S2: Test 1 1.3 and lab 1

Anemia

a reduction in the number of red blood cells, the amount of hemoglobin, or hematocrit

apheresis

Withdrawal and separation of blood elements.

blast phase cells

Immature white cells that are dividing rapidly.

engraftment

The successful "take" of the transplanted cells in the patient's bone marrow (recipient)

Erythrocytes

red blood cells

glossitis

smooth, beefy red tongue

hemoglobin A (HbA)

normal adult hemoglobin whose globin unit consists of two alpha and two beta chains

hemoglobin F (HbF)

The main type of hemoglobin in the fetus, having two normal A chains and two normal gamma chains that bind oxygen more tightly than does hemoglobin A or S.

hemoglobin S (HbS)

the hemoglobin of sickle cell disease in which 2 are normal A chains and 2 abnormal beta chains that fold poorly, causing the red blood cells to assume a sickle shape under low oxygen conditions

hemolytic

destruction of red blood cells

hypercellularity

Cellular excess in the peripheral blood.

indolent

slow growing

intrinsic factor

a substance normall secreted by the gastric mucosa that is needed for intestinal absorption of vitamin B12

leukemia

blood cancer that results from a loss of normal cellular regulation, leading to uncontrolled production of immature WBCs in the bone marrow

leukocytes

WBCs fight infection

leukopenia

reduction in the circulating number of WBC

Lymphomas

cancers of the lymphoid cells and tissues with loss of cellular regulation and abnormal overgrowth of lymphocytes

cellular regulation

process to control cellular growth, replication, and differentiation to maintain homeostasis

malignant

cancerous

multiple myeloma (MM)

A white blood cell cancer of mature B-lymphocytes called plasma cells that secrete antibodies.

nadir

the period after chemotherapy in which bone marrow suppression is the most severe.

pancytopenia

low circulating numbers of all blood cell types

perfusion

adequate arterial blood flow through the tissues (peripheral perfusion) and blood that is pumped by the heart (central perfusion) to oxygenate body tissues

peripheral blood stem cells (PBSC)

stem cells that have been released from the bone marrow and circulate within the peripheral blood

pernicious anemia

anemia resulting from failure to absorb vitamin B12, caused by a deficiency of intrinsic factor (a substance normal secreted by the gastric mucosa), which is needed for intestinal absorption of vitamin B12

philadelphia chromosome

abnormal chromosome associated with chronic myelogenous leukemia caused by a translocation of the ABL gene from chromosome 9 onto the BCR gene of chromosome 22

polycythemia vera (PV)

general increase in red blood cells (erythremia) that have decreased function

SCD crisis

episodes of extensive cellular sickling that obstruct perfusion causing tissue hypoxia and severe pain

sickle cell disease

A genetic disorder in which red blood cells have abnormal hemoglobin molecules and take on an abnormal shape. mutation of beta genes that causes chronic anemia, pain, disability, organ damage, increased risk for infection, and early death because of poor blood perfusion

stomatitis

mouth sores

teratogen

any factor that can cause a birth defect

Thrombocytopenia

A reduction in the number of platelets circulating in the blood from reduced platelet production

Thrombocytopenic purpura

The destructive reduction of circulating platelets after normal platelet production.

Febrile reaction to blood transfusion

Caused by antibodies. S/S include fever, chills, HA, flushing, tachycardia, increased anxiety stop and notify physician, change IV tubing, treat sypmtoms if present: o2, fluids, epinephrine as ordered, recheck crossmatch record with unit

allergic reaction to blood transfusion

mild: hives, pruritis, facial flushing severe: SOB, bronchospasm, anxiety stop and notify physician, change IV tubing, treat sypmtoms if present: o2, fluids, epinephrine as ordered, recheck crossmatch record with unit

Hemolytic transfusion reaction

Low back pain, hypotension, tachycardia, fever and chills, chest pain, tachypnea, hemoglobinuria, may have immediate onsetstop and notify physician, change IV tubing, treat sypmtoms if present: o2, fluids, epinephrine as ordered, recheck crossmatch record with unit obtain 2 blood samples distal to infusion site, obtain first UA-test for hemoglobinuria, monitor fluid/electrolyte balance, evaluate serum calcium levels

universal donor

O-

universal recipient blood type

Type AB+

blood component: RBCs leukoreduced

collected by apheresis technology increases oxygen carrying capacity and treats symptomatic anemia

blood component: RBC reduced by whole blood donation

increases oxygen carrying capacity, treats symptomatic anemia

blood component: RBC washed

increases oxygen carrying capacity, used for severe repeated allergic transfusion reactions and or IgA deficient patients

BUBBLE HE assessment

Breasts, Uterus, Bladder, Bowels, Lochia, Episiotomy, Homan's Sign, Emotional Status

Order of blood draw

1. Sterile tubes (yellow or blood culture)2. citrate/ coagulation tube (light blue)3. serum tube (red, royal, orange) serum separator (gold or red/black speckled)4. heparin tube/ plasma separator (light green or green/black speckled)5. EDTA (lavender, pink, royal, tan, or white)6. glycolytic inhibitor / Sodium fluoride (grey)

SallyBringsReallyGood Grease and Leaves the Gravy

sterileblueredgoldgreen lavendergray

Which action would the nurse perform to best ensure effective insertion of a venous access device into a patient's arm?A. Anchor the vein by placing a thumb 1 to 2 inches below the site.B. Insert the device tip at a 45-degree angle distal to the proposed site.C. Place the patient's left arm in a dependent position for 5 minutes before assessment.D. Apply a tourniquet to the left antecubital fossa 8 to 12 inches above the proposed site.

a. Anchoring the vein by placing a thumb 1 to 2 inches below the site stabilizes the vein, increasing the possibility of a successful insertion. The angle of insertion should be 10 to 30 degrees. Placing the patient's arm in a dependent position is directed toward improving visualization of the vein. Applying a tourniquet to the left antecubital fossa is directed toward improving visualization of the vein and should be applied 4 to 6 inches above the site.

How might the nurse prepare a patient to anticipate some discomfort when inserting a venous access device?A. Instruct the patient to expect a sharp, quick stick.B. Insert the access device as quickly as possible.C. Apply a topical anesthetic to the area before inserting the device.D. Promise that the procedure will not hurt once the device has been inserted.

a. Rationale: Educating the patient to have reasonable expectations about the possible discomfort will best prepare him or her for it. Inserting the access device as quickly as possible will not prepare the patient regarding what to expect. Applying a topical anesthetic will reduce the likelihood of pain; however, this is not routinely done when inserting a venous access device. It is inappropriate to make such a promise.

Which of the following technique(s) is/are best for minimizing a patient's risk for injury when inserting a venous access device?A. Inserting the needle with the bevel upB. Using a vein on the dorsal surface of the armC. Holding the skin taut directly below the siteD. All of the above

d. All of these actions will minimize injury to the patient. Inserting the needle bevel-up minimizes vein trauma by the needle itself. Use of adequate veins reduces the chance for rupture. Holding the skin taut directly below the site will decrease drag on insertion.

The nurse is inserting an over-the-needle catheter into a newly admitted patient. What will the nurse do after confirming blood return?A. Loosen or remove the tourniquet.B. Advance the catheter 1 inch into the vein.C. Lower the catheter until it is flush with the skin.D. Thread the catheter into the vein up to the hub.

c. Lowering the catheter until it is flush with the skin minimizes the risk of passing the needle through the opposite vessel wall. The tourniquet is loosened or removed later in the procedure. This is done later in the procedure. Threading the catheter into the vein up to the hub is done later in the procedure.

Which instruction might the nurse give to nursing assistive personnel (NAP) regarding the care of a patient with an intravenous access device?A. "Assess the IV site frequently for signs of inflammation."B. "Be sure not to obscure the insertion site with the dressing."C. "Let me know when you notice that the IV bag contains less than 100 milliliters."D. "Explain the symptoms of infection to the patient.

c.

social cognitive theory

individuals expectations influence their behaviors

cognitive-behavioral theory

thought affect behavior. helping people to change they way they thing about health and illness

prenatal care

Consuming a healthy diet. Taking a prenatal vitamin with minimum dailic folic acid requirements, getting regular exercise, avoid alcohol and drugs, managing preexisting conditions.Monitor mothers weight, BP, urine

Family Systems Theory

a theory that views the family as a system of interacting parts whose interactions exhibit consistent patterns and unstated rules

structural-functional family

family is a social system with specific roles

Family Stress Theory

Family response to & coping with stressful events

family life cycle theory

families pass through stages and relationships transition.

structural family assessment

who is in your family? who else lives with you? has anyone moved out recently?

genital congestion

a reflexive autonomic response facilitated by the parasympathetic and inhibited by the sympathetic nervous responses. getting an erection

Fundus

top of uterus

Braxton Hicks contractions

false labor

hyperemia

congestion with blood of the cervix resulting in bluish-purple color that extends to the vagina and labia

ovaries

secretes progesterone for the first 6-7 weeks of pregnancy. once the placenta is developed, it produces progesterone throughout pregnancy

Progesterone in pregnancy

Progesterone levels increase greatly during pregnancyPrepare breasts for lactation and reduce contractions of uterus (reduces spontaneous abortion)high levels affect brain (progesterone converted to allopregnanolone)- facilitates GABA receptors, increases inhibition, anxiolytic properties (reduces stress)Behavioral prophylactic for reducing spontaneous abortion

how much can blood volume increase in pregnancy

45%

why does plasma volume increase from week 6-32 weeks in pregnancy

it transports nutrients and oxygen to placenta, meets demands of maternal tissue in uterus and breasts, protects mom during blood loss in childbirth

RBC normal count and pregnant count

4.2-5.4 million3.8-4.4 million

hemoglobin normal count and pregnant count

12-16 g/dL11

hematocrit normal count and pregnant count

37-47%33%

WBC normal count and pregnant count

5,000-10,0005,000-15,000

pytalism

excessive salivation

pyrosis

heartburn

Melasma

Brownish pigmentation of the face during pregnancy; also called chloasma and "mask of pregnancy

chloasma

pigmentary skin discoloration usually occurring in yellowish brown patches or spots

how many weeks can the uterus be palpated at the umbilicus and then at the xiphoid process

20, 36

how is the fetus protected from bacteria ascending from the vagina

thick mucus fills the cervical canal

physiologic (pseudo) anemia

the plasma volume expands faster and to a greater extend than RBC volume which creates a dilution of hemoglobin concentration

Hypotensive syndrome

reduced blood pressure that can occur in women who lie down on their back which causes the uterus to compress the vena cava

what does slight hyperventilation and decreased airway resistance allow?

increased oxygen needs to be met

GFR (glomerular filtration rate)

90-120 mL/minRenal function

increased renal plasma flow results in an increased GFR which often causes

spilling of glucose and other nutrients into the urine

hCG (human chorionic gonadotropin)

This stimulates the corpus luteum to produce estrogen & progesterone

what may cause nausea in early pregnancy

Increased human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) and estrogen levels

what does increased progesterone cause

relaxation of smooth muscles which results in stasis of urine and the risk of UTIs and constipation

what maintains the uterine lining, prevents uterine contractions, and helps prepare the breast for lactation

progesterone

what happens in the initial antepartum visit

complete histore, physical examination to determine potential risks and to obtain baseline data

Is it safe to have sex while pregnant?

yes

what does making the transition to the role of a mother involve

mimicking the behavior of other mothers, fantasizing about the baby, developing a sense of self as mother, and grieving the loss of previous roles

paternal responses depend on the ability to

perceive the fetus as real, gain recognition as the role of a parent, and to create a role as an involved father

human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

hormone produced by the placenta to sustain pregnancy by stimulating the ovaries to produce estrogen and progesterone until the fetus is developed enough to assume the function at 10-12 weeks

estrogen functions to

Stimulates uterine growthIncreases the blood flow to uterine vesselsStimulates development of the breast ducts to prepare for lactation

Progesterone during pregnancy

-Maintains endometrium -Prevents uterine contractions-prevents tisuue rejection of the fetus -prepares breasts for lactation-Secreted by:*Corpus luteum - first 12 weeks of pregnancy*Placenta - 12 weeks until the end of pregnancy

amenorrhea

absence of menstruation

Goodell's sign

softening of the cervix

Chadwick's sign

Bluish purple discoloration of the cervix, vagina, and labia during pregnancy as a result of increased vascular congestion.

when does fetal movement start

second trimester

Hegar's sign

softening of the lower uterine segment

Ballottement

a sharp upward pushing against the uterine wall with a finger inserted into the vagina for diagnosing pregnancy by feeling the return impact of the displaced fetus

gestational age 5-8 weeks

mom misses period, nausea, fatigue, tingling of breasts, uterus is a size of a lemon

gestational age 9-12 weeks

nausea, uterus is a size of an orange

gestational age 13-16 weeks

~Fetal movement around 16 weeks felt~Uterus has risen into the abdomen~Fundus midway between symphysis pubis and umbilicus~Colostrum present~Blood volume increases

gestational age 17-20 weeks

~Fetal movements felt~Heartbeat can be heard with a fetoscope~Skin pigmentation increases~Areolae darken~Melasma and linea nigra may be obvious~Braxton Hicks contractions palpable ~Fundus at the level of the umbilicus at 20 weeks

gestational age 21-24 weeks

~Relaxation of smooth muscles of veins and bladder increases the chance of varicose veins and UTIs~More aware of fetal movements

gestational age 25-28 weeks

~Greatest weight gain~Lowest hemoglobin levels~ Lordosis may be cause of back pain

gestational age 29-32 weeks

~Heartburn is common as uterus presses against diaphragm and displaces stomach~ Braxton Hicks contractions more noticeable ~ Lordosis increases~Waddling gait develops due to increased mobility of pelvic joints

gestational age 33-36 weeks

~Shortness of breath ~Hard to find comfortable position to sleep~Umbilicus protrudes~Varicosities are pronounced~Pedal or ankle edema present~Urinary frequency noted following lightening when presenting part settles into pelvic cavity

gestational age 37-40 weeks

~Woman is uncomfortable~Ready to deliver~Cervix softens, begins to efface; mucus plug is often lost

uterine souffle

soft, blowing sound made by the blood in the arteries of the pregnant uterus and synchronous with the maternal pulse

Agglutination inhibition test

Presence of agglutination is considered a negative result

When can fetal heart tones be heard with a stethoscope?

16-20 weeks

gravida

has been pregnant reguardless of how long

primigravida

first pregnancy

multigravida

woman who has been pregnant more than once

para

number of pregnancies that have ended at 20 or more weeks whether or not the baby was alive

nullipara

no births after 20 weeks

primipara

a woman who has borne one child after 20 weeks

multipara

woman who has given birth to two or more children

what is the gravida and para of a women who gives birth to twins

1, 1

average duration of pregnancy from the first day of the last normal menstrual period is

40 weeks or 280 day

Nageles rule for calculating a due date is?

1st day of the last menstrual periodAdd 7 daysSubtract 3 months

average RR of pregnant women is

16-24

preeclampsia

a complication of pregnancy characterized by hypertension, edema, and proteinuria

what is the recommended weight gain for a pregnant woman

25-35 lbs, the amount is more for underweight woman and less for obese woman

what is tested in each visit during a urine test

protein, glucose, and ketones

fetal HR should be

110-160

ambivalence

mixed feelings or emotions

couvade

symptoms of pregnancy and birth experienced by fathers

Doula

A caregiver who provides continuous physical, emotional, and educational support for the mother before, during, and after childbirth.

Protein intake during pregnancy

71 g/day, normal is 46g

what can excessive weight gain in pregnant woman cause

macrosomnia and other complications

macrosomia

baby with a large body

how much weight should a pregnant woman gain each week

1.1-4.4 lb during the first trimester and 0.8-1lb for the rest

what are the fat soluble vitamins and where are they stored

ADEK in the liver. over consumption can have toxic effects

why is it necessary for the daily intake of water soluble vitamins to be higher

excesses are excreted

what minerals are pregnant women most likely to not take enough of

iron and calcium. they are often added as a supplement

how much water should a pregnant woman drink in a day

8-10 cups

how much grains, vegetables, fruits, milk products, and protein should a pregnant woman eat every day

grain: 7-9 oz vegetables 3-3.5 cups fruit: 2 cups milk: 3 cups protein 6-8 oz

what should you do for a low-income pregnant woman who does not have the money or knowledge for proper nutrition

refer her for financial assistance and nutritional counseling

lactose intolerant women should increase _ intake from _

calcium, calcium-rich vegetables

nutritional risk factors that warrant adaptations of diet during pregnancy

abnormal preg weight, anemia, eating disorders, pica, multiparity, substance abuse, closely spaced pregnancies, multifetal pregnancies

a lactating mother should increase her caloric intake to

330 more calories in the first 6 months then 400 more the second 6 months

How much iron is needed during pregnancy?

1000 mg of absorbed iron because it increases in maternal RBC and for fetal iron storage

heme iron

Iron—found in red meat, fish, and poultry—that the body absorbs efficiently.

nonheme iron

the iron in foods that is not bound to proteins; found in both plant-derived and animal-derived foods

why do pregnant women need more sodium

to provide for the expanded blood volume and the needs of the fetus

why is calcium important in pregnancy

it is transfered to the fetus especially in the last trimester and is important for mineralization of fetal bones and teeth

importance of vitamin A in pregnancy

fetal growth and cell diffusionacutane should not be taken during pregnancy

importance of vitamin D in pregnancy

metabolism of calcium

importance of vitamin E in pregnancy

antioxidant, important for tissue growth and integrity of cells

importance of vitamin K in pregnancy

necessary for blood clotting

importance of vitamin B6 in pregnancy

amino acid metabolism and in blood, hormone, and immune function

importance of vitamin B12 in pregnancy

cell division, protein synthesis, and formation of RBC

importance of folic acid in pregnancy

cell replication and amino acid and hemoglobin synthesis

importance of iron in pregnancy

formation of hemoglobin and enzymes for metabolism, storage for the fetus in the liver for use after birth, expanded maternal volume, formation of fetal RBC

importance of calcium in pregnancy

fetal bone and teeth formation, cell membrane permeability, coagulation, and neuromuscular function

importance of zinc in pregnancy

fetal and maternal tissue growth, cell differentiation and reproduction, DNA and RNA synthesis, metabolism, acid-base balance

importance of magnesium in pregnancy

cell growth and neuromuscular function, activates enzymes for metabolism of protein and energy

gynecologic age

The number of years since menarche (first menstrual period).

complete proteins contain

all essential amino acids

essential amino acids

Amino acids that are needed, but cannot be made by the body; they must be eaten in foods

incomplete proteins

Proteins that are missing one or more of the essential amino acids; found in plant sources such as nuts and legumes

Pica

an abnormal craving or appetite for nonfood substances, such as dirt, paint, or clay that lasts for at least 1 month

ultrasound

real time scanning which a rapid sequence of fixed images is displayed on the screen, showing movement in tissues can detect heartbeat of fetus and breathing and movement

alpha-fetoprotein

protein that binds with estradiol in the bloodstream of immature mammalstrue gestational age must be known

multiple marker screening

Analysis of maternal serum for abnormal levels of alpha-fetoprotein, human chorionic gonadotropin, and estriols that may predict chromosomal abnormalities of the fetus; often called triple-screen. Addition of tests such as inhibin A has improved accuracy of the results, leading to alternate names for this package of tests.

Non-stress test

Looks at FHR with activity - Favorable results- 2 or more FHR accelerations of 15 beats lasting 15 seconds in a 20 minute period

FHR

fetal heart rate

Biophysical profile

A test that assess five variables; fetal breathing, fetal movement, fetal tone, amniotic fluid volume, and fetal reaction

Maternal Assessment of Fetal Movement

-Movements by the fetus are assessed by themother.-They are often called "kick counts."-Several methods for the mother to count-At least 10 fetal movements within 12 hours-Count two or three times per day to identify whether the fetus has at least three movements in 60 minutes

involution

Return of the uterus to a nonpregnant state after birth

how does the site of placetal attachment heal

exfoliation which leaves the endometrium smooth and without scars

how many days after childbirth should the fundus be no longer palpable abdominally

14

how should lochia be assessed

amount, type, odor foul odor suggests endometrial infection

endometrium

inner lining of the uterus

Lochia rubra, serosa, and alba

Rubra-for the first two hours, decreases, total about 3-4daysSerosa-lasts about 22-27days, in most, after 10 days it changes to AlbaAlba-lasts about 10-14days, but may last longer-in total bleeding lasts about 4-8weeks

when does the vagina regain its nonpregnant size

6-10 weeks

thrombi

blood clotsprevented by frequent ambulation

what can reduce musculoskeletal discomfort

exercises to strengthen abdominal muscles, good posture, and body mechanics

dyspareunia

painful intercoursebreastfeeding mothers are more likely to experience this due to vaginal dryness from inadequate estrogen

postpartum blues

a mild, transient emotional letdown experienced by a majority of women after giving birthtemporary and should not last more than 2 weeks

Peurperium period

first 6 weeks after birth

Catabolism

Metabolic pathways that break down molecules, releasing energy.

decidua

the thick layer of modified mucous membrane that lines the uterus during pregnancy and is shed with the afterbirth.

Exfoliation

The removal of excess dead cells from the skin surface.

Subinvolution of the uterus

Uterus remains enlarged with continued lochial discharge which may result in postpartum hemorrhage

milk ejection reflex

release of breast milk in response to oxytocin, also called the let-down reflex

episiotomy

surgical incision of the perineum to enlarge the vagina and so facilitate delivery during childbirth

uterine atony

inability of the uterus to contract effectivelyprimary cause of excessive bleeding

diastasis recti

midline longitudinal ridge in the abdomen, a separation of abdominal rectus muscles

Prolactin

stimulates milk productionwill return to nonpregnant levels in 14 days if not breast feeding

REEDA

redness, edema, ecchymosis, drainage, approximationfor the assessment of the episiotomy or laceration

what kind of sitz baths should be recomended after birth

cool for the first 24 hours then hot after

fourth trimester

First 12 weeks after birth, a time of transition for parents and siblings.

Kegel exercises

repetitious contraction and relaxation of the pubococcygeal muscle to improve vaginal tone and urinary continence

abdominal breathing

slows RR rate and encourages deeper breathscan be started on 1st day postpartum

Head lift

few days after childbirth

knee and leg rolls

begins firming the waist

Attachment and bonding

process by which a parent comes to love and accept a child and a child comes to love and accept a parent

TAKING IN PHASE (POST PARTUM)

- immediatly after birth (hours- couple days)- Passive dependent behavior- relies on others for comfort, rest , and care. concerned for her own needs and overall health of newborn, talkative and excited reviewing birth experience.

Letting go phase

interdependent phase after birth in which the mother and family move forward as a system with interacting members

Taking hold phase

focuses on maternal role and care of the newborn; eager to learn; may develop blues

Promethazine

Antiemetic, normal antepartum drug

antiemetic

drug that prevents or stops vomiting

Ondansetron

Zofran for nausea and vomiting, normal antepartum drug

decussate sodium

stool softenernormal postpartum drug

Simethicone (Mylicon)

Antiflatulentnormal postpartum drug

antiflatulent

relieves gas and bloating in GI tract

oxycodone/acetaminophen

Percocetnormal postpartum drug

benzocaine pregnancy category

local anesthetic