Which of the following has the greatest influence on the energy system used for a given exercise?
a. Intensity.
b. Duration.
c. Mode.
d. Frequency.
A
Which energy system results in the formation of the organic end product lactic acid?
a. Phophagen.
b. Slow glycolysis.
c. Fast glycolysis.
d. Oxidative.
C
A female weightlifter is only able to complete 8 repetitions of a 10 RM set of power cleans. Which of the following factors is the least likely to have contributed to her missed repetitions?
a. ATP and Creatine Phosphate.
b. Muscle Glycogen.
c. Lower pH.
D
You decide to use interval training to stress the phosphagen energy system, which of the following would be an appropriate work to rest period ratio?
a. 1:15.
b. 1:10.
c. 1:5.
d. 1:3.
A
Aerobic training added to the training of anaerobic athletes (Combination Training) can lead to all of the following EXCEPT?
a. Reduced anaerobic energy production.
b. Reduced gain in muscle girth.
c. Increased speed.
d. Reduced power.
C
Which of the following nutrients can be metabolized without the presence of oxygen?
A. Carbohydrates.
B. Proteins.
C. Fats.
D. Lipids.
A
You are about to conduct a training session for a college 800m runner. During this session the dominant energy system used will depend primarily on which of the following?
A. Session intensity and athlete's age.
B. Session duration and athlete's age.
C. S
C
The Creatine Kinase reaction provides energy by catalyzing the synthesis of ATP from which of the following?
A. Adenosine Diphosphate and Creatine Phosphate.
B. Adenosine Diphosphate and Glucose.
C. Creatine Phosphate and Glucose.
D. Adenosine Monophospha
A
A 22 year old field hockey player is running intervals in preparation for her upcoming season, which of the following DOES NOT affect her blood lactate concentration?
A. The duration of her exercise session.
B. Her state of training.
C. Her initial glycog
D
After an intense exercise session involving resistance training one method lactate can be cleared from the blood involves transport to which of the following?
A. Pancreas where it is converted to glucose.
B. Liver where it is converted to glucose.
C. Panc
B
Lactate will NOT be produced if which of the following is present in sufficient quantities?
A. Oxygen.
B. Glucose.
C. Glycogen.
D. Sodium.
A
What would be the primary energy system used for a male athlete running the 400m hurdles in the Olympics?
A. Phosphagen.
B. Phophagen and Fast Glycolysis.
C. Fast Glycolysis.
D. Oxidative.
C
Performance in which of the following events has been shown to be MOST enhanced by creatine supplementation?
A. Marathon.
B.100-m sprint.
C. 5-km race.
D.10-km race.
B
Which of the following energy sources when depleted would have the greatest impact on the performance of a male shot putter?
A. ATP and Creatine Phosphate.
B. Muscle Glycogen.
C. Liver Glycogen.
D. Fat Stores.
A
A college soccer player is taking part in an interval training session using 1:1 work to rest ratios at 25% maximal power. She runs for 4 minutes then rests for 4 minutes. This type of training primarily stresses what system?
A. Phosphagen.
B. Fast Glycol
D
The degradation of one blood glucose molecule via the oxidative energy system produces approximately how many ATP?
A. 35.
B. 38.
C. 41.
D. 42.
B
All of the following are physiological roles of growth hormone EXCEPT
A. Increase glycogen synthesis.
B. Increase protein synthesis.
C. Increase lipolysis.
D. Increase collagen synthesis.
A
Which of the following exercises would promote the highest increase in serum testosterone concentrations?
A. 1 set of deadlifts at 60% of one-repetition maximum.
B. 3 sets of deadlifts at 90% of one-repetition maximum.
C. 1 set of barbell curls at 60% of
B
Growth hormone stimulates what organ to secrete Insulin-Like Growth Factors?
A. Pituitary gland
B. Adrenal gland
C. Liver
D. Pancreas
C
Which of the following variables would promote the greatest increased serum testosterone levels?
A. Small muscle exercises (bicep curls, calf raises).
B. Light resistance (50-60% of 1 RM).
C. One set of each exercise.
D. Short rest intervals (30 sec to 1
D
Growth hormone is secreted by which of the following?
A. Testes.
B. Anterior Pituitary.
C. Liver.
D. Posterior Pituitary.
B
Which of the following locations produce testosterone in women?
A. Testes and Ovaries.
B. Anterior Pituitary and Adrenal Gland.
C. Ovaries and Adrenal Gland.
D. Anterior Pituitary and Ovaries.
C
All of the following are important signal mechanisms for IGF release EXCEPT?
A. Growth Hormone.
B. Testosterone.
C. Nutritional Status.
D. Insulin Levels.
B
Catecholamines act as all of the following EXCEPT?
A. Central motor stimulators.
B. Peripheral vascular dilators.
C. Enhanced enzyme systems.
D. Vasoconstrictors.
D
For women still having a menstrual cycle, which of the following hormones is higher than men at rest?
A. Cortisol.
B. Insulin.
C. Growth Hormone.
D. Testosterone.
C
Which of the following hormones is secreted by the anterior pituitary gland?
A. Testosterone.
B. Epinephrine.
C. Calcitonin.
D. Luteinizing Hormone.
D
Which of the following represents a physiological action of epinephrine?
A. Decreased Blood Sugar.
B. Increases Cardiac Output.
C. Stimulates Analgesia.
D. Increases body fluids.
B
Which of the following is the aim of using chains when performing the back barbell squat?
A. Reduce resistance at the bottom of the squatting motion and reduce resistance as the athlete ascends from the bottom position.
B. Increase resistance at the botto
C
A professional baseball player would like to train a 6RM load in the bench press with the addition of chains. Presently the athlete's 6 RM is 200 lbs. How much weight should be placed on the barbell if the athlete applies a 24.4 lb. chain?
A. 175 lbs.
B.
C
Which of the following is the equation for the tension generated by a resistance band?
A. Stiffness (k) X Deformation (d)
B. Stiffness (k) / Deformation (d)
C. Deformation (d) / Stiffness (k)
D. Force (N) X Time (s)
A
When applying resistance bands to the barbell bench press, where is the highest resistance encountered?
A. At the bottom of the pressing movement.
B. Slightly before the mid-range of the pressing movement.
C. Slightly after the mid-range of the pressing m
D
You have decided to use tire flips as part of the offseason conditioning program for a college football offensive lineman. Which of the following are suggested guidelines for tire selection and exercise setup?
I. The tire should not be shorter than the at
C
When initiating the tire flip, placing the feet too close to the tire often results in which of the following?
A. An arched back.
B. A rounded back.
C. Knees too far from the athletes chest.
D. Inability to place the chin on the tire.
B
Which of the following relates to kettlebell training as a strength and conditioning tool?
I. Kettlebell swings are superior to traditional weightlifting in terms of increasing vertical jump height.
II. Kettlebell training increases muscular strength comp
D
You are instructing a female volleyball player on the Two Arm Kettlebell swing. At what level should she forcefully swing the kettlebell to?
A. Umbilicus.
B. Nipple.
C. Eye.
D. Full arm extension above the cranium.
C
Unilateral training methods may be beneficial for which of the following individuals?
I. Trained.
II. Strong.
III. Weak.
IV. Injured.
V. Untrained.
A. I, II, IV only.
B. III, IV, V only.
C. I,II only.
D. III, V only.
B
Bilateral facilitation during the performance of a front barbell squat leads to which of the
following?
A. Increased voluntary activation of the agonist muscle group.
B. Decreased voluntary activation of the agonist muscle group.
C. Asymmetries in force p
A
In order to increase absolute leg strength, which of the following training methods should a professional football defensive back with a 1 RM of 450 lbs. in the back squat utilize?
I. Back Squat.
II. Lunges.
III. Single-Leg Squat.
IV. Step-Ups.
A. I only.
A
When an athlete executes the front plank the internal obliques perform what type of muscle action?
A. Concentric.
B. Eccentric.
C. Isometric.
D. Isokinetic.
C
Which of the following identifies the starting position for the front plank?
A. Prone, Biped.
B. Supine, Biped.
C. Prone, Quadruped.
D. Supine, Quadruped.
C
When observing the ending position of a stability ball rollout, the strength and conditioning professional would need to correct which of the following?
A. Knee and toes on the floor.
B. Arms parallel to each other.
C. Top of ball very close to the face.
D
The upward movement phase of the tire flip is initiated by which of the following motions?
A. Hip extension, knee extension, triceps extension.
B. Hip extension, knee extension, ankle plantarflexion.
C. Hip extension, knee extension, biceps flexion.
D. Hi
B
When performing the tire flip, an athlete strikes the tire with his leg when the tire is halfway vertical, at this point the strength and conditioning professional would instruct the athlete to take which of the following grips on the tire?
A. Supinated.
B
During the catch phase of the log clean and press, where is the athlete instructed to rack the log?
A. Overhead in full elbow extension.
B. Overhead in slight elbow flexion.
C. Across the clavicles and anterior deltoids.
D. Across the mid-biceps brachii.
C
Which of the following is a technique error during the first pull of the log clean and press?
A. Hip and Knee extension.
B. Elbow extension.
C. Shoulders over the log.
D. Hips rise before the shoulders.
D
Correctly applying resistance bands to the back barbell squat achieves which of the following?
A. Tension at bottom of the squat.
B. No Tension at the bottom of the squat.
C. No Tension at the top of the squat.
D. Greatest Tension during the mid-range of
B
What is the initial motion during the backward movement phase of the two arm kettlebell swing?
A. Hip Flexion.
B. Knee extension.
C. Shoulder Flexion.
D. Ankle plantar flexion.
A
A female volleyball player is performing the single leg squat with her left leg on the floor and the foot of her right leg atop a bench. During the downward movement phase which of the following occurs?
A. Left gluteus maximus acts concentrically.
B. Left
B
You have decided to include tire flips as part of the offseason conditioning program for the offensive lineman on the college football team. All of the following are true with regards to tire selection and exercise setup EXCEPT?
a) The tire should not be
A
An evaluation of the requirements and characteristics of the sport and an athlete assessment is known as?
a) Exercise selection.
b) Strength assessment.
c) Needs analysis.
d) Conditioning analysis.
C
A core exercise that emphasizes loading of the spine directly or indirectly is known as?
a) Assistance exercise.
b) Structural exercise.
c) Sport Specific exercise.
d) Functional exercise.
B
The barbell biceps curl would be classified as what type of exercise?
a) Assistance exercise.
b) Core exercise.
c) Sport Specific exercise.
d) Multi-joint exercise.
A
Which of the following exercises would be related to ball dribbling and passing for a female college basketball player?
a) Bent-over lateral raise.
b) Close-grip bench press.
c) Pullover.
d) Dumbbell fly.
B
Which of the following refers to the number of training sessions completed in a given time period?
a) Training volume.
b) Training load.
c) Training intensity.
d) Training frequency.
D
A junior high soccer player is just beginning a resistance training program, based on his beginner training status, what is the recommended number of resistance training sessions per week he should train?
a) 1-2.
b) 2-3.
c) 4-5 .
d) 5-7.
B
A collegiate softball player trains her back and biceps one day and her chest and triceps the next day. What type of training program is she utilizing?
a) Split routine.
b) Power routine.
c) Circuit training.
d) Cross training.
A
A college football offensive lineman has entered the offseason, and will resume his resistance training program after a period of active rest. What is the recommended frequency of resistance training sessions per week during the offseason?
a) 1-2.
b) 1-3
D
You are instructing an athlete on exercise order during her training session, which of the following would represent the proper sequence of exercises?
a) Squat, Power clean, Leg extension.
b) Leg extension, Squat, Power Clean.
c) Power clean, Squat, Leg e
C
All of the following are examples of a push and pull arrangement EXCEPT?
a) Bench press, Lat pulldown.
b) Shoulder press, Bent over row.
c) Triceps extension, Bench press.
d) Triceps extension, Biceps curl.
C
An athlete performs 10 repetitions of a standing barbell curl, then immediately switches to dumbbells and performs 10 repetitions of hammer curl exercises. This represents what type of set?
a) Compound.
b) Super .
c) Drop.
d) Circuit.
A
What percentage of the 1RM allows an athlete to perform 6 repetitions of a given exercise?
a) 70.
b) 75.
c) 85.
d) 95.
C
A high school wrestler is looking to increase his overall strength. What percentage of his 1 RM should he be working with?
a) 65.
b) 75.
c) 80.
d) 90.
D
You observe an athlete performing 10 repetitions of an exercise, based on the number of repetitions performed this athlete is most likely trying to increase?
a) Muscle hypertrophy.
b) Muscle strength.
c) Muscle endurance.
d) Muscle power.
A
A defensive lineman is training to increase his strength. Which of the following rest period lengths would maximize his goal?
a) 30-60 seconds.
b) 60-90seconds.
c) 2-5 minutes.
d) 5-10 minutes.
C
A male cross country runner is working on improving his upper body muscular endurance, which of the following number of sets of a given exercise would help maximize his goal?
a) 1.
b) 3.
c) 5 .
d) 6.
B
The minimum landing surface dimensions for a plyometric box is
a) 18 x 24 inches.
b) 16 x 18 inches .
c) 24 x 32 inches.
d) 10 x 12 inches.
A
To assess an athlete's preparedness to participate in an advanced plyometric training program the athlete must maintain the single leg half squat for how many seconds?
a) 20 seconds.
b) 5 seconds.
c) 30 seconds.
d) 60 seconds.
C
Athletes weighing over 220 lbs should not perform depth jumps from heights greater than
a) 10 inches.
b) 6 inches.
c) 42 inches.
d) 18 inches.
D
Which of the following upper body plyometric drills is generally considered the most intense?
a) Power Drop.
b) Depth Push-Up.
c) Two Hand Side to Side Throw.
d) Single Arm Throw.
A
You are instructing a volleyball player on the proper execution of the jump and reach drill. During this lower body plyometric drill, arm action would be described as?
a) Single.
b) Double.
c) Reciprocal.
d) None.
B
Which of the following is the suggested volume for a basketball player beginning a lower body plyometric training program?
a) 40-60 throws per session.
b) 40-60 contacts per session.
c) 80-100 contacts per session.
d) 100-120 contacts per session.
C
The force used to return the ball to the partner during the 45 degree sit-up should come primarily from the
a) Triceps.
b) Abdominals.
c) Iliopsoas.
d) Pectoralis Major.
B
The reflexive component of plyometric exercise is primarily initiated by?
a) Golgi Tendon Organ.
b) Muscle Spindle.
c) Extrafusal Muscle Fiber.
d) Pacinian Corpuscle.
B
All of the following are components of the stretch-shortening cycle EXCEPT
a) Concentric.
b) Eccentric.
c) Isometric.
d) Amoritization.
C
You are setting up a series of plyometric drills for the women's basketball team, which of the following surfaces is best suited for this type of training?
a) Concrete.
b) Tile.
c) Astro Turf.
d) Suspended Wood Floor.
D
You would like to increase the intensity of plyometric drills for a volleyball player, changing all of the following would result in an increase in intensity EXCEPT?
a) Using a single leg.
b) Adding a weight vest to the athlete.
c) Decreasing jump height.
C
Running speed is the interaction between?
a) Acceleration and stride length.
b) Acceleration and velocity.
c) Stride length and stride frequency.
d) Velocity and stride length.
C
What stage of sprinting consists of eccentric hip flexion, concentric knee extension and concentric plantar flexion?
a) Early flight.
b) Mid flight.
c) Early support.
d) Late support.
D
In order to achieve high stride frequency and optimal stride length an athlete should do all of the following EXCEPT?
a) Maximize the backward velocity of the lower leg and foot at ground contact.
b) Maximize the vertical impulse and horizontal braking fo
B
A high school running back approaches you and asks how he can improve his maximum velocity sprinting. Which of the following has the greatest impact on maximum velocity sprinting?
a) Maximum Velocity Sprinting.
b) Assisted sprinting.
c) Resisted sprinting
A
Which of the following has the greatest impact on a wide receiver's maximum velocity during the 40 yard dash?
a) Reaction time.
b) Leg length.
c) Stride length.
d) Stride frequency.
D
During the early support phase of the sprint cycle which movement helps absorb shock and control forward rotation of the tibia over the ankle?
a) Eccentric plantar flexion.
b) Concentric plantar flexion.
c) Eccentric dorsiflexion.
d) Concentric dorsiflexi
A
In addition to change of direction ability, agility requires which of the following?
A) The ability to change velocity.
B) The ability to change mode of travel.
C) The ability to decelerate.
D) The use of perceptual cognitive ability
D
The relationship between force and time refers to which of the following
A. Velocity.
B. Impulse.
C. Acceleration.
D. Momentum.
B
Which of the following defines momentum?
A. The relationship between the mass of an object and the velocity of movement.
B. The relationship between force and time.
C. How fast an object is moving and what direction.
D. Push or a pull exerted on one objec
A
Cardiovascular adaptations to endurance training include all of the following EXCEPT?
a) Increased cardiac output.
b) Increased blood volume and red blood cell count.
c) Increased submaximal hear rate.
d) Enhanced blood flow to skeletal muscle.
C
Respiratory adaptations to endurance training include which of the following?
a) Decreased oxygen exchange in the lungs.
b) Increased submaximal pulmonary ventilation.
c) Decreased submaximal respiratory rate.
d) Reduced blood flow throughout the lungs.
C
Musculoskeletal adaptations to endurance training include all of the following EXCEPT?
a) Increased arteriovenous oxygen difference.
b) Increased mitochondrial size.
c) Decreased mitochondrial density.
d) Increased cappilarization in the muscle bed.
C
For cyclists, which of the following would result in a decrease in exercise economy?
a) Increased cycling velocity.
b) Decrease in body mass.
c) Improved aerodynamic positioning.
d) Decreased weight of the bike frame.
A
You instruct a cross country runner to perform 4 training sessions per week; this represented what aerobic endurance training variable?
a) Mode.
b) Frequency.
c) Duration .
d) Intensity.
B
When deciding to use heart rate as a method of prescribing exercise intensity, you must keep in mind that age contributes what percentage to the variability of heart rate?
a) 25%.
b) 50%.
c) 75%.
d) 100%.
C
What is the age-predicted maximum heart rate of a 50 year old male who is 6 foot tall and weighs 180 lbs with a resting heart rate of 70 beats per min?
a) 100.
b) 110.
c) 170.
d) 180.
C
Using the Karvonen method, what is the target heart rate of a 65 year old male who will be working out at 50-60% of his functional capacity? He is 6 foot tall and weighs 175 lbs with a resting heart rate of 80 beats per min.
a) 88-95
b) 100-110
c) 118-125
C
All of the following aerobic endurance training methods have the correct associated exercise intensity EXCEPT?
a) Long, slow distance ~70% of VO2 max.
b) Pace/Temp- at the lactate threshold, at or slightly above race pace.
c) High Intensity Intervals - gr
D
What represents a mode of training that can be used to maintain general conditioning in athletes during periods of reduced training due to injury or during recovery from a training cycle?
a) Tapering.
b) Cross Training.
c) Detraining.
d) ResistanceTrainin
B
A high school wrestler injured his right shoulder and stopped his training regimen over the last 3 weeks, what has occurred?
a) Tapering.
b) Cross Training.
c) Detraining.
d) ResistanceTraining.
C
Improving weaknesses and maintaining strengths of the athlete typically occur during which sport season?
a) Post-Season.
b) Off-Season .
c) Pre-Season .
d) In-Season.
D
An athlete is performing exercises with 50-75% of her 1RM for 3-6 sets of 10-20 repetitions. She is at a time of year when she has no competitions, what phase of her preparatory period is she likely in?
a) Hypertrophy/Endurance Phase.
b) Basic Strength Ph
A
A sprinter is spending the next 3 weeks after his competitive season to rest physically and mentally by performing swimming and light resistance training, what period of his training is he likely in?
a) Preparatory period.
b) First transition period.
c) C
D
During which stage of the General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS) does the body lose its ability to adapt to the stressor?
a) Alarm.
b) Resistance.
c) Exhaustion.
d) Extinction.
C
For a high school soccer player, which of the following best describes the relationship between resistance exercise intensity and volume at the end of the preparatory period?
a) High intensity, High volume.
b) High intensity, Low volume.
c) Low intensity,
B
Which of the following best describes appropriate activity during the competition period for a college football wide receiver?
a) Low intensity recreational exercise.
b) High volume, low intensity resistance training.
c) Sprinting specific plyometric dril
C
Which of the following is considered an open kinetic chain exercise?
a) Leg extension.
b) Squat.
c) Lunge.
d) Push-up.
A
Which of the following types of activity would not be recommended during the inflammatory phase of an ankle sprain?
a) Hip flexor stretching.
b) Ice applied to the ankle.
c) Depth jumps.
d) Upper extremity ergometry.
C
A soccer player sprained his left MCL 6 days ago, what stage of the tissue healing is he most likely in?
a) Inflammation Phase.
b) Repair Phase.
c) Regeneration Phase.
d) RemodelingPhase.
B
A softball player is rehabilitating her shoulder and utilizing the De Lorme resistance training program. She is ready for her third and final set of the standing dumbbell lateral raise exercise. Which of the following repetition and load schemes should sh
A
During the remodeling phase of biceps tendinitis rehabilitation, what exercise repetition range is most appropriate for improving endurance of the biceps muscle?
a) 3-5.
b) 6-8.
c) 8-12.
d) 12-20.
D
Which does not occur during the inflammation phase of tissue healing?
a) Pain.
b) Swelling.
c) Increased collagen synthesis.
d) Increased number of inflammatory cells.
C
Collagen fiber production, decreased collagen fiber organization, and decreased number of inflammatory cells describe events that occur during what phase of tissue healing?
a) Inflammation.
b) Repair.
c) Remodeling.
d) Regenerating.
B
A female cross country runner is rehabbing her left knee and is now in the remodeling phase of tissue healing. Which of the following is not a goal or strategy during this stage of her rehabilitation?
a) Optimization of her tissue function.
b) Sport speci
D
Which of the following would NOT be considered an open kinetic chain exercise?
a) Leg extension.
b) Bench press.
c) Front Squat.
d) Hip Abduction.
C
Which of the following would represent a recommended temperature range for the strength and conditioning facility?
a) 64-68�.
b) 72-78�.
c) 78-82� .
d) 78-84�.
B
You have been approached by administration to begin planning for a new strength and conditioning facility on the college campus and begin conducting a feasibility study, this would occur during which phase of new facility design?
a) Predesign.
b) Design.
A
Even though only one athlete at a time performs an exercise in the Olympic lifting area, the space should accommodate at least?
a) 1-2 people.
b) 2-3 people.
c) 3-4 people.
d) 4-5 people.
C
What is recommended minimum distance between the floor and the bottom of the mirrors on the walls in the strength and conditioning facility?
a) 16 inches.
b) 18 inches.
c) 20 inches.
d) 22 inches.
C
Benches should be spaced so that there is a minimum of how many inches between barbell ends?
a) 18 inches.
b) 24 inches.
c) 30 inches.
d) 36 inches.
D
Which of the following will provide free and unobstructed access to the strength and conditioning facility?
A. Hallways with a width of 50 inches.
B. Doorways with a width of 36 inches.
C. Maintaining a 30 inch pathway inside the facility at all times.
D.
B
When designing strength and conditioning facility, how many square feet should be dedicated to a rack where athletes will be performing squats and standing shoulder presses with a 7 foot Olympic bar?
A. 49 square feet.
B. 70 square feet.
C. 130 square fee
C
Which of the following environmental conditions would be appropriate inside the strength and conditioning facility?
I. Temperature: 74� F
II. Humidity: 68%
III. Air Exchange: 8-12 times per hour
IV. Sound Level: 80 dB
A. I and II only.
B. I, III, IV only.
B
When scheduling training sessions in the strength and conditioning facility, priority is given to which teams?
a) Those that are in-season.
b) Those that are in the off-season.
c) Men's teams.
d) Women's teams.
A
You are scheduling a high school football team's use of the strength and conditioning facility, the staff to athlete ratio should be?
a) 1:10.
b) 1:12.
c) 1:15.
d) 1:20.
C
The main goal of a strength and conditioning program is to
a) Improve strength and power.
b) Improve quickness and agility.
c) Improve flexibility.
d) Improve athletic performance.
D
All of the following should be required of the Strength and Conditioning Director EXCEPT?
a) CSCS designation.
b) Personal workouts.
c) Budget Preparation.
d) Staff supervision.
B
For the second time this week a member of the football team was observed squatting outside the rack. He was reminded of the facility rules and guidelines during the last incident. What is the strength and conditioning director's most appropriate action at
C
All of the following would be responsibilities of the Facility Supervisor EXCEPT
a) Assist in testing of athletes.
b) Enforce facility policies and rules.
c) Develop the annual budget.
d) Maintain and clean the facility.
C
An 18 year old college running back scrapes his shin while performing deadlifts and begins to bleed. Which of the following is the IMMEDIATE responsibility of the facility supervisor?
A. Call 911.
B. Contact the Strength and Conditioning Director.
C. Wash
D
Which of the following substance regulates muscle actions?
a. potassium.
b. calcium.
c. troponin.
d. tropomyosin.
B
Which of the follwing substance acts at the neuromuscular junction to excite the muscle fibers of a motor unit?
a. acetylcholine.
b. ATP.
c. creatine phosphate.
d. serotonin.
A
When throwing a baseball, an athlete's arm is rapidly stretched just before throwing the ball. Which of the following structures detects and responds to that stretch by reflexively increasing muscle activity?
a. golgi tendon organ.
b. muscle spindle.
c. e
B
From which of the following is the heart's electrical impulse normally initiated?
a. AV node.
b. SA node.
c. the brain.
d. the sympathetic nervous system.
B
Which of the following occurs during QRS complex of a typical ECG?
I. depolarization of the atrium.
II. repolarization of the atrium.
III. repolarization of the ventricle.
IV. depolarization of the ventricle.
a. I and II only
b. II and IV only
c. I, II, a
B
Which of the following is the definition of power?
a. mass x acceleration.
b. force x distance.
c. force x velocity.
d. torque x time.
C
To compare performance of Olympic weightlifters of different body weights, the classic formula divides the load lifted by the athlete's
a. body weight.
b. body weight squared.
c. lean body weight.
d. body weight to the two-thrids power.
D
During a free weight exercise, muscle force varies with which of the following?
I. perpendicular distance from the weight to the body joint.
II. joint angle.
III. movement acceleration.
IV. movement velocity squared.
a. I and III only.
b. II and IV only.
A
A vertical jump involves knee, hip, and shoulder movement primarily in which of of the following anatomical planes?
a. sagital.
b. perpendicular.
c. frontal.
d. transverse.
A
An athlete is performing a concentric isokinetic elbow flexion and extension exercise. Which of the following type(s) of levers occur(s) at the elbow during this exercise?
I. first class.
II. second class.
III. third class.
a. I only.
b. II only.
c. I and
C
Which of the following substances can be metabolized anaerobically?
a. glycerol.
b. glucose.
c. amino acids.
d. free fatty acids.
B
Which of the following reactions is the primary cause of metabolic acidosis (i.e., the decrease in intramuscular pH during high-intensity, fatiguing exercise)?
a. ATP -> ADP + Pi + H+.
b. pyruvate + NADH -> lactate + NAD+.
c. ADP + creatine phoshate -> AT
A
Which of the following energy systems produces ATP at the quickest rate?
a. phosphagen.
b. aerobic glycolysis.
c. fat oxidation.
d. fast glycolysis.
A
Approximately how many net ATP are produced via the oxidative energy system from the metabolism of one glucose molecule?
a. 27.
b. 34.
c. 38.
d. 41.
C
Which of the following energy substrates cannot be depleted during extreme exercise intensities or durations?
a. creatine phosphate.
b. glycogen.
c. water.
d. ATP.
D
After a bout of resistance training, acute hormonal secretions provide all of the following information to the body EXCEPT
a. amount of physiological stress.
b. metabolic demands of exercise.
c. type of physiological stress.
d. energy expended.
D
Which of the following hormones enhance(s) muscle tissue growth?
I. growth hormone.
II. cortisol.
III. IGF-I.
IV. progesterone.
a. I and III only.
b. II and IV only.
c. I, II, and III only.
d. II, III, and IV only.
A
Which of the following is NOT a function of growth hormone?
a. increase collagen synthesis.
b. decrease collagen synthesis.
c. increase amino acid transport.
d. decrease glucose utilization.
B
Which of the following hormones has the greatest influence on neural changes?
a. growth hormone.
b. testosterone.
c. cortisol.
d. IGF.
B
What type of resistance training workout promotes the highest growth hormone increases following the exercise session?
Rest. Volume. Sets.
a. 30 seconds. High. 3.
b. 30 seconds . Low. 1.
c. 3 minutes. High. 1.
d. 3 minutes. Low. 3.
A
Following resistance training, augmented neural drive to the working musculature is the result of.
I. increased agonist muscle recruitment.
II. muscle hypertrophy.
III. improved firing rate.
IV. greater synchronization.
a. all of the above.
b. I and IV on
D
When one is performing a box-to-box plyometric drop jump, in order to generate sufficient force in a limited amount of time (<200 ms), which muscle fibers are bypassed through the principle of selective recruitment?
a. I.
b. IIa.
c. IIx.
d. IIc.
A
Which of the following performance or physiological characteristics is NOT usually observed in a state of nonfunctional overreaching (NFOR) within athlete populations?
a. stagnation and a decrease in performance.
b. hormonal disturbances.
c. mood disturba
C
Following prolonged periods of detraining in elite strength/power athletes, which of the following physical characteristics will likely show the largest reduction as a consequence of the removal of an anaerobic training stimulus?
a. total fat mass.
b. fas
B
Following a period of chronic high-intensity resistance training, a variety of physiological adaptations take place in a number of systems within the body that promote improved athletic performance in strength/power activities. If an elite athlete were to
C
In which of the following athletes might you expect limited bone mineral density (BMD) levels as a consequence of the force vectors and the physical demands associated with the given sport?
a. a 16-year-old gymnast with a seven-year training history in he
D
A 17-year-old high school cross-country runner has been training aerobically for six months in preparation for the upcoming season. Which of the following adaptations will occur in the muscle during that time?
a. increased concentration of glycolytic enzy
D
The amount of blood ejected from the left ventricle during each beat is the:
a. cardiac output.
b. a-vO2 difference.
c. heart rate.
d. stroke volume.
D
Which of the following does NOT normally increase during an aerobic exercise session?
a. end-diastolic volume.
b. cardiac contractility.
c. cardiac output.
d. diastolic blood pressure.
D
The mean arterial pressure is defined as the:
a. average blood pressure throughout the cardiac cycle.
b. average of the systolic and diastolic pressures.
c. average systolic blood pressure during exercise.
d. average of blood pressure and heart rate.
A
Primary training adaptations of elite aerobically trained athletes include which of the following?
A. increased maximal oxygen uptake.
B. decreased blood lactate concentration.
C. increased running economy.
D. decreased capillary density.
C
An 8-year-old boy dramatically increased his upper body strength after following a six-month resistance training program. Which of the following is MOST likely responsible for this gain?
a. increased number of muscle fibers.
b. enhanced -cross-sectional a
D
Growth cartliage in children is located at all of the following EXCEPT the.
a. diaphysis.
b. epiphyseal plate.
c. joint surface.
d. apophyseal insertion.
A
The condition characterized by a bone mineral density more than 2.5 SD below the young adult mean is called.
a. sarcopenia.
b. osteopenia.
c. osteoporosis.
d. scoliosis.
C
Which of the following should be evaluated FIRST when one is designing a training program for a 68-year-old competitive female tennis player?
a. cardiovascular fitness.
b. lower body strength.
c. balance and agility.
d. medical history.
D
Deconditioned female college athletes who participate in sports such as basketball and soccer appear to be at increased risk for developing injuries to the.
a. back.
b. knee.
c. wrist.
d. neck.
B
An Olympic weightlifter attempting a personal record is able to ignore the audience to concentrate solely on her performance. Which of the following abilities is this athlete most likely using to perform the exercise?
a. selective attention.
b. somatic an
A
An athlete's desire to perform to his or her potential is an example of.
a. motive to avoid failure.
b. autogenic training.
c. selective attention.
d. achievement motivation.
D
For a high school American football team, if any player squats two times his body weight, his name is placed on the wall. This is an example of.
a. negative reinforcement.
b. positive reinforcement.
c. negative punishment.
d. positive punishment.
B
How does an athlete's optimal arousal change with limited skill and ability to perform the activity?
a. It increases.
b. It decreases.
c. It has no effect.
d. It is not related to the activity.
B
In teaching the push press, which of the following is an example of segmentation with pure-part training integration?
a. Practice the push press without any equipment, progress to practice with a PVC pipe, and end with and unloaded bar.
b. Practice dip, f
C
Maintaining adequate glycogen stores.
a. spares the use of protein for enrgey.
b. improves maximum power.
c. decreases endurance performance.
d. helps athletes gain weight.
A
Which of the following BEST explains the need for increased protein intake by athletes?
a. decreasd protein oxidation during aerobic exercise.
b. increased need for tissue repair.
c. restriction of calories to lose weight.
d. the quality of protein consum
B
The following is the most likely contributor to fatigue and poor performance.
a. low protein intake.
b. iron deficiency.
c. low calcium intake.
d. omega-3 fatty acid deficiency.
B
Which of the following is a recommendation for lowering undesirably high levels of blood lipids?
a. reduce complex carbohydrate intake.
b. limit saturated fatty acid intake 30% of total calories.
c. consume a minimum of 500 mg of dietary cholesterol per d
D
Which of the following protein sources does not contain all essential amino acids in appreciable quantities?
a. poultry.
b. eggs.
c. lentils.
d. beef.
C
The primary macronutrient that is addressed in the precompetition meal is.
a. fat.
b. carbohydrate.
c. protein.
d. vitamin.
B
Which of the following makes the GREATEST contribution to total energy expenditure?
a. resting metabolic rate.
b. physical activity energy expenditure.
c. thermic effect of food.
d. resting blood sugar levels.
A
Which of the following is characteristic of anorexia nervosa?
a. normal body weight.
b. very low dietary fat intake.
c. preoccupation with food.
d. secretive eating.
C
When an eating disorder is suspected, the strength and conditioning professional should.
a. monitor the athlete's daily food intake.
b. require frequent weigh-ins.
c. encourage further assessment by an eating disorder specialist.
d. provide nutritional in
C
To maintain hydration during competition lasting less than 1 hour, it is recommended that athletes consume 3 to 8 ounces of water or a sports drink about every.
a. 15 minutes.
b. 30 minutes.
c. 60 minutes.
d. 2 hour.
A
Which of the following dietary supplement is (are) considered a stimulant?
I. creatine.
II. caffeine.
III. HMB.
IV. citrus aurantium.
a. I and II.
b. II and IV.
c. III and IV.
d. I and III.
B
Which of the following is NOT part of caffeine's role in improving athletic performance?
a. increased power production.
b. decreased glycogen depletion.
c. increased fat oxidation.
d. decreased urine production.
D
Which of the following is the BEST reason for aerobic endurance athletes to avoid erythropoietin use?
a. Hematocrit and hemoglobin levels may decrease.
b. It may cause an unregulated increase in red blood cell production.
c. Resistance to infectious disea
B
Creatine supplementation improves all of the following variables EXCEPT.
a. lean body mass.
b. maximal strength.
c. endurance performance.
d. power.
C
Which of the following performance -enhancing substances is most likely to increase lean body mass?
a. anabolic steroids.
b. arginine.
c. ephedrine.
d. ?-alanine.
A
A college basketball coach would like to know which one of her players has the most muscular power. Which of the following is the MOST valid test for measuring muscular power?
a. vertical jump.
b. 1RM bench press.
c. 5RM squat.
d. 100 m (109 yard) spring.
A
When measuring maximal strength of a soccer player, which of the following could potentially adversely affect the test-retest reliability of the results?
I. using multiple testers.
II. retesting at a different time of day.
III. an athlete's inexperience w
C
All of the following procedures should be followed when testing an athlete's cardiovascular fitness in the heat EXCEPT
a. performing the test in an indoor facility.
b. using salt tablets to retain water.
c. scheduling the test in the morning.
d. drinking
B
The bench press, vertical jump, and 10 m (11-yard) sprint are the MOST valid tests for which of the following American football positions?
a. quarterback.
b. defensive back.
c. wide receiver.
d. defensive lineman.
D
Which of the following sequences will produce the MOST reliable results?
a. 1RM power clean, T-test, 1.5 mile (2.4 km) run, 1RM bench press.
b. T-test, 1RM power clean, 1RM bench press, 1.5 mile (2.4 km) run.
c. 1.5 mile (2.4 km) run, 1RM bench press, T-t
B
Anaerobic capacity is quantified as the maximal power output achieved during activity lasting.
a. less than 10 seconds.
b. 30 to 90 seconds.
c. 2 to 3 minutes.
d. longer than 5 minutes.
B
Which of the following tests is NOT used to measure maximum muscular power?
a. Margarina-Kalamen test.
b. vertical jump.
c. 40 yard (37 m) sprint.
d. 1RM power clean.
C
Flexibility of which of these muscle groups or body areas is assessed during the sit-and-reach test?
I. hamstrings.
II. erector spinae.
III. lumbar spine.
IV. hip flexors.
a. I and III only.
b. II and IV only.
c. I, II, and III only.
d. II, III, and IV on
A
Which of the following is a reason for a trial of the T-test to be disqualified (see figure 13.18)?
a. touching the base of cone D.
b. shuffling from cone C to cone D.
c. crossing the feet from cone B to cone C.
d. running forward from cone A to cone B.
C
When compiling results from the volleyball team's vertical jump testing, the strength and conditioning professional notices that most scores are similar, but there are three scores that are much higher than the rest. Which of the following measures of cen
B
Which of the following is a nontemperature-related effect of a warm-up?
a. enhanced neural function.
b. disruption of transient connective tissue bonds.
c. elevation of baseline oxygen consumption.
d. increase in muscle temperature.
C
When stimulated during PNF stretching, Golgi tendon organs allow the relaxation of the.
a. stretched muscle by contracting the reciprocal muscle.
b. reciprocal muscle by contracting the stretched muscle.
c. reciprocal muscle by its own contraction.
d. str
D
Which of the following stretching techniques decreases muscle spindle stimulation?
a. dynamic.
b. ballistic.
c. static.
d. passive.
C
Stimulation of muscle spindles induces a.
a. relaxation of GTOs.
b. relaxation of the stretched muscle.
c. contraction of the stretched muscle.
d. contraction of the reciprocal muscle.
C
After promoting the hold-relax with agonist contraction PNF stretch for the hamstrings, which of the following explains the resulting increase in flexibility?
I. autogenic inhibition.
II. stretch inhibition.
III. reciprocal inhibition.
IV. crossed-extenso
A
Which of the following exercise requires a spotter?
a. lat pulldown.
b. wrist curl.
c. power clean.
d. step-up.
D
During which of the following exercises should a spotter's hands be placed on the athlete's forearms near the wrist?
a. bench press.
b. incline dumbbell bench press.
c. upright row.
d. lying barbell triceps extension.
B
Which of the following grips should be used during the deadlift exercise?
I. overhand.
II. closed.
III. open.
IV. alternated.
a. I and III only.
b. II and IV only.
c. I, II, and IV only.
d. II, III, and IV only.
C
Which of the following is the correct foot pattern in the step-up exercise?
a. step up left foot, step up right foot, step down left foot, step down right foot.
b. step up right foot, step up left foot, step down left foot, step down right foot.
c. step u
B
The primary movement during the second pull phase of the power clean exercise is.
a. hip flexion.
b. hip extension.
c. knee flexion.
d. dorsiflexion.
B
If during the tire flip the athlete's hip rise faster than the shoulders during the initial pushing motion, what is an effective correction to give the athlete?
a. Start with a higher hip position.
b. Keep the hip slightly below the shoulders in this posi
B
If a strong athlete incorporates only unilateral training into his or her program, what might the strength and conditioning professional expect to happen?
a. A bilateral facilitation will occur.
b. A bilateral deficit will be developed.
c. A reduction in
A
With regard to core training, when is instability exercise best applied?
a. with untrained athletes who are relatively weak.
b. in trained athletes who are rehabilitating from an injury.
c. with trained athletes who are trying to optimize strength and pow
B
Which of the following is a rationale for using variable-resistance training methods?
a. to accommodate the changing mechanical advantage associated with constant-loaded exercises.
b. to minimize force application throughout the full range of motion.
c. t
A
Training on instability devices can reduce the overall agonist force production capacity and power output of the athlete to less than _____ of what can be achieved in a stable condition.
a. 20%.
b. 50%.
c. 70%.
d. 90%.
C
the basketball coach says his starting center needs to jump higher. In addition to beginning a plyometric program, which of the following resistance training exercise are MOST specific to this goal?
I. power clean.
II. leg (knee) curl.
III. front squat.
I
A
The soccer team is transitioning from off-season to preseason training. How should the team's resistance training frequency be altered?
a. Increase frequency to improve muscular endurance.
b. Do not change frequency and add plyometrics.
c. Decrease freque
C
An American football lineman has difficulty driving into defensive linemen and believes he has lost his explosive ability. Which of the following is the BEST exercise order to help this athlete improve his performance?
a. back squat, hip sled, leg (knee)
B
Which of the following volumes has the potential to increase muscular strength the MOST?
a. 5 sets of 5 reps.
b. 1 set of 5 reps.
c. 5 sets of 15 reps.
d. 1 set of 15 reps.
A
A female triathlete needs to improve the muscular endurance of her upper body. Using three sets of 15 reps per exercise, which of the following rest period lengths will MAXIMIZE her goal?
a. 3 minutes.
b. 1.5 minutes.
c. 45 seconds.
d. 30 seconds.
D
Which of the following is NOT a phase of the stretch cycle?
a. amortization.
b. concentric.
c. eccentric.
d. isometric.
D
Which of the following structures detects rapid movement and initiates the stretch reflex?
a. golgi tendon organ.
b. muscle spindle.
c. extrafusal muscle.
d. pacinian corpuscle.
B
Which of the following should be assessed before beginning a lower body plyometric training program?
I. balance.
II. strength.
III. training history.
IV. lean body mass.
a. I and III only.
b. II and IV only.
c. I, II, and III only.
d. I, II, III, and IV.
C
Which of the following types of plyometric drills is generally considered to be the MOST intense?
a. jumps in place.
b. bounds.
c. depth jumps.
d. box jumps.
C
Which of the following work-to-rest ratios is the MOST appropriate to assign to a plyometric training work?
a. 1:5.
b. 1:4.
c. 1:3.
d. 1:2.
A
What does the term impulse refer to?
a. the relationship between power and velocity.
b. the relationship between acceleration and velocity.
c. the relationship between force and velocity.
d. the relationship between force and time.
D
Elite sprinters produce ____forces in a ____ ground contact time as compared to their novice counterparts.
a. larger, longer.
b. similar, shorter.
c. larger, shorter.
d. smaller, longer.
C
In upright sprinting, an athlete's stride length is largely dependent on ____
a. the amount of vertical force produced during the stance phase.
b. the athlete's flexibility.
c. the athlete's stride rate.
d. the amount of horizontal force produced during t
A
Drills or tests that require the athlete to move rapidly in response to a stimulus such as a whistle, arrow, or opponent are best for measuring which of the following?
a. change of direction.
b. maneuverability.
c. agility.
d. acceleration.
C
Select the aspect of training that requires additional emphasis when the aim is to improve change-of-direction ability.
a. strength.
b. eccentric strength.
c. reactive strength.
d. rate of force development.
B
Which of the following adaptations occur as an outcome of an aerobic endurance program?
I. increased oxygen delivery to working tissues.
II. higher rate of aerobic energy production.
III. greater utilization of fat as a fuel source.
IV. increased disturba
C
Which of the following types of training is conducted at an intensity equal to the lactate threshold?
a. pace/tempo.
b. interval.
c. high-intensity interval training (HIIT).
d. Fartlek.
A
Which of the following is the method most commonly used to assign and regulate exercise intensity?
a. oxygen consumption.
b. heart rate.
c. ratings of perceived exertion.
d. race pace.
B
the loss of physiological adaptations upon the cessation of training is an example of.
a. specificity of training.
b. cross-training.
c. detraining.
d. tapering.
C
The longest aerobic endurance training sessions should be performed during which of the following sport seasons?
a. postseason.
b. preseason.
c. in-season.
d. off-season.
D