Insert Question HereA)B)C)D)
Insert Answer Letter Only
When delivering positive pressure ventilation to an adult, each ventilation should last; A. 1 second B. 2 seconds C. 2 to 3 seconds D. 1 1/2 seconds American Heart Association CPR manual
A
Rescue breathing for an Child you should provide how many breaths per minute? A. 20 to 30 breaths per minute B. 20 to 24 breaths per minute C. 10 to 12 breaths per minutes D. 6 to 10 breaths per minute American Heart Association CPR manual
A
The cervical spine is MOST protected from whiplash-type injuries when the: A. rear end of the vehicle is initially struck. B. headrest is appropriately positioned. C. patient tenses up at the time of impact. D. air bag correctly deploys upon impact. Chapter 24 Trauma Overview - page 855
B
Evaluation of the interior of a crashed motor vehicle during extrication will allow the EMT to: A. assess the severity of the third collision of the crash. B. identify contact points and predict potential injuries. C. recognize if the driver hit the brakes before impact. D. determine the vehicle's speed at the time of impact.Chapter 24 Trauma Overview - page 851-853
B
Which of the following will worsen the condition of the patient in shock? A. Transporting without first splinting all extremity fractures B. Conducting oneself in a manner that increases the patient's fear and anxiety C. Elevating the patient's legs 8 to 10 inches D. Applying high-concentration oxygen when it is not needed Chapter 25 - Bleeding
B
In the average adult, the sudden loss of ___________ cc of blood is considered serious. A. 1,000 B. 150 C. 2,500 D. 400 Chapter 25 - Bleeding
A
Blood stasis, changes in the vessel wall, and certain medications affect the: A. the quantum firing of neurons in the brain. B. white blood cell's ability to fight infection. C. ability of the blood to effectively clot. D. ability of white blood cells to carry oxygen. Chapter 25 - Bleeding
C
When deciding where to transport a patient who is in hypovolemic shock or who has the potential for developing hypovolemic shock, which of the following is the most important service to be provided by the receiving hospital? A. Critical-care nursing B. Rehabilitation services C. Immediate surgical capabilities D. Availability of a chaplain Chapter 25 - Bleeding
C
Which of the following is part of the body's compensatory response to blood loss? A. Blood vessels dilate and the heart rate decreases. B. Blood vessels dilate and the heart rate increases. C. Blood vessels constrict and the heart rate increases. D. Blood vessels constrict and the heart rate decreases. Chapter 25 - Bleeding
C
Which of the following types of vessels have valves to maintain one-way blood flow? A. Capillaries B. Arteries C. Arterioles D. Veins Chapter 25 - Bleeding
D
You are assessing a 30-year-old woman with multiple large bruises to her chest and abdomen that she experienced during an assault. She is conscious but restless, and her skin is cool and pale. You should be MOST concerned with: A. performing a detailed secondary assessment to locate all of her injuries. B. the fact that her clinical signs could indicate that she is bleeding internally. C. assessing the bruises that overlie major organs in the chest and abdomen. D. obtaining a complete set of vital signs to rule out the possibility of shock. Chapter 26 Soft Tissue Injuries
B
Which of the following BEST describes an avulsion? A. A flap of skin that is partially or completely torn away from the underlying tissue B. The epidermis that is scraped away by a rough surface C. An injury caused by a sharp, pointed object D. An accumulation of blood beneath the skin, resulting in swelling Chapter 26 Soft Tissue Injuries - page
A
Which of the following is of LEAST importance when initially assessing the severity of a burn? A. age of the patient B. area(s) burned C. favorite meal eaten D. past medical history Chapter 26 Soft Tissue Injuries - page
C
Which of the following is of concern in a patient who received burns to his hand when he grabbed a live electrical wire? A. Toxic gases were inhaled. B. The extent of tissue damage may be much greater than it appears on the surface. C. The burning will continue for hours, perhaps days. D. The patient remains an electrocution hazard to rescuers for several minutes after being removed from the source of electricity. Chapter 26 Soft Tissue Injuries - page
B
A 39-year-old female experienced a severe closed head injury. She is unconscious with her eyes slightly open; her pupils are bilaterally dilated and slow to react. In addition to managing problems with airway, breathing, and circulation, you should: A. irrigate her eyes with water to prevent mucosal drying. B. inspect her eyes and gently remove impaled objects. C. close her eyes and cover them with a moist dressing. D. secure her eyes open so you can reassess her pupils. Chapter25 - Face and Neck Injuries
C
What is the function of the sternocleidomastoid muscle? A. connects the scapulae together B. provides respiration C. allows flexion of the knee D. allows movement of the head Chapter25 - Face and Neck Injuries
D
A 40-year-old male was in his woodworking shop when he felt a sudden, sharp pain in his left eye. Your assessment reveals a small splinter of wood embedded in his cornea. You should: A. cover both of his eyes and transport to the hospital. B. scrape the splinter away with moist, sterile gauze. C. remove the object with a cotton-tipped applicator. D. cover his right eye and flush the left eye with saline. Chapter25 - Face and Neck Injuries
A
The small, rounded, fleshy bulge immediately anterior to the ear canal is called the: A. tragus. B. incus. C. pinna. D. stapes. Chapter 27 Face and Neck Injuries - page
A
Significant trauma to the face should increase the EMT's index of suspicion for a(n): A. spinal cord injury. B. ETOH use. C. displaced mandible. D. basilar mandipital fracture. Chapter 25 - Face and Neck Injuries
A
Following direct trauma to the upper part of the anterior neck, a young male presents with labored breathing, loss of voice, and subcutaneous emphysema in the soft tissues around his neck. You should suspect a(n): A. crushed cricoid arteries. B. esophageal tear. C. laryngeal fracture. D. collapsed diaphragm.
C
When performing CPR at the end of each compression make sure you:A) Check patient pulseB) Allow for full chest recoil C) Check airway D) Give one quick breath
B
When opening in Infant airway that is unresponsive it is best to place the airway in a:A) Use jaw thrust on all infants B) Fully extend a head tilt-Chin lift C) Hyperextend the infants head to fully open the airway D) Neutral or sniffing position
D
The body's natural protective mechanisms against heat loss are:A) shivering and vasodilation. B) vasoconstriction and shivering. C) respiration and vasoconstriction. D) vasodilation and respiration. Chapter 32 - Environmental
B
Hypothermia occurs when the core body temperature falls below:A) 88°F (31°C). B) 95°F (35°C). C) 98°F (37°C). D) 90°F (32°C).Chapter 32 - Environmental
B
The transfer of heat to circulating air, such as when cool air moves across the body's surface, is called:A) conduction. B) radiation. C) evaporation. D) convection. Chapter 32 - Environmental
D
Which of the following is a common sign of a pre-delivery emergency?A) The placenta fails to deliver within 20 minutes of the infant's birth.B) Contractions become more intense and closer together. C) The amniotic sac ruptures. D) There is profuse vaginal bleeding
D
Which of the following is NOT part of a basic obstetrics kit?A) Surgical scissors B) Umbilical cord clamps C) A baby blanket D) packet of suture material Chapter 33 - Obstetrics and Neonatal Care
D
Which of the following statements regarding gestational diabetes is correct?A) Gestational diabetes results in permanent diabetes mellitus after delivery. B) In some cases, women with gestational diabetes require insulin injections. C) The onset of gestational diabetes typically manifests with hypoglycemia. D) Diet and exercise are typically ineffective in controlling gestational diabetes.Chapter 33 - Obstetrics and Neonatal Care
B
When preparing a pregnant patient for delivery, you should position her:A) in a supine position with her legs spread. B) on a firm surface with her hips elevated 2″ to 4″. C) on her left side with the right leg elevated. D) in a sitting position with her hips elevated 12″.Chapter 33 - Obstetrics and Neonatal Care
B
You are assessing a 25-year-old woman who is 39 weeks pregnant. She is experiencing regular contractions that are approximately 3 minutes apart and states that her amniotic sac broke 2 hours ago. After taking the standard precautions, you should:A) assess her for crowning. B) place her on her left side. C) transport her immediately. D) apply 100% oxygenChapter 33 - Obstetrics and Neonatal Care
A
Unless he or she is critically ill or injured, you should generally begin your assessment of a toddler:A) at the feet. B) at the head. C) in the ambulance. D) en route to the hospital. Chapter 34 - Pediatric Emergencies
A
Because infants and small children rely more heavily on the diaphragm for breathing, respiratory distress can be detected by observing which one of the following signs that is not prominent in adults?A) Use of the sternocleidomastoid muscles of the neck B) Bulging of the intercostal spaces C) None of the above D) Movement of the abdomen with respiratory effortChapter 34 - Pediatric Emergencies
D
The secondary assessment of a sick or injured child:A) is most appropriate when your transport time is short. B) may not be possible if the child's condition is critical. C) is a rapid head-to-toe exam to detect life threats. D) should be performed, regardless of the circumstances. Chapter 34 - Pediatric Emergencies
B
Which of the following findings is LEAST suggestive of child abuse?A) burns to the hands or feet that involve a glove distribution B) evidence of alcohol consumption or drug use at the scene C) consistency in the method of injury reported by the caregiver D) an unexplained delay in seeking medical care after the injuryChapter 34 - Pediatric Emergencies
C
An older woman with osteoporosis presents with pain and deformity to her left hip after she shifted her weight onto her other foot. She has MOST likely experienced a(n):A) pathologic fracture. B) comminuted fracture. C) idiopathic fracture. D) compression fracture. Chapter 35 - Geriatric Emergencies
A
Upon arriving at the residence of an elderly female who apparently fainted, you find the patient lying supine on her living room floor. She is not moving and her eyes are closed. A neighbor tells you that she found the patient this way, but did not move her. When you talk to the patient, she does not respond. You should:A) open her airway with the head tilt-chin lift maneuver, insert an oral or nasal airway, and assess her blood glucose level to rule out hypoglycemia. B) begin assisting her ventilations with a bag-mask device while your partner auscultates her lung sounds to ensure adequate positive-pressure ventilation. C) direct your partner to manually stabilize her head while you open her airway and ensure that her oropharynx is clear of secretions or blood. D) suction her airway, apply a cervical collar, administer high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, and perform a rapid assessment.Chapter 35 - Geriatric Emergencies
C
With age, the spine stiffens as a result of shrinkage of the intervertebral disc spaces, and the vertebrae become brittle. This increases the risk of:A) severe kyphosis. B) distracting injuries. C) spinal cord tearing. D) compression fractures. Chapter 35 - Geriatric Emergencies
D
A productive cough, fever, and chills in an 80-year-old patient with a compromised immune system should make you MOST suspicious for:A) pneumonia. B) emphysema. C) heart failure. D) bronchitis.Chapter 35 - Geriatric Emergencies
A
The tip of a central venous catheter rests in the:A) left atrium. B) right ventricle. C) pulmonary vein. D) vena cava. Chapter 36
D
A significant number of patients with cerebral palsy also have:A) seizure disorder. B) type 2 diabetes. C) paralysis. D) brain tumors. Chapter 36
A
What is the correct chest compression depth for a Infant?A) At least 1/2 the depth of the chest or 7.6 cmB) At least 1/2 for the depth the chest or 2.5 cmC) At least 1/3 the depth of the chest or 4 cmD) At least 1/4 the depth of the chest or 5 cm
C
High air temperature reduces the body's ability to lose heat by:A) conduction.B) evaporation.C) radiation.D) convection.
C
Geriatric patients are at a higher risk for heatstroke because:A) their ability to sweat is enhanced.B) circulation to the skin is reduced.C) most geriatric patients are obese.D) their ability to shiver is reduced.
B
The term primigravida refers to a woman who:A) has never been pregnant.B) has had only one live birth.C) is pregnant for the first time.D) has had more than one live baby.
C
Upon delivery of the baby's head, you note that its face is encased in the unruptured amniotic sac. You should:A) note the color of the amniotic fluid before breaking the sac.B) puncture the sac and suction the baby's mouth and nose.C) give the mother 100% oxygen and transport at once.D) leave the amniotic sac intact until arrival at the hospital.
B
Which of the following is the highest priority to the EMT in delivery of an infant with a history of a mother taking narcotics?A) Checking for feverB) Being prepared to BVM the baby if they do not respond to warm/dry/stimulatingC) Perform infant kungfur treatmentsD) Vigorously hitting the infant's head and back immediately upon delivery to stimulate breathing
B
If a pregnant patient requires spinal immobilization, you should secure her to the backboard and then:A) elevate the head of the board 6″ to prevent breathing impairment.B) tilt the board 30° to the right to prevent hypotension.C) elevate the right side of the board with rolled towels or blankets.D) raise the foot of the board 12″ in order to maintain blood pressure.
C
Which of the following is true concerning trauma in the pregnant woman?A) She may lose up to 35 percent of her blood volume before exhibiting signs of shock.B) All of the aboveC) The mother's body will preferentially protect the life of the fetus over that of the mother.D) The increase in blood volume during pregnancy makes shock an unlikely cause of death.
A
Death caused by shaken baby syndrome is usually the result of:A) bleeding in the brain.B) multiple open fractures.C) fracture of the cervical spine.D) intra-abdominal hemorrhage.
A
An infant or child with respiratory distress will attempt to keep his or her alveoli expanded at the end of inhalation by:A) grunting.B) retracting the intercostal muscles.C) wheezing.D) assuming a tripod position.
A
Before positioning an infant or child's airway, you should:A) insert an OPA.B) check the cap refill.C) put padding behind his or her head.D) place him or her on a firm surface.
D
The use of multiple prescription drugs by a single patient, causing the potential for negative effects such as overdosing or drug interaction, is called:A) potentiation.B) drug tolerance.C) drug dependency.D) polypharmacy.
D
Sedentary behavior in hospitals while healing from a hip fracture would MOST likely predispose the older patient to:A) itchy teeth.B) heart failure.C) osteoporosis.D) pneumonia.
D
When immobilizing a patient with a kyphotic spine to a long backboard, the EMT would MOST likely have to:A) place blankets behind the patient's head.B) force the head into a neutral alignment.C) secure the patient's head before the torso.D) use a scoop stretcher instead of a log roll.
A
You receive a call for a sick person. When you arrive, you find the patient, a 75-year-old male, lying unresponsive in his bed. His respirations are slow and irregular and his pulse is slow and weak. His daughter tells you that he fell the day before, but refused to allow her to call 9-1-1. His past medical history is significant for hypothyroidism, deep vein thrombosis, heavy alcohol use, and liver cirrhosis. His medications include blood thinners and vitamins. You should be MOST suspicious that this patient is experiencing:A) acute ischemic strokeB) diabetic ketoacidosis.C) a subdural hematoma.D) acute hyperglycemia.
C
Which of the following serious health problems is related to homelessness?A) HypertensionB) Heart diseaseC) TuberculosisD) Liver disease
C
General techniques for communicating with hearing-impaired patients include:A) speaking directly into the patient's ear with an increased voice pitch.B) positioning yourself approximately 18″ directly in front of the patient.C) exaggerating your lip movements to ensure the patient understands.D) removing any hearing aids and using pen and paper to ask questions.
B