Chapter 28 Textbook Quiz, MA 154, MA final, minor surgery tools

The most common sign of testicular cancer is a small, hard, painless lump on the testicle.

True

Consuming red meat may cause a false-positive result on a fecal occult guaiac slide test.

True

Ultrasonography allows for continuous viewing of a structure.

True

The breasts are compressed during mammography to prevent radiation burns.

False

A patient must remove all metal before undergoing MRI.

True

A prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level of 20 is within normal range.

False

There are often no symptoms in the early stages of prostate cancer.

True

Most prostate cancers are slow growing.

True

Nonvisible blood in the stool is termed occult blood.

True

The patient should be instructed not to move during a radiographic examination to prevent confusing shadows on the film.

False

The permanent record of the picture produced on x-ray film is a sonogram.

False

If a Hemoccult test result is positive, the physician may order a colonoscopy.

True

An IVP is a radiograph of the kidneys, ureters, and bladder.

True

Colorectal cancer is a common form of cancer in individuals older than 50 years.

True

Computed tomography produces a series of cross-sectional images.

True

The Hemoccult test should be stored at room temperature after applying a stool specimen to it.

True

Bone is an example of a radiolucent structure.

False

Mammography can be used to detect breast calcifications.

True

Patient preparation for a sigmoidoscopy includes partial bowel preparation.

True

A radioactive material is introduced into the body before a nuclear medicine imaging procedure is performed.

True

colonoscope

An endoscope that is specially designed for passage through the anus to permit visualization of the rectum and the entire length of the colon.

colonoscopy

the visualization of the rectum and the entire colon using a colonoscope

enema

An injection of fluid into the rectum to aid in the elimination of feces from the colon

Fluoroscope

An instrument used to view internal organs and structures directly in real time

fluoroscopy

Examination of a patient with a fluoroscope

Insufflate

To blow a powder, vapor, or gas (such as air) into a body cavity.

Melena

The darkening of the stool caused by the presence of blood in an amount of 50 mL or more

Peroxidase

a substance that is able to transfer oxygen from hydrogen peroxide to oxidize guaiac, causing the guaiac to turn blue

Radiograph

The permanent image produced by x-rays and recorded on a radiosensitive device such as a radiographic film or a digital device

radiography

The taking of permanent records of internal body organs and structures by passing x-rays through the body to act on radiosensitive device

Radiologist

A provider who specializes in the diagnosis and treatment of disease using radiation and other imaging techniques.

Radiolucent

describing a structure that permits the passage of x-rays

Radiopaque

Describing a structure that obstructs the passage of x-rays

Sigmoidoscope

an endoscope that is specially designed for passage through the anus to permit visualization of the rectum and sigmoid colon

sigmoidoscopy

visual examination of the rectum and sigmoid colon with a sigmoidoscope

Sonogram

The record obtained with ultrasonography

The function of the prostate gland is to

Secrete fluid that transports sperm

An IVP is used to assist in the diagnosis of all of the following except

Blockage of the urinary tractGrowths of the urinary system***Urinary tract infectionsKidney stones

Before performing an IVP, the patient must be asked if he or she is allergic to

Iodine

All of the following conditions can cause an elevated PSA level except

CT scanTransrectal ultrasoundBiopsy of the prostate gland***(Double-contrast barium enema or Testicular cancer)radiographic examination

All of the following are advantages of the fecal immunochemical test (FIT) as compared with the guaiac slide test except:

FIT is more sensitive to lower GI bleeding***FIT is less expensiveFIT has fewer false-positive test resultsFIT does not require dietary or medication restrictions

Any trace of blue appearing on or at the edge of the guaiac slide test is interpreted as

Positive

A normal prostate gland feels

Soft

All of the following medications must be discontinued before and during guaiac slide testing except

Vitamin C***AntihistaminesIron supplementsAspirin

Patient instructions for the guaiac slide test include

(All of the above.)***Store slides at room temperature.Begin the diet modifications three days before collecting the first stool specimen.Protect slides from heat and sunlight.Collect a sample from two different parts of each stool specimen.

What is the appearance of stool exhibiting melena?

Black and tarlike

colon/o

colon

-scope

instrument for visual examination

endo-

within

-oxia

oxygen

-ase

enzyme

ox/i

Oxygen

sigmoid/o

sigmoid (colon)

ech/o

sound

cardi/o

heart

fluor/o

fluorescence

-gram

record

-graph

instrument used to record

-graphy

process of recording

radi/o

radiation

-ologist

one who studies and practices (specialist)

-ology

study of

-lucent

transparent

-opaque

opaque

son/o

sound

ultra

beyond, excess

Mr. B. M. Abnormal is scheduled to have a fecal occult blood test in three days. Select the foods he should avoid while preparing for his test

**Cheese and onion pizzaEggsIce creamPork ChopsCheese**SteakOatmealShredded wheat cereal**Liver and onions**Hamburgers

Mr. B. M. Abnormal is scheduled to have a fecal occult blood test in three days. Select the medications from his med list that the provider may instruct the patient to avoid while preparing for this test

Metformin 500 mg PO bid***650 mg aspirin PO daily PRN joint pain***Multivitam with added iron 1 capsule PO dailyFiber supplement capsules 2 PO at HS***Ibuprofen 200 mg PO daily

ambulation

walking or moving from one place to another

ambulatory

able to walk as opposed to being confined to bed or a wheelchair

brace

An orthopedic device used to support and hold a part of the body in the correct position to allow functioning and healing.

cast

a stiff cylindrical casing that is used to immobilize a body part until healing occurs

compress

a soft, moist, absorbent cloth that is folded in several layers and applied to a part of the body in the local application of heat or cold

erythema

reddening of the skin caused by dilation of superficial blood vessels in the skin

exudate

a discharge produced by the body's tissues

maceration

the softening and breaking down of the skin as a result of prolonged exposure to moisture

soak

the direct immersion of a body part in water or a medicated solution

splint

an orthopedic device used to support and immobilize a part of the body

sprain

trauma to a joint that causes injury to the ligament

strain

An overstretching of a muscle caused by trauma

Abrasion

A wound in which the outer layers of the skin are damaged; a scrape

abcess

A collection of pus in a cavity surrounded by inflamed tissue

absorbable suture

suture material that is gradually digested and absorbed by the body

approximation

The process of bringing two parts, such as tissue, together through the use of sutures or other means

biopsy

1. The surgical removal and examination of tissue from the living body2. usually done to determine if tumor is benign or malignant

capillary action

The action that causes liquid to rise along a wick, a tube, or a gauze dressing.

colposcope

the visual examination of the vagina and cervix using a colposcope

cryosurgery

the therapeutic use of freezing temperatures to destroy abnormal tissue

fibroblast

an immature cell from which connective tissue can develop such as collagen used to make granulation tissue

forceps

a two-pronged instrument for grasping and squeezing

furuncle

A localized staphylococcal infection that originates deep within a hair follicle. Also known as a boil.

incision

A clean cut caused by a cutting instrument

infiltration

the process by which a substance passes into and is deposited within the substance of a cell, tissue, or organ

inflammation

a protective of the body to trauma and the entrance of foreign matter

laceration

a wound in which the tissues are torn apart, leaving ragged and irregular edges

ligate

to tie off and close a structure such as a severed blood vessel

needle biopsy

a type of biopsy in which tissues from deep within the body is obtained by the insertion of a biopsy needle through the skin

Nonabsorbable suture

Suture material that is not absorbed by the body and either remains permanently in the body tissue and becomes encapsulated by fibrous tissue or is removed

puncture

A wound made by a sharp-pointed object piercing the skin.

sebaceous cyst

a thin, closed sac or capsule that contains fatty secretions from a sebaceous gland

swaged needle

A needle with suturing material permanently attached to its end

wound

A break in the continuity of an external or internal surface caused by physical means.

serous exudate

Watery, consists primarily of fluid, some proteins, and white blood cells

sanguineous exudate

an exudate containing large amounts of red blood cells

purulent exudate

Drainage which contains pus, usually yellow, green or brown; indicates infection

serosanguineous exudate

thin, watery, and pale red to pink in color

amenorrhea

the absence of cessastion of the menstrual period. Amenorrhea occurs normally before puberty, during pregnancy, and after menopause

dysmenorrhea

pain associated with menstrual period

dysplasia

1.the growth of abnormal cells.2. it is a precancerous condition that may or may not develop into cancer

Ectocervix

the outermost layer of the cervix

effacement

1. the thinning and shortening of the cervical canal from its normal length of 1-2cm to a structure with paper-thin edges in which there is no canal at all2. Occurs late in pregnancy, during labor or both3. purpose of effacement along with dilation is to permit the passage of the infant into the birth canal

endocervix

the inner part of the cervix that forms a narrow canal that connects the vagina to the uterus

engagement expected date of delivery

1. EDD2. the entrance of the fetal head or the presenting part into the pelvic inlet3. projected birth date of the infant

external os

the opening of the cervical canal of the uterus into the vagina

fetal heart tones

the sounds of the heartbeat of the fetus heard through the mother's abdominal wall

fundus

the dome-shaped upper portion of the uterus between the fallopian tubes

menorrhagia

1. bleeding during a menstrual period, in the number of days or the amount of blood or both2. also called dysfuntional uterine bleeding DUB

perimenopause

Before the onset of menopause, the phase during which the woman with regular periods changes to irregular cycles and increased periods of amenorrhea

perineum

the external region between the vagina orifice and the anus in a female and between the scrotum and the anus in a male

presentation

indication of the part of the fetus that is closest to the cervix and is delivered first

puerperium

The period of time, usually 4 to 6 weeks after delivery, in which the uterus and the body systems are returning to normal.

insufflate

To blow a powder, vapor, or gas into a body cavity.

occult blood

blood in such a small amount that it is not detectable by the unaided eye

melena

the darkening of the stool caused by the presence of blood in an amount of 50 ml or more

sonogram

the record obtained with ultrasonography

radioplaque

describing a structure that obstructs the passage of x-rays

radiolucent

describing a structure that permits the passage of x-rays

ultrasonography

the use of high-frequency sound waves to produce an image of an organ or tissue

peroxidase

as it pertains to the guaiac slide test, a substance that is able to transfer oxygen from hydrogen peroxide to oxidize guaiac, causing the guaiac to turn blue

fluoroscope

an instrument used to view internal organs and structures directly in real time

endoscope

An instrument that consists of a tube and an optical system that is used for direct visual inspection of organs or cavities.

colonscope

An endoscope that is specially designed for passage through the anus to permit visualization of the rectum and the entire length of the colon.

echocardiogram

an ultrasound examination of the heart

radiograph

the permanent image produced by x-rays and recorded on a radiosensitive device such as radiographic film or digital device

contrast medium

a substance used to make a particular structure visible on a radiograph

astigmatism

A refractive error that causes distorted and blurred vision for both near and far objects due to a cornea that is oval shaped.

audiometer

an instrument used to measure hearing acuity quantitatively for the various frequencies of sound waves

canthus

the junction of the eyelids at either corner of the eye

cerumen

a yellowish waxy substance secreted by glands in the ear canal which functions to lubricate and protect the ear canal.earwax

hyperopia

a refractive error in which the light rays are brought to a focus behind the retina, resulting in difficulty viewing objects at a reading or working distance. farsightedness

impacted cerumen

cerumen that is wedged firmly together in the ear canal so as to be immovable

instillation

the dropping of a liquid into a body cavity

irrigation

the washing of a body canal with a flowing solution

myopia

a refractive error in which the light rays are brought to focus in front of the retina, resulting in difficulty viewing objects at a distance. nearsightedness

otoscope

an instrument used to examine the external ear canal and tympanic membrane

presbyopia

a decrease in the elasticity of the lens that occurs with aging, resulting in a decreased ability to focus on close objects

refraction

the deflection or bending of light rays by a lens

tympanic membrane

a think, semitransparent membrane between the external ear canal and the middle ear that receives and transmits sound waves. Eardrum

adolescent

an individual 12-18 years old

immunity

the resistance of the body to the effects of a harmful agent, such as a pathogenic microorganism and its toxins

immunization active artificial

the process of becoming immune or of rendering an individual immune through the use of a vaccine or toxoid

length

recumbent. the measurement from the vertex of the bead to the heel of the foot of a patient in a supine position

pediatrician

a physician who specializes in the care and development of children and the diagnosis and treatment of children's diseases

pediatrics

the branch of medicine that deals with the care and development of children and the diagnosis and treatment of children's diseases

preschool age

a child from 3-6

school aged child

6-12 years old

toddler

1-3 years

toxoid

a toxin that has been treated by heat or chemicals to destroy its harmful properties. it is administered to an individual to prevent an infectious disease by stimulating the production of antibodies in that individual

vertex

the top of the head

DTap

diptheria and tetanus toxoids and acellular pertussis vaccine

Hib

haemophilus influenza B vaccine

IPV

inactivated polio vaccine

PCV

pneumococcal conjugate vaccine

RV

rotavirus vaccine

var

varicella (chicken pox vaccine)

MCV4

Meningococcal vaccine

State when you would utilize a hot compress during patient injury

I would use a hot compress for a patient injury if I wanted to increase suppuration, improve circulation to that part of the body to help with healing, to promote drainage from an infection, or to soften exudate. Heat will cause dilation of the blood vessels in the area where the heat is applied this can cause an increase in blood supply to the area resulting in nutrients and oxygen being moved into the cells faster and toxins and waste being removed from the cells faster. It can also cause an increase in tissue metabolism.

What is the difference between a sprain and strain?

A sprain is trauma that occurs to a joint that causes injury to a ligament. This differs to a strain which is an over stretching of the muscles caused by trauma.

State 3 types of ambulatory aids.

Crutches- these are either axillary or forearmcanes- standard cane, tripod cane, quad canewalkers- can have 2 wheels and two rubber stoppers on the feet, 4 wheels, or 4 stoppers

Describe, in detail, how to measure a patient for axillary crutches.

First the patient should be wearing shoes and they should be standing as tall as they can. The crutch length should be adjusted so that the should rests are about 1.5-2 inches below the axillae. This is important that the should rests are below the axillae as pressure on the axilla can cause crutch palsy. The length of the crutch can be adjusted by either the spring loaded push button on the bottom of the crutch or by removing the bolt and wing nut and sliding the support piece in the direction needed to get the correct length then reattaching the bolt and wing nut. To position the handgrip place the crutch under the patients arm with the correct height already established. The patient should be standing tall. Then adjust the handgrip so that the patients elbow is flexed at about 30 degrees. This adjustment can be made by removing the wing nut and moving the handgrip up or down.

Describe, in detail, how you would instruct a patient on utilizing the following gaits (5 points each gait):4-point gait

1. I would instruct the patient to start in the tripod position which is having both crutches slightly in front and to the side of the feet. This is about 4-6 inches in front and 4-6 inches to the side or to what is comfortable.2. Next I would tell the patient to move the right crutch forward about 6 inches.3. Next I would tell them to move the left foot forward so that it is level with the left crutch.4. Then to move the left crutch forward about 6 inches5. I would then instruct them to start again with moving the right crutch forward, followed by the left foot, then left crutch, then right foot.6. Once they became comfortable I would instruct them to not move more then about a foot forward at a time to maintain stability and to look forward while walking not at their feet and instruct them on the other safety guidelines.

Describe, in detail, how you would instruct a patient on utilizing the following gaits (5 points each gait):3-point gait

1. I would instruct the patient to start in the tripod position which is having both crutches slightly in front and to the side of the feet. This is about 4-6 inches in front and 4-6 inches to the side or to what is comfortable.2. Next I would tell the patient to move both crutches forward about 6 inches along with the injured leg that can't bear weight3. At this point the I would tell them to move the uninjured leg forward to the distance of the crutches while balancing on both crutches.4. Once stable I would tell them to again move both crutches forward, putting no weight on the injured leg then while balancing on the two crutches to move the uninjured leg forward. This is then continued until they get to where they are wanting.5. Again once they are comfortable they can move the crutches about 12-15 inches forward at a time or what feels comfortable and stable6. I would instruct in general for the patient to look forward and not at their feet while using the crutches as well as the other safety guidelines.

Describe, in detail, how you would instruct a patient on utilizing the following gaits (5 points each gait): Swing-Through gait

1. I would instruct the patient to start in the tripod position which is having both crutches slightly in front and to the side of the feet. This is about 4-6 inches in front and 4-6 inches to the side or to what is comfortable.2. I would then instruct the patient to move both crutches forward about 6 inches.3. I would then instruct that the patient while balancing their weight on the crutches lifts their legs and "swings" the body past where the crutches are located.4. once stable, I would instruct the patient to again move both crutches forward then again while balancing on the forward crutch move the entire body past where the crutches are.5. Once they feel comfortable they can make larger movement with the crutches and feet to about 12-15 inches.6. I would instruct the patient to look forward while using the crutches as well as the other safety guidelines that are helpful.

The purpose of a sterile fenestrated drape is to

Provide a sterile area around the operative site

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a minor office surgery?Performed in an ambulatory care facilityPerformed in a short period of timeRequires a general anestheticDoes not pose a major risk to life

Requires a general anesthetic

The purpose of practicing surgical asepsis during minor office surgery is to

Protect the patient from pathogenic microorganisms

Protect the patient from pathogenic microorganisms

Do not use the article; obtain another one.

Which of the following instruments consists of a handle and a blade and is used to make surgical incisions and divide tissue?Operating scissorsScalpelBandage scissorsDissecting scissors

Scalpel

Which of the following instruments has serrated tips, ring handles, and ratchets and is used to clamp off blood vessels?Allis tissue forcepsHemostatic forcepsSponge forcepsCurette

Hemostatic forceps

Which of the following instruments is used to hold tissue aside to improve exposure of the operative area?RetractorsBiopsy forcepsProbeTenaculum

Retractors

When not in use, an instrument with a ratchet should be stored

In an open position

Which of the following represents an error in technique when pouring a sterile solution?Ensuring that the solution is within its expiration datePlacing the solution cap on a flat surface with the open end facing downPalming the label of the solution bottleRinsing the lip of the bottle

Placing the solution cap on a flat surface with the open end facing down

What name is given to the type of wound in which the tissues are torn apart, leaving ragged and irregular edges?

Laceration

What occurs during the inflammatory phase in the healing process?

A blood clot plugs the opening of the wound

The protective response of the body to trauma and the entrance of foreign substances is called

Inflammation

The function of the healing process of a wound is to

Restore the structure and function of damaged tissue

The function of a bandage is to

Support a body partControl bleedingImmobilize a part of the bodyHold a dressing in place

Hemostasis

the arrest of bleeding by natural or artificial means

abrasion

a wound in which the outer layers of hte skin are damaged; a scrape

local anesthetic

drug that produces a loss of feeling

contusion

bruise

A ------- is an instrument used to clamp off blood vessels.scalpelhemostatsneedleholderfoceps

hemostats

-------- are used to divide or separate tissue rather than cut it.bandage scissorsdissecting scissorsoperating scissorssuture scissors

dissecting scissors

4 local signs of infection

rednessswellingpainwarmth

serous

thin watery and clear liquid coming from a wound

serosanguinous drainage

thin water liquid that is pale red to pink in color that is coming from the wound

purulent drainage

thick or thin drainage that is an opaque tan to yellow color but might also be white, pink, or green and it contains pus and usually has a bad odor

patient prep for minor surg

The medical assistant should wash their hands and assemble the supplies that they need.Once the MA has identified the patient then the medical assistant should explain the procedure and ask the patient to remove any additional clothing, tell them where to put their clothing, and assist them with the removal if needed.The medical assistant should then put the patient in the appropriate position and provide a drape if necessary.If the area where surgery is to be performed is hairy the hair should be removed using scissors to clip the excess hair away and a razor to remove the remaining hair.When using a razor to remove hair a light should be moved to the area to better see the space.Gauze should be put into a soapy solution and used one at a time to the area to be shaved then discarded.Razor should be used at a 30 degree angle, with the skin pulled taut, and the hair shaved in the direction of the hair growth. Razors should be cleaned with the soapy water to remove excess hair. Wetted gauze should then be used to clean the area of any remaining soap or hair.Once hair is removed then an antiseptic solution should be put onto the surgical site. The physician may have a specific solution they want to have used. When applying the solution work from the inside out in a circular motion.Upon applying the antiseptic then a sterile cover drape or towel should be placed over the prepared area.The medical assistant should tell the patient not to touch the sterile area or the tray that has the tools for the procedure.The medical assistant should then look into the patients well being.Before medical assistant should also make sure to gain consent for the procedure before it is done and ensure that if preparation was needed to be done before the procedure such as fasting that the patient has followed those instructions.

cutting and dissecting

operating scissors

clamping and occluding

kelly hemostat

retracting and exposing

volkman retractor

grasping and holding

tissue forceps

at what age should males give themselves TSE's

15 years old

this procedure aids in the diagnosis of urinary tract blockage, kidney stones and growths

Intravenous pyelography

at what age should women have their first mammogram if they do not have a family history of breast cancer

40

the visualization of the mucosa of the rectum and colon is a

colonoscopy

this procedure uses high-frequency sound waves for the study of soft tissues

ultrasound

state symptoms of prostate cancer

1.difficulty with urination2. weak or interrupted urinary flow3. pain or burning while urinating4. frequent urination5. blood in the urine6. pain in the lower back, pelvis, or upper thighs

State the appropriate patient preparation for a colonoscopy. be thorough!

1. 5 Days before the procedure the patient should stop talking iron, aspirin, and other asprin products.2. Two days before the procedure the patient should stop taking antiinflammatory drugs to min the risk of bleeding if a polyp is to be removed3. Any other medication restrictions will be given by the provider4. 1 day before the procedure and until the procedure is completed the patient should not consume solid food or milk products. They should only consume gelatin or popsicles except purple or red. They should drink only clear liquid but alcohol is not allowed. Coffee and tea are ok but no milk or cream can be added.5. To prepare the bowls a laxative the afternoon before the procedure should be taken. This is usually in a powder and usually comes with a gallon container. I would tell the patient to read the instructions given but in general the gallon bottle is filled with water and the laxative is mixed in. The solution should be stored in the fridge.a) drink the laxative solution one 8 ounce glass every 10-15 minutes until 8 glasses are consumed. This can cause nausea bloating. This should subside once bowl movements start but if not then slow down drinking or take a 30 minute break.b) The first movement should be about 1 hour after the patient started drinking the solution. An expected number of movements is about 10-15.c) if after drinking 1/2 the container your bowl movements are clear or pale yellow then you can stop drinking the solution but if it is not continue drinking every 15 minutes until it is6. Do not eat or drink after midnight the day before the procedure and if medication need to be taken and are approved by the provider only take them with a sip of water.7. Make sure to have transportation arranged for after the procedure as the patient will be in a sedated state.8. Then expect some bloating, cramping, and gas after the procedure and some blood in the stool for 1-2 days if a biopsy or polyp was removed.9. I would also tell them after the procedure if there is any rectal bleeding, fainting, dizziness, shortness of breath, or heart palpitations then to contact the office.

antero-posterior (AP)

radiographic view from front to back

postero-anterior (PA)

radiographic view from back to front

lateral

radiographic view from the side

oblique

radiographic view from an angle.

Medical Asepsis

that an object or area is clean and free from infection. Non-pathogens would still be present on a clean or medically aseptic substance or surface, but all the pathogens would have been eliminated by the practices of asepsis.

most important procedure in keeping things medically asepsis

hand hygiene

Surgical Asepsis

sterile technique, refers to practices that keep objects and area sterile, or free from all living microorganisms and spores. Surgical asepsis protects the patient from pathogenic microorganisms that may enter the body and cause a disease.

Sterile technique is always employed under the following circumstances:

when caring for broken skinsuturesPunctureswhen the skin is being penetrated for a surgical reason (mole removal) when a body cavity is entered that is normally sterile

List guidelines that should be followed in caring for instruments.

Handle instruments carefully.Do not pile instruments in a heap.Keep sharp instruments separate from other instruments.Keep instruments with a ratchet in an open position when not in use.Rinse blood and body secretions off an instrument as soon as possible.Always use the instrument for the purpose for which it was designed.Sanitize and sterilize instruments using proper technique.

difference between a closed and an open wound?

A closed wound is an injury to the underlying tissues of the body without a break in the skin surface or mucous membrane,whereas an open wound has a break in the skin or mucous membrane that exposes the underlying tissue.

What occurs during the inflammatory phase of wound healing?

This last for 3-4 days and during this time a fibrin network forms to plug the open would and will eventually form a scab.During this time inflammation will occur causing an increase of blood flow to the area which allows for an increase in WBC and nutrients to the area which help promote healing. As inflammation occurs redness, swelling, pain, and warmth will also be experienced during this time.A fibrin network forms, resulting in a blood clot that plugs the opening of the wound and stops the flow of blood.

What occurs during the granulation phase of wound healing?

fibroblast produce collagen which will fill in the would and protect the surface of the wound by produce granulation tissue. This phase last for 4-20 days and it will produce tissues that is red to dark pink, that is smooth and moist to the touch, and is painless.

What occurs during the maturation phase of wound healing?

The maturation phase can last up to 2 years after the granulation tissue has formed. During this time collagen is continued to be produced and turned into granulation tissue and over time this tissue will turn white and become scar tissue.

Surgical asepsis refers to practices that keep objects and areas free from all microorganisms.

true

something that is sterile is contaminated if it comes in contact with a pathogen

true

reaching over a sterile field is a violation of sterile technique

true

an incision is a jagged tearing of the tissues

false

the skin is the first line of defense of the body

true

one of the local signs of inflammation is fever

false

sutures approximate the edges of a wound until proper healing occurs

true

a biopsy is usually performed to determine whether an infection is present

false

an ingrown toenail can be caused by shoes that are too tight

true

one of the functions of a bandage is to hold a dressing in place

true

Which technique (medical asepsis or surgical asepsis) would be employed during the following procedures?Administering Medication?

medical asepsis

Which technique (medical asepsis or surgical asepsis) would be employed during the following procedure?Inserting sutures

surgical asepsis

Which technique (medical asepsis or surgical asepsis) would be employed during the following procedure?Measuring Oral Temperature

medical asepsis

Which technique (medical asepsis or surgical asepsis) would be employed during the following procedure?Applying a bandage to the forearm

medical asepsis

Which technique (medical asepsis or surgical asepsis) would be employed during the following procedure?Performing a needle biopsy

surgical asepsis

Which technique (medical asepsis or surgical asepsis) would be employed during the following procedure?Removing a sebaceous cyst

surgical asepsis

Which technique (medical asepsis or surgical asepsis) would be employed during the following procedure?Obtaining a Pap specimen

medical asepsis

Which technique (medical asepsis or surgical asepsis) would be employed during the following procedure?Inserting a urinary catheter

surgical asepsis

Which technique (medical asepsis or surgical asepsis) would be employed during the following procedure?Incision and drainage of an abscess

surgical asepsis

Which technique (medical asepsis or surgical asepsis) would be employed during the following procedure?Applying a dressing to an open wound

surgical asepsis

Hemostatic forceps are used to clamp off blood vessels.

true

An instrument with a ratchet should be kept in a closed position when not in use.

false

The physician would most likely order a tetanus booster for an abrasion.

false

Inflammation is the protective response of the body to trauma and the entrance of foreign substances.

true

A serous exudate is red in color.

false

Size 4-0 sutures have a smaller diameter than size 3 sutures.

true

Sebaceous cysts are commonly found on the palms of the hand.

false

Colposcopy is frequently used to evaluate lesions of the cervix.

true

Cryosurgery is used in the treatment of cervical cancer.

false

bi/o

life

-opsy

to view

colp/o

vagina

-=scope

instrument used for visual examination

-scopy

visual examination using a scope

cry/o

cold

fibr/o

fibrous tissue blast: developing cell

hem/o

blood

stasis

control, stop

all are functions of a sterile dressing exceptProtect the wound from containmentabsorbs drainageprevents infectionrestricts motion

prevents infection

All are nonabsorbable sutures exceptSilkChromic Surgical gutstaplespolyesterpolybutester

chromic surgical gut

What is the name of the physician who developed the Pap test?

Dr. George Papanicolaou

The most commonly used method to prepare the Pap specimen for evaluation is the _________________________.

liquid-based method

State 5 risk factors of breast cancer.

1.age2. family history where someone in the family has had breast cancer3. dense breast tissue4. gender5. personal history of having breast cancer

Nagele rule

count back 3 months from date of last normal menstrual periodAdd 1 year and 7 days

The American Cancer Society recommends that women start having mammograms at what age?

40

dyspasia

growth of abnormal cells

dyspareunia

pain during sexual intercourse

menorrhagia

excessive bleeding during menstruation

metrorrhagia

bleeding between periods

The pelvic exam consists of all of the following exceptInspection of external genitaliaBimanual examRectal-vaginal examPelvic ultrasound

pelvic ultrasound

At what age should women start self breast exams?

20

All cervical cancers are caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV).

false

The outermost layer of the cervix consists of a thin, flat layer of cells, approximately _________ layers thick.

10

This vaginal infection can be identified by adding a drop of potassium hydroxide onto a sterile slide moistened with vaginal discharge.

candida

The most common sexually transmitted disease in the U.S. is

chlamydia

embryo

conception through the first 8 weeks

gestation

period of pregnancy

fetus

third month after conception to birth

infant

birth to 12 months old

The ectocervix is the outer portion of the cervix that projects into the vagina.

true

This life-threatening complication of pregnancy is characterized by hypertension, edema and albuminuria.

preeclampsia

All are warning signs during pregnancy exceptvaginal bleedingLack of vaginal dischargeVaginal dischargeMenstrual-like cramping

lack of vaginal discharge

Syphilis is not able to cross the placental barrier.

false

A normal fetal HR is between

120-160 bpm

Amniocentesis diagnosis all of the following conditions exceptcongenital abnormalitieschromosomal disordersgenetic metabolism errorsall of these can be diagnosed through amniocentesis

all of these can be diagnosed through amniocentesis

Nullipara is when a woman completes one pregnancy to the age of fetal viability.

fale

Gynecology is the branch of medicine that deals with

Diseases of the reproductive organs of women

Which of the following radiographic examinations uses air and barium to view the colon in great detail?

Double-contrast barium enema

In what position is the patient placed for a breast examination?

supine

In preparation for a gynecologic examination, the patient should be instructed toEmpty her bladder, if neededUndress completelyWear the examining gown with the opening in frontBreathe deeply, slowly, and evenly during the examination All of these

all of these

The function of the prostate gland is to

secrete fluid that transports sperm

Almost all cervical cancers are caused by

HPV

Why is it important that the patient be relaxed during the pelvic examination?For easier insertion of the vaginal speculumTo make the examination easier for the patientTo make it easier for the physician to perform the bimanual pelvic examinationTo reduce patient discomfort All of these

all of these

Which of the following patients is most likely to develop candidiasis?A patient with poor hygieneA patient with irregular menstrual periodsA patient on prolonged antibiotic therapyA patient with multiple sexual partners

a patient on prolonged antibiotic therapy

When collecting a specimen for a Pap test, the ectocervical specimen is obtained using The S-shaped end of the spatulaThe rounded end of the spatulaA moistened cotton-tipped applicatorA cytology brush

the s-shaped end of the spatula

Which of the following is an advantage of the liquid-based Pap method?Almost all of the Pap specimen is preservedDebris is removed from the specimenThe cells are dispersed in a thin even layer on the slideAll of the above

all of the above

The purpose of a bimanual pelvic examination is to

Determine the size, shape, and position of the uterus and ovaries

What parts of the colon are viewed during a colonoscopy?Sigmoid colonDescending colonTransverse colonAscending colonAll of these

all of these

Which of the following conditions can be diagnosed with a PET scan?Brain cancer and heart diseaseDiabetesInflammatory bowel diseaseMultiple sclerosis

brain cancer and heart disease

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of trichomoniasis?Profuse, frothy vaginal dischargeRed spots on the cervixItching of the vulva and vaginaAbdominal pain

abdominal pain

What is the purpose of a bone density scan?To detect a ruptured diskTo detect bone lossTo detect a stress fractureTo detect bone cancerAll of these

to detect bone loss

Symptoms of chlamydial infection in a female (if they occur) includeDysuriaItchingIrritation of the genital areaYellowish, odorless vaginal dischargeAll of these

DysuriaItchingIrritation of the genital areaYellowish, odorless vaginal discharge

Which of the following can be used to diagnose chlamydia and gonorrhea?

DNA-probe test

What is the purpose of prenatal care?To prevent diseaseTo promote healthTo provide prenatal educationEarly detection of problemsAll of these

To prevent diseaseTo promote healthTo provide prenatal educationEarly detection of problems

Which of the following is NOT included in the first prenatal visit?Fundal height measurementPelvic examinationCompletion of a prenatal record formDetermination of fetal presentation and position

Determination of fetal presentation and position

All of the following are warning signs during pregnancy exceptHeartburnVaginal bleedingBlurred visionAbdominal pain

heartburn

What is the most common medical disorder of pregnancy?HypertensionThrombophlebitisGestational diabetesPreeclampsia

hypertension

The purpose of measuring fundal height is to

Assess whether fetal growth is progressing normally

What is the term for a woman who has been pregnant more than once?

multigravida

Which of the following conditions may cause blood in the stool?HemorrhoidsDiverticulosisColorectal cancerPolypsAll of these

HemorrhoidsDiverticulosisColorectal cancerPolyps

What is the appearance of stool exhibiting melena?

black and tarlike

What is occult blood?

blood that is not visible

why must the patient consume a high-fiber diet before guaiac slide testing

to encourage bleeding from intestinal lesions

Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the medical assistant during a sigmoidoscopy?Lubricating the physician's gloved finger for the digital examinationInsufflating air into the colonPlacing lubricant on the sigmoidoscopeAssisting with suctioning equipment

insufflating air into the colon

All of the following are symptoms of prostate cancer exceptDifficulty in urinatingPainful urinationWeak urinary flowThick, yellow discharge from the penis

Thick, yellow discharge from the penis

Gonorrhea is transmitted through

sexual intercourse

Which of the following increases the PSA level?FastingSmokingVigorous exerciseAlcohol consumption

vigorous exercise

The American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists recommends that a woman perform a breast self-examination

one per month

When should a testicular self-examination be performed?

after taking a warm shower

The permanent record of the picture produced on the X-ray film is known as a

radiograph

The purpose of contrast medium is to

Make a structure visible on a radiograph

The breasts are compressed during mammography toPrevent the patient from movingProtect the patient from radiation burnsObtain a clear radiographReduce patient discomfortAll of these

Prevent the patient from movingProtect the patient from radiation burnsObtain a clear radiographReduce patient discomfort

An IVP is a radiograph of the

kidneys, ureters, bladder

The absence or cessation of the menstrual period is known as

Amenorrhea

Amniocentesis can be used to

Aid in the diagnosis of congenital abnormalitiesAssess fetal lung maturityDetermine the gender of the fetusDetect fetal distress

Which of the following is a characteristic of ultrasonography?Cannot be used for bone studiesShows movementAllows for continuous viewing of a structureDoes not use radiationAll of these

Cannot be used for bone studiesShows movementAllows for continuous viewing of a structureDoes not use radiation

The purpose of the present pregnancy history is toEstablish a baseline for the present health status of the prenatal patientRecord medications being taken by the patientDetermine if the patient has experienced any of the early signs of pregnancyCalculate the EDDAll of these

Establish a baseline for the present health status of the prenatal patientRecord medications being taken by the patientDetermine if the patient has experienced any of the early signs of pregnancyCalculate the EDD

To prepare for a CT scan, the patient mustDiscontinue all medications two days before the scanRemove all radiopaque objectsConsume four glasses of water 1 hour before the scanPerform a cleansing enema on the morning of the examination

remove all radiopaque objects

Which of the following is a characteristic of magnetic resonance imaging?It is safe and painlessThe patient must remove all metal before the procedure.The patient must remain still during the procedure.The patient hears a metallic clacking sound during the procedure.

It is safe and painlessThe patient must remove all metal before the procedure.The patient must remain still during the procedure.The patient hears a metallic clacking sound during the procedure.

What is the purpose of the Pap test?

Early detection of cervical cancer

Mayo Operating Scissors

can be s/b or b/b

Crile Forceps

0

Metzenbaum Scissors

0

Iris Scissors

may be straight or curved

Lister Bandage Scissors

0

Littauer Suture Scissors

0

Forester Sponge Forceps

0

Babcock Forceps

0

Bozeman Dressing Forceps

0

Graves vaginal speculum

0

mosquito forceps

0

Allis forceps

0

Tenaculum Forceps

0

curette

0

dilators

0

Scalpel Handle

0

dressing forceps

0

splinter forceps

0

tissue forceps

0

kelly forceps

may be curved or straight

staple remover

0

sims uterine sound

0

reflux hammer

0

scalpel blade

0

surgical blade remover

0

Clamping and Occluding

Are used in many surgical procedures for compressing blood vessels or hollow organs, to prevent their contents from leaking. Occlude means to close or shut. Therefore, these instruments are also used to control bleeding. They are either straight, curved or angled, and have a variety of inner jaw patterns. Hemostats and mosquito forceps are some examples of these types of instruments

Cutting and Dissecting

These instruments usually have sharp edges or tips to cut through skin, tissue and suture material. Surgeons need to cut and dissect tissue to explore irregular growths and to remove dangerous or damaged tissue. These instruments have single or double razor-sharp edges or blades. Nurses and OR personnel need to be very careful to avoid injuries, and regularly inspect these instruments before using, for re-sharpening or replacement.

Retracting and Exposing

These surgical instruments are used to hold back, or retract organs and tissue so the surgeon has access to the operative area. They spread open the skin, ribs and other tissue; and are also used separate the edges of a surgical incision. Some retracting and exposing instruments are "self-retaining," meaning they stay open on their own. Others manual styles need to be held open by hand

Grasping and Holding

These instruments, as their name suggests, are used to grasp and hold tissue or blood vessels that may be in the way during a surgical procedure. Medical assistants must make sure these instruments are working correctly, and that their locking mechanisms are lubricated for easy opening and closing, particularly after cleaning and reprocessing. Forceps are a very good example of these types of instruments

joints

1. lap joint2. box lock3. double-action joint

handle types

1. ring handle2. ring handle with one extra large handle3. grooved handle4. hollow handle

retaining systems

1. ratchet lock2. single springs3. double spring4. cam ratchet5. bar ratchet6. double leaf spring7. spring with roller8. double spring with ball an socket joint9. bar and wingnut10. sliding ring

blade curvature types

1. straight2. curved on flat- s-shaped3. curved on flat slightly or strongly curved

function of scalpel

incise tissuecomponents: handle + disposable blade

types of scissors

1. mayo operating scissors s/b or b/b2. Metzenbaum s/s3. iris scissors svd s/s4. lister bandage scissors s/b5. Littauer suture scissors

types of retractors

1. Beckmann-Weitlaner Refractor2. Volkman Rake Retractor3. Hohmann Refractor4. Volkman Finger Refractor

Types of Forceps

1. dressing forceps2. splinter forceps3. tissue forceps4. Allis forceps5. Bozeman dressing forceps6. Forester sponge forceps7. Babcock's forceps

Types of Hemostats

1. Mosquito Forceps2. Crile Forceps3. Kelly Forceps

Misc tools

1. Dilators2. Uterine curette3. Sims Uterine Sound4. Graves vaginal speculum

refraction refers to the bending of light rays so that they can be focused on the retina

true

a person who is farsighted has a condition known as myopia

false

an optometrist can perform eye surgery

false

the snellin eye test is conducted at a distance of 20 feet

true

the snellin eye chart should be positioned at the medical assistant's eye level

false

an eye instillation may be performed to treat an eye infection

true

conjunctivitis caused by a bacterium is not contagious

false

the most specific type of hearing test is the tuning fork test

false

serous otitis media can result in a conductive hearing loss

true

an ear instillation may be performed to treat an ear infection

true

a person who cannot see objects close up has a condition known as amblyopia

false

visual acuity refers to sharpness of vision

true

presbyopia is a decrease in the elasticity of the lens due to the aging process

true

an optician fills prescriptions for eyeglasses

true

the Snellin Big E chart is used with school-age children

false

the most common color vision defects are congenital in nature

true

the external auditory canal of an adult is straightened by pulling the ear downward and backward

false

the range of frequencies for normal speech is 300-4000Hz

true

Intense noise can result in a sensorineural hearing loss

true

tympanometry is used to diagnose patients with auditory nerve damage

false

a hot compress is an example of moist heat

true

erythema is redness of the skin caused by dilation of superficial blood vessels

true

the local application of cold may be used to relieve muscle spasms

false

chemical cold packs should be stored in the refrigerator

false room temp

an orthodontist is a physician who specializes in the diagnosis and treatment of disorders of the musculoskeletal system

false

the most frequent reason for applying a cast is to aid in the nonsurgical correction of a deformity

false

Numbness of the fingers or toes may indicate that a cast is too tight.

true

a coat hanger can be used to scratch under a cast if itching occurs

false

ambulation refers to the inability to walk

false

a patient using crutches should be instructed to support their weight on the axilla

false

the recommended time for the application of heat is 15-30 minutes

true

the local application of heat results in constriction of blood vessels in teh area to which it is applied

false- dialation of blood

the most frequent cause of low back pain is poor posture

true

an ice bag should be filled with large pieces of ice

false

if axillary crutches have been fitted properly, the elbow will be flexed at an angle of 30 degrees

true

A wet cast can cause a pressure area to occur.

false

the purpose of cast padding is to prevent pressure areas

true

is usually takes 10-12 weeks for a fracture to heal

false

Incorrectly fitted crutches may cause crutch palsy.

true

a cane should be held on the strong side of the body

true

a complete gynecologic examination consists of a breast exam and a pelvic exam

true

the American Cancer Society states that a breast self-exam is an option for women starting in their 20's

true

the purpose of the pap test is for the early detection of cervical cancer

true

the patient should be instructed to douche before having a Pap test

false

Bacterial vaginosis is the most common cause of abnormal discharge in women of childbearing age

true

another name for vulvovaginal candidiasis is a yeast infection

true

prenatal refers to the case of the pregnant women before delivery of the infant

true

during each return prenatal visit, the mother's urine is tested for glucose and protein

true

the normal range for the fetal pulse rate is between 120 and 160 beats per minute

true

amniocentesis can be used to diagnose certain genetically transmitted conditions

true

the patient position for a breast exam is the lithotomy position

false

most breast lumps are discovered by the provider

false

trichomoniasis is caused by a virus

false

chlamydia often occurs in association with syphilis

false

in the absence of complications, the first prenatal visit should be scheduled after a women missed her first period

false

True labor pains are referred to as Braxton Hicks contractions.

false

the purpsoe of measuring fundal height is to determine the degree of cervical dilation and effacement

false

the fetal heart tone can first be detected between 4 and 6 weeks of gestation using a Doppler fetal pulse detector

false

obstetric ultrasound scanning is used to assess fetal lung maturity

false

the perineum is the period of time in which the body systems are returning to their prepregnant state

false

a pediatrician is a medical doctor who specializes in the diagnosis and treatment of disease in children

true

The first well-child visit is usually scheduled 4 weeks after birth of the infant

false

length is measured with the child standing with their back to the measuring device

false

blood pressure should be taken for a child starting at 8 years of age

false

it is best not to tell a child that an immunization will hurt

false

the vastus lateralis muscle site is recommended for administering an injection to an infant

true

An MMR injection includes the following immunizations: measles, meningitis, and rubella

false

A vaccine information statement VIS explains the benefits and risks of a vaccine in lay terminology

true

the hepatitis b vaccine can be given to a newborn

true

the blood specimen for a newborn screening test is obtained from the infant's earlobe

false

a well-child visit is also referred to as a health maintenance visit

true

a reason for weighing a child is to determine proper medication dosage

true

growth charts can be used to identify children with growth abnormalities

true

measuring pediatric blood pressure helps to identify children at risk of type 1 diabetes

false

using a blood pressur cuff that is too large for the child can result in a a falsely loe reading

true

the length of the needle used for a pediatric IM injection depends on the amount of medication being administered

false

the resistance of the body to pathogenic microorganisms or their toxins is known as inflammation

false

the recommended route of administration for an MMR vaccine is subcutaneous

true

before administering a pediatric immunization, the National Childhood Vaccine Injury Act NCVIA requires that the parent sign a consent form

false

if phenylketonuria PKU is left untreated, it can lead to malnutrition

false

surgical asepsis refers to practices that keep objects and areas free from all microorganisms

true

one of the functions of a bandage is to hold a dressing in place

true

measuring a patients temperature requires the use of surgical asepsis

false

hemostatic forceps are used to clamp off blood vessels

true

an instrument with a ratchet should be kept in a closed position when not in use

false

the provider would most likely order a tetanus booster for an braision

false

inflammation is the protective response of the body to trauma and entrance of foreign substances

true

a serous exudate is red in color

false

Size 4-0 sutures have a smaller diameter than size 3 sutures

true

colposcopy is frequently used to evaluate lesions of the cervix

true

cryosurgery is used in the treatment of cervical cancer

false