The most common sign of testicular cancer is a small, hard, painless lump on the testicle.
True
Consuming red meat may cause a false-positive result on a fecal occult guaiac slide test.
True
Ultrasonography allows for continuous viewing of a structure.
True
The breasts are compressed during mammography to prevent radiation burns.
False
A patient must remove all metal before undergoing MRI.
True
A prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level of 20 is within normal range.
False
There are often no symptoms in the early stages of prostate cancer.
True
Most prostate cancers are slow growing.
True
Nonvisible blood in the stool is termed occult blood.
True
The patient should be instructed not to move during a radiographic examination to prevent confusing shadows on the film.
False
The permanent record of the picture produced on x-ray film is a sonogram.
False
If a Hemoccult test result is positive, the physician may order a colonoscopy.
True
An IVP is a radiograph of the kidneys, ureters, and bladder.
True
Colorectal cancer is a common form of cancer in individuals older than 50 years.
True
Computed tomography produces a series of cross-sectional images.
True
The Hemoccult test should be stored at room temperature after applying a stool specimen to it.
True
Bone is an example of a radiolucent structure.
False
Mammography can be used to detect breast calcifications.
True
Patient preparation for a sigmoidoscopy includes partial bowel preparation.
True
A radioactive material is introduced into the body before a nuclear medicine imaging procedure is performed.
True
colonoscope
An endoscope that is specially designed for passage through the anus to permit visualization of the rectum and the entire length of the colon.
colonoscopy
the visualization of the rectum and the entire colon using a colonoscope
enema
An injection of fluid into the rectum to aid in the elimination of feces from the colon
Fluoroscope
An instrument used to view internal organs and structures directly in real time
fluoroscopy
Examination of a patient with a fluoroscope
Insufflate
To blow a powder, vapor, or gas (such as air) into a body cavity.
Melena
The darkening of the stool caused by the presence of blood in an amount of 50 mL or more
Peroxidase
a substance that is able to transfer oxygen from hydrogen peroxide to oxidize guaiac, causing the guaiac to turn blue
Radiograph
The permanent image produced by x-rays and recorded on a radiosensitive device such as a radiographic film or a digital device
radiography
The taking of permanent records of internal body organs and structures by passing x-rays through the body to act on radiosensitive device
Radiologist
A provider who specializes in the diagnosis and treatment of disease using radiation and other imaging techniques.
Radiolucent
describing a structure that permits the passage of x-rays
Radiopaque
Describing a structure that obstructs the passage of x-rays
Sigmoidoscope
an endoscope that is specially designed for passage through the anus to permit visualization of the rectum and sigmoid colon
sigmoidoscopy
visual examination of the rectum and sigmoid colon with a sigmoidoscope
Sonogram
The record obtained with ultrasonography
The function of the prostate gland is to
Secrete fluid that transports sperm
An IVP is used to assist in the diagnosis of all of the following except
Blockage of the urinary tractGrowths of the urinary system***Urinary tract infectionsKidney stones
Before performing an IVP, the patient must be asked if he or she is allergic to
Iodine
All of the following conditions can cause an elevated PSA level except
CT scanTransrectal ultrasoundBiopsy of the prostate gland***(Double-contrast barium enema or Testicular cancer)radiographic examination
All of the following are advantages of the fecal immunochemical test (FIT) as compared with the guaiac slide test except:
FIT is more sensitive to lower GI bleeding***FIT is less expensiveFIT has fewer false-positive test resultsFIT does not require dietary or medication restrictions
Any trace of blue appearing on or at the edge of the guaiac slide test is interpreted as
Positive
A normal prostate gland feels
Soft
All of the following medications must be discontinued before and during guaiac slide testing except
Vitamin C***AntihistaminesIron supplementsAspirin
Patient instructions for the guaiac slide test include
(All of the above.)***Store slides at room temperature.Begin the diet modifications three days before collecting the first stool specimen.Protect slides from heat and sunlight.Collect a sample from two different parts of each stool specimen.
What is the appearance of stool exhibiting melena?
Black and tarlike
colon/o
colon
-scope
instrument for visual examination
endo-
within
-oxia
oxygen
-ase
enzyme
ox/i
Oxygen
sigmoid/o
sigmoid (colon)
ech/o
sound
cardi/o
heart
fluor/o
fluorescence
-gram
record
-graph
instrument used to record
-graphy
process of recording
radi/o
radiation
-ologist
one who studies and practices (specialist)
-ology
study of
-lucent
transparent
-opaque
opaque
son/o
sound
ultra
beyond, excess
Mr. B. M. Abnormal is scheduled to have a fecal occult blood test in three days. Select the foods he should avoid while preparing for his test
**Cheese and onion pizzaEggsIce creamPork ChopsCheese**SteakOatmealShredded wheat cereal**Liver and onions**Hamburgers
Mr. B. M. Abnormal is scheduled to have a fecal occult blood test in three days. Select the medications from his med list that the provider may instruct the patient to avoid while preparing for this test
Metformin 500 mg PO bid***650 mg aspirin PO daily PRN joint pain***Multivitam with added iron 1 capsule PO dailyFiber supplement capsules 2 PO at HS***Ibuprofen 200 mg PO daily
ambulation
walking or moving from one place to another
ambulatory
able to walk as opposed to being confined to bed or a wheelchair
brace
An orthopedic device used to support and hold a part of the body in the correct position to allow functioning and healing.
cast
a stiff cylindrical casing that is used to immobilize a body part until healing occurs
compress
a soft, moist, absorbent cloth that is folded in several layers and applied to a part of the body in the local application of heat or cold
erythema
reddening of the skin caused by dilation of superficial blood vessels in the skin
exudate
a discharge produced by the body's tissues
maceration
the softening and breaking down of the skin as a result of prolonged exposure to moisture
soak
the direct immersion of a body part in water or a medicated solution
splint
an orthopedic device used to support and immobilize a part of the body
sprain
trauma to a joint that causes injury to the ligament
strain
An overstretching of a muscle caused by trauma
Abrasion
A wound in which the outer layers of the skin are damaged; a scrape
abcess
A collection of pus in a cavity surrounded by inflamed tissue
absorbable suture
suture material that is gradually digested and absorbed by the body
approximation
The process of bringing two parts, such as tissue, together through the use of sutures or other means
biopsy
1. The surgical removal and examination of tissue from the living body2. usually done to determine if tumor is benign or malignant
capillary action
The action that causes liquid to rise along a wick, a tube, or a gauze dressing.
colposcope
the visual examination of the vagina and cervix using a colposcope
cryosurgery
the therapeutic use of freezing temperatures to destroy abnormal tissue
fibroblast
an immature cell from which connective tissue can develop such as collagen used to make granulation tissue
forceps
a two-pronged instrument for grasping and squeezing
furuncle
A localized staphylococcal infection that originates deep within a hair follicle. Also known as a boil.
incision
A clean cut caused by a cutting instrument
infiltration
the process by which a substance passes into and is deposited within the substance of a cell, tissue, or organ
inflammation
a protective of the body to trauma and the entrance of foreign matter
laceration
a wound in which the tissues are torn apart, leaving ragged and irregular edges
ligate
to tie off and close a structure such as a severed blood vessel
needle biopsy
a type of biopsy in which tissues from deep within the body is obtained by the insertion of a biopsy needle through the skin
Nonabsorbable suture
Suture material that is not absorbed by the body and either remains permanently in the body tissue and becomes encapsulated by fibrous tissue or is removed
puncture
A wound made by a sharp-pointed object piercing the skin.
sebaceous cyst
a thin, closed sac or capsule that contains fatty secretions from a sebaceous gland
swaged needle
A needle with suturing material permanently attached to its end
wound
A break in the continuity of an external or internal surface caused by physical means.
serous exudate
Watery, consists primarily of fluid, some proteins, and white blood cells
sanguineous exudate
an exudate containing large amounts of red blood cells
purulent exudate
Drainage which contains pus, usually yellow, green or brown; indicates infection
serosanguineous exudate
thin, watery, and pale red to pink in color
amenorrhea
the absence of cessastion of the menstrual period. Amenorrhea occurs normally before puberty, during pregnancy, and after menopause
dysmenorrhea
pain associated with menstrual period
dysplasia
1.the growth of abnormal cells.2. it is a precancerous condition that may or may not develop into cancer
Ectocervix
the outermost layer of the cervix
effacement
1. the thinning and shortening of the cervical canal from its normal length of 1-2cm to a structure with paper-thin edges in which there is no canal at all2. Occurs late in pregnancy, during labor or both3. purpose of effacement along with dilation is to permit the passage of the infant into the birth canal
endocervix
the inner part of the cervix that forms a narrow canal that connects the vagina to the uterus
engagement expected date of delivery
1. EDD2. the entrance of the fetal head or the presenting part into the pelvic inlet3. projected birth date of the infant
external os
the opening of the cervical canal of the uterus into the vagina
fetal heart tones
the sounds of the heartbeat of the fetus heard through the mother's abdominal wall
fundus
the dome-shaped upper portion of the uterus between the fallopian tubes
menorrhagia
1. bleeding during a menstrual period, in the number of days or the amount of blood or both2. also called dysfuntional uterine bleeding DUB
perimenopause
Before the onset of menopause, the phase during which the woman with regular periods changes to irregular cycles and increased periods of amenorrhea
perineum
the external region between the vagina orifice and the anus in a female and between the scrotum and the anus in a male
presentation
indication of the part of the fetus that is closest to the cervix and is delivered first
puerperium
The period of time, usually 4 to 6 weeks after delivery, in which the uterus and the body systems are returning to normal.
insufflate
To blow a powder, vapor, or gas into a body cavity.
occult blood
blood in such a small amount that it is not detectable by the unaided eye
melena
the darkening of the stool caused by the presence of blood in an amount of 50 ml or more
sonogram
the record obtained with ultrasonography
radioplaque
describing a structure that obstructs the passage of x-rays
radiolucent
describing a structure that permits the passage of x-rays
ultrasonography
the use of high-frequency sound waves to produce an image of an organ or tissue
peroxidase
as it pertains to the guaiac slide test, a substance that is able to transfer oxygen from hydrogen peroxide to oxidize guaiac, causing the guaiac to turn blue
fluoroscope
an instrument used to view internal organs and structures directly in real time
endoscope
An instrument that consists of a tube and an optical system that is used for direct visual inspection of organs or cavities.
colonscope
An endoscope that is specially designed for passage through the anus to permit visualization of the rectum and the entire length of the colon.
echocardiogram
an ultrasound examination of the heart
radiograph
the permanent image produced by x-rays and recorded on a radiosensitive device such as radiographic film or digital device
contrast medium
a substance used to make a particular structure visible on a radiograph
astigmatism
A refractive error that causes distorted and blurred vision for both near and far objects due to a cornea that is oval shaped.
audiometer
an instrument used to measure hearing acuity quantitatively for the various frequencies of sound waves
canthus
the junction of the eyelids at either corner of the eye
cerumen
a yellowish waxy substance secreted by glands in the ear canal which functions to lubricate and protect the ear canal.earwax
hyperopia
a refractive error in which the light rays are brought to a focus behind the retina, resulting in difficulty viewing objects at a reading or working distance. farsightedness
impacted cerumen
cerumen that is wedged firmly together in the ear canal so as to be immovable
instillation
the dropping of a liquid into a body cavity
irrigation
the washing of a body canal with a flowing solution
myopia
a refractive error in which the light rays are brought to focus in front of the retina, resulting in difficulty viewing objects at a distance. nearsightedness
otoscope
an instrument used to examine the external ear canal and tympanic membrane
presbyopia
a decrease in the elasticity of the lens that occurs with aging, resulting in a decreased ability to focus on close objects
refraction
the deflection or bending of light rays by a lens
tympanic membrane
a think, semitransparent membrane between the external ear canal and the middle ear that receives and transmits sound waves. Eardrum
adolescent
an individual 12-18 years old
immunity
the resistance of the body to the effects of a harmful agent, such as a pathogenic microorganism and its toxins
immunization active artificial
the process of becoming immune or of rendering an individual immune through the use of a vaccine or toxoid
length
recumbent. the measurement from the vertex of the bead to the heel of the foot of a patient in a supine position
pediatrician
a physician who specializes in the care and development of children and the diagnosis and treatment of children's diseases
pediatrics
the branch of medicine that deals with the care and development of children and the diagnosis and treatment of children's diseases
preschool age
a child from 3-6
school aged child
6-12 years old
toddler
1-3 years
toxoid
a toxin that has been treated by heat or chemicals to destroy its harmful properties. it is administered to an individual to prevent an infectious disease by stimulating the production of antibodies in that individual
vertex
the top of the head
DTap
diptheria and tetanus toxoids and acellular pertussis vaccine
Hib
haemophilus influenza B vaccine
IPV
inactivated polio vaccine
PCV
pneumococcal conjugate vaccine
RV
rotavirus vaccine
var
varicella (chicken pox vaccine)
MCV4
Meningococcal vaccine
State when you would utilize a hot compress during patient injury
I would use a hot compress for a patient injury if I wanted to increase suppuration, improve circulation to that part of the body to help with healing, to promote drainage from an infection, or to soften exudate. Heat will cause dilation of the blood vessels in the area where the heat is applied this can cause an increase in blood supply to the area resulting in nutrients and oxygen being moved into the cells faster and toxins and waste being removed from the cells faster. It can also cause an increase in tissue metabolism.
What is the difference between a sprain and strain?
A sprain is trauma that occurs to a joint that causes injury to a ligament. This differs to a strain which is an over stretching of the muscles caused by trauma.
State 3 types of ambulatory aids.
Crutches- these are either axillary or forearmcanes- standard cane, tripod cane, quad canewalkers- can have 2 wheels and two rubber stoppers on the feet, 4 wheels, or 4 stoppers
Describe, in detail, how to measure a patient for axillary crutches.
First the patient should be wearing shoes and they should be standing as tall as they can. The crutch length should be adjusted so that the should rests are about 1.5-2 inches below the axillae. This is important that the should rests are below the axillae as pressure on the axilla can cause crutch palsy. The length of the crutch can be adjusted by either the spring loaded push button on the bottom of the crutch or by removing the bolt and wing nut and sliding the support piece in the direction needed to get the correct length then reattaching the bolt and wing nut. To position the handgrip place the crutch under the patients arm with the correct height already established. The patient should be standing tall. Then adjust the handgrip so that the patients elbow is flexed at about 30 degrees. This adjustment can be made by removing the wing nut and moving the handgrip up or down.
Describe, in detail, how you would instruct a patient on utilizing the following gaits (5 points each gait):4-point gait
1. I would instruct the patient to start in the tripod position which is having both crutches slightly in front and to the side of the feet. This is about 4-6 inches in front and 4-6 inches to the side or to what is comfortable.2. Next I would tell the patient to move the right crutch forward about 6 inches.3. Next I would tell them to move the left foot forward so that it is level with the left crutch.4. Then to move the left crutch forward about 6 inches5. I would then instruct them to start again with moving the right crutch forward, followed by the left foot, then left crutch, then right foot.6. Once they became comfortable I would instruct them to not move more then about a foot forward at a time to maintain stability and to look forward while walking not at their feet and instruct them on the other safety guidelines.
Describe, in detail, how you would instruct a patient on utilizing the following gaits (5 points each gait):3-point gait
1. I would instruct the patient to start in the tripod position which is having both crutches slightly in front and to the side of the feet. This is about 4-6 inches in front and 4-6 inches to the side or to what is comfortable.2. Next I would tell the patient to move both crutches forward about 6 inches along with the injured leg that can't bear weight3. At this point the I would tell them to move the uninjured leg forward to the distance of the crutches while balancing on both crutches.4. Once stable I would tell them to again move both crutches forward, putting no weight on the injured leg then while balancing on the two crutches to move the uninjured leg forward. This is then continued until they get to where they are wanting.5. Again once they are comfortable they can move the crutches about 12-15 inches forward at a time or what feels comfortable and stable6. I would instruct in general for the patient to look forward and not at their feet while using the crutches as well as the other safety guidelines.
Describe, in detail, how you would instruct a patient on utilizing the following gaits (5 points each gait): Swing-Through gait
1. I would instruct the patient to start in the tripod position which is having both crutches slightly in front and to the side of the feet. This is about 4-6 inches in front and 4-6 inches to the side or to what is comfortable.2. I would then instruct the patient to move both crutches forward about 6 inches.3. I would then instruct that the patient while balancing their weight on the crutches lifts their legs and "swings" the body past where the crutches are located.4. once stable, I would instruct the patient to again move both crutches forward then again while balancing on the forward crutch move the entire body past where the crutches are.5. Once they feel comfortable they can make larger movement with the crutches and feet to about 12-15 inches.6. I would instruct the patient to look forward while using the crutches as well as the other safety guidelines that are helpful.
The purpose of a sterile fenestrated drape is to
Provide a sterile area around the operative site
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a minor office surgery?Performed in an ambulatory care facilityPerformed in a short period of timeRequires a general anestheticDoes not pose a major risk to life
Requires a general anesthetic
The purpose of practicing surgical asepsis during minor office surgery is to
Protect the patient from pathogenic microorganisms
Protect the patient from pathogenic microorganisms
Do not use the article; obtain another one.
Which of the following instruments consists of a handle and a blade and is used to make surgical incisions and divide tissue?Operating scissorsScalpelBandage scissorsDissecting scissors
Scalpel
Which of the following instruments has serrated tips, ring handles, and ratchets and is used to clamp off blood vessels?Allis tissue forcepsHemostatic forcepsSponge forcepsCurette
Hemostatic forceps
Which of the following instruments is used to hold tissue aside to improve exposure of the operative area?RetractorsBiopsy forcepsProbeTenaculum
Retractors
When not in use, an instrument with a ratchet should be stored
In an open position
Which of the following represents an error in technique when pouring a sterile solution?Ensuring that the solution is within its expiration datePlacing the solution cap on a flat surface with the open end facing downPalming the label of the solution bottleRinsing the lip of the bottle
Placing the solution cap on a flat surface with the open end facing down
What name is given to the type of wound in which the tissues are torn apart, leaving ragged and irregular edges?
Laceration
What occurs during the inflammatory phase in the healing process?
A blood clot plugs the opening of the wound
The protective response of the body to trauma and the entrance of foreign substances is called
Inflammation
The function of the healing process of a wound is to
Restore the structure and function of damaged tissue
The function of a bandage is to
Support a body partControl bleedingImmobilize a part of the bodyHold a dressing in place
Hemostasis
the arrest of bleeding by natural or artificial means
abrasion
a wound in which the outer layers of hte skin are damaged; a scrape
local anesthetic
drug that produces a loss of feeling
contusion
bruise
A ------- is an instrument used to clamp off blood vessels.scalpelhemostatsneedleholderfoceps
hemostats
-------- are used to divide or separate tissue rather than cut it.bandage scissorsdissecting scissorsoperating scissorssuture scissors
dissecting scissors
4 local signs of infection
rednessswellingpainwarmth
serous
thin watery and clear liquid coming from a wound
serosanguinous drainage
thin water liquid that is pale red to pink in color that is coming from the wound
purulent drainage
thick or thin drainage that is an opaque tan to yellow color but might also be white, pink, or green and it contains pus and usually has a bad odor
patient prep for minor surg
The medical assistant should wash their hands and assemble the supplies that they need.Once the MA has identified the patient then the medical assistant should explain the procedure and ask the patient to remove any additional clothing, tell them where to put their clothing, and assist them with the removal if needed.The medical assistant should then put the patient in the appropriate position and provide a drape if necessary.If the area where surgery is to be performed is hairy the hair should be removed using scissors to clip the excess hair away and a razor to remove the remaining hair.When using a razor to remove hair a light should be moved to the area to better see the space.Gauze should be put into a soapy solution and used one at a time to the area to be shaved then discarded.Razor should be used at a 30 degree angle, with the skin pulled taut, and the hair shaved in the direction of the hair growth. Razors should be cleaned with the soapy water to remove excess hair. Wetted gauze should then be used to clean the area of any remaining soap or hair.Once hair is removed then an antiseptic solution should be put onto the surgical site. The physician may have a specific solution they want to have used. When applying the solution work from the inside out in a circular motion.Upon applying the antiseptic then a sterile cover drape or towel should be placed over the prepared area.The medical assistant should tell the patient not to touch the sterile area or the tray that has the tools for the procedure.The medical assistant should then look into the patients well being.Before medical assistant should also make sure to gain consent for the procedure before it is done and ensure that if preparation was needed to be done before the procedure such as fasting that the patient has followed those instructions.
cutting and dissecting
operating scissors
clamping and occluding
kelly hemostat
retracting and exposing
volkman retractor
grasping and holding
tissue forceps
at what age should males give themselves TSE's
15 years old
this procedure aids in the diagnosis of urinary tract blockage, kidney stones and growths
Intravenous pyelography
at what age should women have their first mammogram if they do not have a family history of breast cancer
40
the visualization of the mucosa of the rectum and colon is a
colonoscopy
this procedure uses high-frequency sound waves for the study of soft tissues
ultrasound
state symptoms of prostate cancer
1.difficulty with urination2. weak or interrupted urinary flow3. pain or burning while urinating4. frequent urination5. blood in the urine6. pain in the lower back, pelvis, or upper thighs
State the appropriate patient preparation for a colonoscopy. be thorough!
1. 5 Days before the procedure the patient should stop talking iron, aspirin, and other asprin products.2. Two days before the procedure the patient should stop taking antiinflammatory drugs to min the risk of bleeding if a polyp is to be removed3. Any other medication restrictions will be given by the provider4. 1 day before the procedure and until the procedure is completed the patient should not consume solid food or milk products. They should only consume gelatin or popsicles except purple or red. They should drink only clear liquid but alcohol is not allowed. Coffee and tea are ok but no milk or cream can be added.5. To prepare the bowls a laxative the afternoon before the procedure should be taken. This is usually in a powder and usually comes with a gallon container. I would tell the patient to read the instructions given but in general the gallon bottle is filled with water and the laxative is mixed in. The solution should be stored in the fridge.a) drink the laxative solution one 8 ounce glass every 10-15 minutes until 8 glasses are consumed. This can cause nausea bloating. This should subside once bowl movements start but if not then slow down drinking or take a 30 minute break.b) The first movement should be about 1 hour after the patient started drinking the solution. An expected number of movements is about 10-15.c) if after drinking 1/2 the container your bowl movements are clear or pale yellow then you can stop drinking the solution but if it is not continue drinking every 15 minutes until it is6. Do not eat or drink after midnight the day before the procedure and if medication need to be taken and are approved by the provider only take them with a sip of water.7. Make sure to have transportation arranged for after the procedure as the patient will be in a sedated state.8. Then expect some bloating, cramping, and gas after the procedure and some blood in the stool for 1-2 days if a biopsy or polyp was removed.9. I would also tell them after the procedure if there is any rectal bleeding, fainting, dizziness, shortness of breath, or heart palpitations then to contact the office.
antero-posterior (AP)
radiographic view from front to back
postero-anterior (PA)
radiographic view from back to front
lateral
radiographic view from the side
oblique
radiographic view from an angle.
Medical Asepsis
that an object or area is clean and free from infection. Non-pathogens would still be present on a clean or medically aseptic substance or surface, but all the pathogens would have been eliminated by the practices of asepsis.
most important procedure in keeping things medically asepsis
hand hygiene
Surgical Asepsis
sterile technique, refers to practices that keep objects and area sterile, or free from all living microorganisms and spores. Surgical asepsis protects the patient from pathogenic microorganisms that may enter the body and cause a disease.
Sterile technique is always employed under the following circumstances:
when caring for broken skinsuturesPunctureswhen the skin is being penetrated for a surgical reason (mole removal) when a body cavity is entered that is normally sterile
List guidelines that should be followed in caring for instruments.
Handle instruments carefully.Do not pile instruments in a heap.Keep sharp instruments separate from other instruments.Keep instruments with a ratchet in an open position when not in use.Rinse blood and body secretions off an instrument as soon as possible.Always use the instrument for the purpose for which it was designed.Sanitize and sterilize instruments using proper technique.
difference between a closed and an open wound?
A closed wound is an injury to the underlying tissues of the body without a break in the skin surface or mucous membrane,whereas an open wound has a break in the skin or mucous membrane that exposes the underlying tissue.
What occurs during the inflammatory phase of wound healing?
This last for 3-4 days and during this time a fibrin network forms to plug the open would and will eventually form a scab.During this time inflammation will occur causing an increase of blood flow to the area which allows for an increase in WBC and nutrients to the area which help promote healing. As inflammation occurs redness, swelling, pain, and warmth will also be experienced during this time.A fibrin network forms, resulting in a blood clot that plugs the opening of the wound and stops the flow of blood.
What occurs during the granulation phase of wound healing?
fibroblast produce collagen which will fill in the would and protect the surface of the wound by produce granulation tissue. This phase last for 4-20 days and it will produce tissues that is red to dark pink, that is smooth and moist to the touch, and is painless.
What occurs during the maturation phase of wound healing?
The maturation phase can last up to 2 years after the granulation tissue has formed. During this time collagen is continued to be produced and turned into granulation tissue and over time this tissue will turn white and become scar tissue.
Surgical asepsis refers to practices that keep objects and areas free from all microorganisms.
true
something that is sterile is contaminated if it comes in contact with a pathogen
true
reaching over a sterile field is a violation of sterile technique
true
an incision is a jagged tearing of the tissues
false
the skin is the first line of defense of the body
true
one of the local signs of inflammation is fever
false
sutures approximate the edges of a wound until proper healing occurs
true
a biopsy is usually performed to determine whether an infection is present
false
an ingrown toenail can be caused by shoes that are too tight
true
one of the functions of a bandage is to hold a dressing in place
true
Which technique (medical asepsis or surgical asepsis) would be employed during the following procedures?Administering Medication?
medical asepsis
Which technique (medical asepsis or surgical asepsis) would be employed during the following procedure?Inserting sutures
surgical asepsis
Which technique (medical asepsis or surgical asepsis) would be employed during the following procedure?Measuring Oral Temperature
medical asepsis
Which technique (medical asepsis or surgical asepsis) would be employed during the following procedure?Applying a bandage to the forearm
medical asepsis
Which technique (medical asepsis or surgical asepsis) would be employed during the following procedure?Performing a needle biopsy
surgical asepsis
Which technique (medical asepsis or surgical asepsis) would be employed during the following procedure?Removing a sebaceous cyst
surgical asepsis
Which technique (medical asepsis or surgical asepsis) would be employed during the following procedure?Obtaining a Pap specimen
medical asepsis
Which technique (medical asepsis or surgical asepsis) would be employed during the following procedure?Inserting a urinary catheter
surgical asepsis
Which technique (medical asepsis or surgical asepsis) would be employed during the following procedure?Incision and drainage of an abscess
surgical asepsis
Which technique (medical asepsis or surgical asepsis) would be employed during the following procedure?Applying a dressing to an open wound
surgical asepsis
Hemostatic forceps are used to clamp off blood vessels.
true
An instrument with a ratchet should be kept in a closed position when not in use.
false
The physician would most likely order a tetanus booster for an abrasion.
false
Inflammation is the protective response of the body to trauma and the entrance of foreign substances.
true
A serous exudate is red in color.
false
Size 4-0 sutures have a smaller diameter than size 3 sutures.
true
Sebaceous cysts are commonly found on the palms of the hand.
false
Colposcopy is frequently used to evaluate lesions of the cervix.
true
Cryosurgery is used in the treatment of cervical cancer.
false
bi/o
life
-opsy
to view
colp/o
vagina
-=scope
instrument used for visual examination
-scopy
visual examination using a scope
cry/o
cold
fibr/o
fibrous tissue blast: developing cell
hem/o
blood
stasis
control, stop
all are functions of a sterile dressing exceptProtect the wound from containmentabsorbs drainageprevents infectionrestricts motion
prevents infection
All are nonabsorbable sutures exceptSilkChromic Surgical gutstaplespolyesterpolybutester
chromic surgical gut
What is the name of the physician who developed the Pap test?
Dr. George Papanicolaou
The most commonly used method to prepare the Pap specimen for evaluation is the _________________________.
liquid-based method
State 5 risk factors of breast cancer.
1.age2. family history where someone in the family has had breast cancer3. dense breast tissue4. gender5. personal history of having breast cancer
Nagele rule
count back 3 months from date of last normal menstrual periodAdd 1 year and 7 days
The American Cancer Society recommends that women start having mammograms at what age?
40
dyspasia
growth of abnormal cells
dyspareunia
pain during sexual intercourse
menorrhagia
excessive bleeding during menstruation
metrorrhagia
bleeding between periods
The pelvic exam consists of all of the following exceptInspection of external genitaliaBimanual examRectal-vaginal examPelvic ultrasound
pelvic ultrasound
At what age should women start self breast exams?
20
All cervical cancers are caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV).
false
The outermost layer of the cervix consists of a thin, flat layer of cells, approximately _________ layers thick.
10
This vaginal infection can be identified by adding a drop of potassium hydroxide onto a sterile slide moistened with vaginal discharge.
candida
The most common sexually transmitted disease in the U.S. is
chlamydia
embryo
conception through the first 8 weeks
gestation
period of pregnancy
fetus
third month after conception to birth
infant
birth to 12 months old
The ectocervix is the outer portion of the cervix that projects into the vagina.
true
This life-threatening complication of pregnancy is characterized by hypertension, edema and albuminuria.
preeclampsia
All are warning signs during pregnancy exceptvaginal bleedingLack of vaginal dischargeVaginal dischargeMenstrual-like cramping
lack of vaginal discharge
Syphilis is not able to cross the placental barrier.
false
A normal fetal HR is between
120-160 bpm
Amniocentesis diagnosis all of the following conditions exceptcongenital abnormalitieschromosomal disordersgenetic metabolism errorsall of these can be diagnosed through amniocentesis
all of these can be diagnosed through amniocentesis
Nullipara is when a woman completes one pregnancy to the age of fetal viability.
fale
Gynecology is the branch of medicine that deals with
Diseases of the reproductive organs of women
Which of the following radiographic examinations uses air and barium to view the colon in great detail?
Double-contrast barium enema
In what position is the patient placed for a breast examination?
supine
In preparation for a gynecologic examination, the patient should be instructed toEmpty her bladder, if neededUndress completelyWear the examining gown with the opening in frontBreathe deeply, slowly, and evenly during the examination All of these
all of these
The function of the prostate gland is to
secrete fluid that transports sperm
Almost all cervical cancers are caused by
HPV
Why is it important that the patient be relaxed during the pelvic examination?For easier insertion of the vaginal speculumTo make the examination easier for the patientTo make it easier for the physician to perform the bimanual pelvic examinationTo reduce patient discomfort All of these
all of these
Which of the following patients is most likely to develop candidiasis?A patient with poor hygieneA patient with irregular menstrual periodsA patient on prolonged antibiotic therapyA patient with multiple sexual partners
a patient on prolonged antibiotic therapy
When collecting a specimen for a Pap test, the ectocervical specimen is obtained using The S-shaped end of the spatulaThe rounded end of the spatulaA moistened cotton-tipped applicatorA cytology brush
the s-shaped end of the spatula
Which of the following is an advantage of the liquid-based Pap method?Almost all of the Pap specimen is preservedDebris is removed from the specimenThe cells are dispersed in a thin even layer on the slideAll of the above
all of the above
The purpose of a bimanual pelvic examination is to
Determine the size, shape, and position of the uterus and ovaries
What parts of the colon are viewed during a colonoscopy?Sigmoid colonDescending colonTransverse colonAscending colonAll of these
all of these
Which of the following conditions can be diagnosed with a PET scan?Brain cancer and heart diseaseDiabetesInflammatory bowel diseaseMultiple sclerosis
brain cancer and heart disease
Which of the following is NOT a symptom of trichomoniasis?Profuse, frothy vaginal dischargeRed spots on the cervixItching of the vulva and vaginaAbdominal pain
abdominal pain
What is the purpose of a bone density scan?To detect a ruptured diskTo detect bone lossTo detect a stress fractureTo detect bone cancerAll of these
to detect bone loss
Symptoms of chlamydial infection in a female (if they occur) includeDysuriaItchingIrritation of the genital areaYellowish, odorless vaginal dischargeAll of these
DysuriaItchingIrritation of the genital areaYellowish, odorless vaginal discharge
Which of the following can be used to diagnose chlamydia and gonorrhea?
DNA-probe test
What is the purpose of prenatal care?To prevent diseaseTo promote healthTo provide prenatal educationEarly detection of problemsAll of these
To prevent diseaseTo promote healthTo provide prenatal educationEarly detection of problems
Which of the following is NOT included in the first prenatal visit?Fundal height measurementPelvic examinationCompletion of a prenatal record formDetermination of fetal presentation and position
Determination of fetal presentation and position
All of the following are warning signs during pregnancy exceptHeartburnVaginal bleedingBlurred visionAbdominal pain
heartburn
What is the most common medical disorder of pregnancy?HypertensionThrombophlebitisGestational diabetesPreeclampsia
hypertension
The purpose of measuring fundal height is to
Assess whether fetal growth is progressing normally
What is the term for a woman who has been pregnant more than once?
multigravida
Which of the following conditions may cause blood in the stool?HemorrhoidsDiverticulosisColorectal cancerPolypsAll of these
HemorrhoidsDiverticulosisColorectal cancerPolyps
What is the appearance of stool exhibiting melena?
black and tarlike
What is occult blood?
blood that is not visible
why must the patient consume a high-fiber diet before guaiac slide testing
to encourage bleeding from intestinal lesions
Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the medical assistant during a sigmoidoscopy?Lubricating the physician's gloved finger for the digital examinationInsufflating air into the colonPlacing lubricant on the sigmoidoscopeAssisting with suctioning equipment
insufflating air into the colon
All of the following are symptoms of prostate cancer exceptDifficulty in urinatingPainful urinationWeak urinary flowThick, yellow discharge from the penis
Thick, yellow discharge from the penis
Gonorrhea is transmitted through
sexual intercourse
Which of the following increases the PSA level?FastingSmokingVigorous exerciseAlcohol consumption
vigorous exercise
The American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists recommends that a woman perform a breast self-examination
one per month
When should a testicular self-examination be performed?
after taking a warm shower
The permanent record of the picture produced on the X-ray film is known as a
radiograph
The purpose of contrast medium is to
Make a structure visible on a radiograph
The breasts are compressed during mammography toPrevent the patient from movingProtect the patient from radiation burnsObtain a clear radiographReduce patient discomfortAll of these
Prevent the patient from movingProtect the patient from radiation burnsObtain a clear radiographReduce patient discomfort
An IVP is a radiograph of the
kidneys, ureters, bladder
The absence or cessation of the menstrual period is known as
Amenorrhea
Amniocentesis can be used to
Aid in the diagnosis of congenital abnormalitiesAssess fetal lung maturityDetermine the gender of the fetusDetect fetal distress
Which of the following is a characteristic of ultrasonography?Cannot be used for bone studiesShows movementAllows for continuous viewing of a structureDoes not use radiationAll of these
Cannot be used for bone studiesShows movementAllows for continuous viewing of a structureDoes not use radiation
The purpose of the present pregnancy history is toEstablish a baseline for the present health status of the prenatal patientRecord medications being taken by the patientDetermine if the patient has experienced any of the early signs of pregnancyCalculate the EDDAll of these
Establish a baseline for the present health status of the prenatal patientRecord medications being taken by the patientDetermine if the patient has experienced any of the early signs of pregnancyCalculate the EDD
To prepare for a CT scan, the patient mustDiscontinue all medications two days before the scanRemove all radiopaque objectsConsume four glasses of water 1 hour before the scanPerform a cleansing enema on the morning of the examination
remove all radiopaque objects
Which of the following is a characteristic of magnetic resonance imaging?It is safe and painlessThe patient must remove all metal before the procedure.The patient must remain still during the procedure.The patient hears a metallic clacking sound during the procedure.
It is safe and painlessThe patient must remove all metal before the procedure.The patient must remain still during the procedure.The patient hears a metallic clacking sound during the procedure.
What is the purpose of the Pap test?
Early detection of cervical cancer
Mayo Operating Scissors
can be s/b or b/b
Crile Forceps
0
Metzenbaum Scissors
0
Iris Scissors
may be straight or curved
Lister Bandage Scissors
0
Littauer Suture Scissors
0
Forester Sponge Forceps
0
Babcock Forceps
0
Bozeman Dressing Forceps
0
Graves vaginal speculum
0
mosquito forceps
0
Allis forceps
0
Tenaculum Forceps
0
curette
0
dilators
0
Scalpel Handle
0
dressing forceps
0
splinter forceps
0
tissue forceps
0
kelly forceps
may be curved or straight
staple remover
0
sims uterine sound
0
reflux hammer
0
scalpel blade
0
surgical blade remover
0
Clamping and Occluding
Are used in many surgical procedures for compressing blood vessels or hollow organs, to prevent their contents from leaking. Occlude means to close or shut. Therefore, these instruments are also used to control bleeding. They are either straight, curved or angled, and have a variety of inner jaw patterns. Hemostats and mosquito forceps are some examples of these types of instruments
Cutting and Dissecting
These instruments usually have sharp edges or tips to cut through skin, tissue and suture material. Surgeons need to cut and dissect tissue to explore irregular growths and to remove dangerous or damaged tissue. These instruments have single or double razor-sharp edges or blades. Nurses and OR personnel need to be very careful to avoid injuries, and regularly inspect these instruments before using, for re-sharpening or replacement.
Retracting and Exposing
These surgical instruments are used to hold back, or retract organs and tissue so the surgeon has access to the operative area. They spread open the skin, ribs and other tissue; and are also used separate the edges of a surgical incision. Some retracting and exposing instruments are "self-retaining," meaning they stay open on their own. Others manual styles need to be held open by hand
Grasping and Holding
These instruments, as their name suggests, are used to grasp and hold tissue or blood vessels that may be in the way during a surgical procedure. Medical assistants must make sure these instruments are working correctly, and that their locking mechanisms are lubricated for easy opening and closing, particularly after cleaning and reprocessing. Forceps are a very good example of these types of instruments
joints
1. lap joint2. box lock3. double-action joint
handle types
1. ring handle2. ring handle with one extra large handle3. grooved handle4. hollow handle
retaining systems
1. ratchet lock2. single springs3. double spring4. cam ratchet5. bar ratchet6. double leaf spring7. spring with roller8. double spring with ball an socket joint9. bar and wingnut10. sliding ring
blade curvature types
1. straight2. curved on flat- s-shaped3. curved on flat slightly or strongly curved
function of scalpel
incise tissuecomponents: handle + disposable blade
types of scissors
1. mayo operating scissors s/b or b/b2. Metzenbaum s/s3. iris scissors svd s/s4. lister bandage scissors s/b5. Littauer suture scissors
types of retractors
1. Beckmann-Weitlaner Refractor2. Volkman Rake Retractor3. Hohmann Refractor4. Volkman Finger Refractor
Types of Forceps
1. dressing forceps2. splinter forceps3. tissue forceps4. Allis forceps5. Bozeman dressing forceps6. Forester sponge forceps7. Babcock's forceps
Types of Hemostats
1. Mosquito Forceps2. Crile Forceps3. Kelly Forceps
Misc tools
1. Dilators2. Uterine curette3. Sims Uterine Sound4. Graves vaginal speculum
refraction refers to the bending of light rays so that they can be focused on the retina
true
a person who is farsighted has a condition known as myopia
false
an optometrist can perform eye surgery
false
the snellin eye test is conducted at a distance of 20 feet
true
the snellin eye chart should be positioned at the medical assistant's eye level
false
an eye instillation may be performed to treat an eye infection
true
conjunctivitis caused by a bacterium is not contagious
false
the most specific type of hearing test is the tuning fork test
false
serous otitis media can result in a conductive hearing loss
true
an ear instillation may be performed to treat an ear infection
true
a person who cannot see objects close up has a condition known as amblyopia
false
visual acuity refers to sharpness of vision
true
presbyopia is a decrease in the elasticity of the lens due to the aging process
true
an optician fills prescriptions for eyeglasses
true
the Snellin Big E chart is used with school-age children
false
the most common color vision defects are congenital in nature
true
the external auditory canal of an adult is straightened by pulling the ear downward and backward
false
the range of frequencies for normal speech is 300-4000Hz
true
Intense noise can result in a sensorineural hearing loss
true
tympanometry is used to diagnose patients with auditory nerve damage
false
a hot compress is an example of moist heat
true
erythema is redness of the skin caused by dilation of superficial blood vessels
true
the local application of cold may be used to relieve muscle spasms
false
chemical cold packs should be stored in the refrigerator
false room temp
an orthodontist is a physician who specializes in the diagnosis and treatment of disorders of the musculoskeletal system
false
the most frequent reason for applying a cast is to aid in the nonsurgical correction of a deformity
false
Numbness of the fingers or toes may indicate that a cast is too tight.
true
a coat hanger can be used to scratch under a cast if itching occurs
false
ambulation refers to the inability to walk
false
a patient using crutches should be instructed to support their weight on the axilla
false
the recommended time for the application of heat is 15-30 minutes
true
the local application of heat results in constriction of blood vessels in teh area to which it is applied
false- dialation of blood
the most frequent cause of low back pain is poor posture
true
an ice bag should be filled with large pieces of ice
false
if axillary crutches have been fitted properly, the elbow will be flexed at an angle of 30 degrees
true
A wet cast can cause a pressure area to occur.
false
the purpose of cast padding is to prevent pressure areas
true
is usually takes 10-12 weeks for a fracture to heal
false
Incorrectly fitted crutches may cause crutch palsy.
true
a cane should be held on the strong side of the body
true
a complete gynecologic examination consists of a breast exam and a pelvic exam
true
the American Cancer Society states that a breast self-exam is an option for women starting in their 20's
true
the purpose of the pap test is for the early detection of cervical cancer
true
the patient should be instructed to douche before having a Pap test
false
Bacterial vaginosis is the most common cause of abnormal discharge in women of childbearing age
true
another name for vulvovaginal candidiasis is a yeast infection
true
prenatal refers to the case of the pregnant women before delivery of the infant
true
during each return prenatal visit, the mother's urine is tested for glucose and protein
true
the normal range for the fetal pulse rate is between 120 and 160 beats per minute
true
amniocentesis can be used to diagnose certain genetically transmitted conditions
true
the patient position for a breast exam is the lithotomy position
false
most breast lumps are discovered by the provider
false
trichomoniasis is caused by a virus
false
chlamydia often occurs in association with syphilis
false
in the absence of complications, the first prenatal visit should be scheduled after a women missed her first period
false
True labor pains are referred to as Braxton Hicks contractions.
false
the purpsoe of measuring fundal height is to determine the degree of cervical dilation and effacement
false
the fetal heart tone can first be detected between 4 and 6 weeks of gestation using a Doppler fetal pulse detector
false
obstetric ultrasound scanning is used to assess fetal lung maturity
false
the perineum is the period of time in which the body systems are returning to their prepregnant state
false
a pediatrician is a medical doctor who specializes in the diagnosis and treatment of disease in children
true
The first well-child visit is usually scheduled 4 weeks after birth of the infant
false
length is measured with the child standing with their back to the measuring device
false
blood pressure should be taken for a child starting at 8 years of age
false
it is best not to tell a child that an immunization will hurt
false
the vastus lateralis muscle site is recommended for administering an injection to an infant
true
An MMR injection includes the following immunizations: measles, meningitis, and rubella
false
A vaccine information statement VIS explains the benefits and risks of a vaccine in lay terminology
true
the hepatitis b vaccine can be given to a newborn
true
the blood specimen for a newborn screening test is obtained from the infant's earlobe
false
a well-child visit is also referred to as a health maintenance visit
true
a reason for weighing a child is to determine proper medication dosage
true
growth charts can be used to identify children with growth abnormalities
true
measuring pediatric blood pressure helps to identify children at risk of type 1 diabetes
false
using a blood pressur cuff that is too large for the child can result in a a falsely loe reading
true
the length of the needle used for a pediatric IM injection depends on the amount of medication being administered
false
the resistance of the body to pathogenic microorganisms or their toxins is known as inflammation
false
the recommended route of administration for an MMR vaccine is subcutaneous
true
before administering a pediatric immunization, the National Childhood Vaccine Injury Act NCVIA requires that the parent sign a consent form
false
if phenylketonuria PKU is left untreated, it can lead to malnutrition
false
surgical asepsis refers to practices that keep objects and areas free from all microorganisms
true
one of the functions of a bandage is to hold a dressing in place
true
measuring a patients temperature requires the use of surgical asepsis
false
hemostatic forceps are used to clamp off blood vessels
true
an instrument with a ratchet should be kept in a closed position when not in use
false
the provider would most likely order a tetanus booster for an braision
false
inflammation is the protective response of the body to trauma and entrance of foreign substances
true
a serous exudate is red in color
false
Size 4-0 sutures have a smaller diameter than size 3 sutures
true
colposcopy is frequently used to evaluate lesions of the cervix
true
cryosurgery is used in the treatment of cervical cancer
false