Volume 1 (Self-Test)

what two unrelated factors determine the path of an aircraft over the earth?

direction and speed

explain the function of drift (angle) correction.

compensation for the wind to be able to get to the destination in the straightest and shortest path

what is the basic operating principle of VOR?

phase comparison of the two 30 Hz signals to determine bearing to the VOR

how does the ground station prevent interference between the 30Hz reference and 30 Hz variable signals?

the 30 Hz reference is transmitted on a 9960 Hz FM subcarrier

what information does the RMI display?

aircraft magnetic heading and the magnetic bearing to the VOR ground station

when the VOR signal is unreliable, what shows on the HSI?

the HSI NAV flag and the bearing pointer parked at 4 o'clock

where does the ARN-147 system park the HSI bearing pointer in ILS mode?

3 o'clock

in ILS mode, how much course error is represented by the second deviation dot on the HSI?

2.50 degrees

how does the ADI indicate a 0.6 degree GS error?

the GS displacement pointer will be positioned next to the second deviation dot

which aircraft system drives the ADI pitch and bank steering bars?

FDC

a fully equipped MLS runway has how many transmitters? what are their functions?

4 signal transmitters. 2 of the transmitters provide MLS azimuth functions; one of the remaining transmitters provides the elevation signal and the other provides DME information

what are the MLS operating frequencies?

5.03-5.09 GHz

why are the MLS operating frequencies in the microwave range?

to reduce sensitivity to interfering signals and site topography

how many MLSs are installed on the aircraft?

2

what are the main components of an aircraft MLS?

receivers, antennas, splitters, IDCU, data bus coupler, and FDMS

what type of information does a TACAN provide to a pilot?

bearing and distance information

how does the TACAN confirm a ground station's identification?

by using an audio conformation signal

what is the operating frequency range of a TACAN system?

UHF range

how is range information obtained?

by measuring time interval between signals

where are the antennas located on an F-16, and what do they provide?

1 on the top and 1 on the bottom of the fuselage; omnidirectional coverage

what happens to the vertical and horizontal components of the Earth's magnetic field as you approach the poles?

veritical - increases in magnitudehorizontal - decreases in magnitude

what is magnetic variation?

the error caused by true north and magnetic north not being the same

why does a change of latitude cause an error in the MAD?

the horizontal component of the Earth's magnetic field becomes too weak in the high latitudes

how does altitude affect the MAD output?

the horizontal component of the Earth's magnetic field weakens at high altitudes

what factors affect the magnitude of the Coriolis signal?

aircraft speed, aircraft heading, rotation of the Earth, and geographic latitude

what error is caused by risidual magnetism in the aircraft?

hard iron or one-cycle error

what error is caused by a misalignment of the MAD during installation?

index error

what causes transmission error?

an electrical unbalance in the MAD or any of the synchros that make up the compass system

name three frames of reference that can be used in an INS

Earth, space and grid

briefly explain how an INS accounts for aircraft's present position.

the system moves one space reference at an Earth rate and another at vehicle rate; the result is the aircraft position

name four types of sensors that may be used as data-gathering devices in an integrated navigational system.

inertial, radar, astrotracker, and radio

what type of information does a basic GPS provide?

accurate navigation aiding data

where are GPS satellites placed?

worldwide

what does the NAVSTAR GPS require at power turn-on to achieve optimum operation?

GPS almanac data, GPS initialization data and GPS crypto-variable

what is the purpose of the Kalman filter in the EGI system?

it models errors in velocit, position and calibration to provide enhanced alignment and in-flight performance

what is the altitude range of the CARA system?

0-50,000 ft

what is the transmitter swept CW frequency range?

4.24-4.35 GHz

what warns the pilot if the aircraft flies below the VALI setting?

low-altitude warning light comes on

what altitude is indicated on the digital display when self-test is activated using the SET knob?

300(+-10) ft

where is the receiver local oscillator frequency developed?

transmitter section

which two signals are used to develop the IF frequency?

current transmitter frequency and received RF signal from the terrain

what do the altitude tracking circuits use the lower sideband frequencies for?

to calculate absolute altitude and determine which segment the system will operate in

if it takes the transmit signal 20 usec to travel to the terrain and back, what IF frequency is produced in segment one?

2.528 MHz

how many different altitudes can an IF frequency of 395 kHz represent?

seven

what are the upper and lower boundary limits of segment six?

533 kHz, 266 kHz

what causes noise?

random or unintentional electron movement

what does sensitivity refer to?

a receiver's ability to pick up weak signals

what do we mean when we say that a receiver has good stability?

its signal will stay tuned to one channel without "drifting

what is selectivity?

a receiver's ability to block all frequencies except those selected

what supplies a radio's power output?

the transmitter

what is linearity?

any proportional change or deviation of a straight-line response to an input

what do you call an amplifier's output not accurately following its input?

distortion

what do you call the total opposition that a circuit offers to the flow of AC?

impedance

when does the maximum power transfer occur between two circuits?

when the circuit impedances match

what happens if you use a 75 ohm feed line to connect 50 ohm transmitter output to a 50 ohm antenna?

standing waves build between the transmitter and the antenna

what do you call the ability of radio circuits to maintain the original signal characteristics?

coupling stability

the heterodyne process converts the incoming RF signal into what frequency?

IF

how many output frequencies does the frequency conversion process create?

four

what are two types of circuits used for creating an IF?

mixer and converter

what is the process called of imposing information onto a carrier FR signal by varying the amplitude, frequency or phase of the carrier wave?

modulation

what are the three basic types of modulation used in radios?

AM, FM and PM

what's the meaning of the term demodulation?

to reproduce the exact signal that was originally imposed on the carrier wave

what are the three important characteristics of a detector?

sensitivity, selectivity and linearity

what type of modulation does the UHF system use?

AM

how many channels can be preset into the radio set?

twenty

how many channels does the UHF system have?

seven thousand channels

name the five major sections of the UHF transceiver.

switching unit, synthesizer/ECCM assembly, guard receiver, main receiver and transmitter

what are the three subassemblies of the transmitter?

modulator, RF power amplifier and power supply

how many digits are available on the channel frequency indications display?

five digits

how many antenna elements are contained in each UHF antenna, and what are they used for?

two elements; one for the UHF radio and one for the IFF transponder

what antenna select mode provides automatic cycling between the upper and lower UHF antennas?

NORM mode

what are the four requirements for HQ UHF radios to communicate with the frequency-hopping capability?

synchronized precision clocks, programmable frequency switching patterns, common frequency hop rates and selective active network systems

what capability is added when using a Have quick II radio?

multiple word of the day

what is the purpose of the KY-58?

provides for secure speech capabilities by coding and decoding UHF audio

what VHF mode is the only one that is extensively used mode?

the air-to-ground mode

what is the frequency range of the VHF AM communication?

116.000-151.975 MHz

what is the frequency range of the emergency FM communication?

38.000-43.000 MHz

describe the preset channel capability.

twenty reprogrammable channels and two emergency channels. each can be programmed for AM or FM

what frequency bands are available for emergency channels?

38-43 MHz for FM and 119-124 MHz for AM

what effect does selection of an emergency channel have on the secure speech capability?

secure speech is disabled and normal voice communication is enabled

an input of 25 MHz to the IF receiver indicates what mode?

AM mode

what type of radio wave is most important for HF radio?

sky waves

list the three factors that affect refraction of electromagnetic waves.

the frequency of the wave, the angle by which the waves meets the ionosphere and the degree of ionization of the ionosphere

to what is the amount of refraction directly proportional?

wavelength

with each refraction, is power lost or gained?

lost

what is the primary cause of atmospheric ionization?

sun

what is the basic purpose of HF radios?

to provide long-range communication

in reference to power, what is the difference between HF and UHF radios?

HF radios require a greatt deal more transmitter power

what is the difference between normal and AM and AME?

AME consists of the carrier and only one sideband

why is an antenna coupler required in an HF system?

to match the impedance of the antenna to the selected frequency

describe the channels of the ARC-190 systems.

280,000 channels spaced 100 Hz apart in the HF band of 2.0000-29.9999 MHz

what are the major components of the ARC-190 radio system?

R/T, control box, antenna coupler, R/T mount and coupler mount

how does the ARC-190 generate the frequencies needed?

they are derived from a temperature-compensated oscillator

what does the control box provide?

selection and indication of preset channels, frequency, mode, volume, and squelch for the system

how many channels are available in the HF radio set?

280,000 channels

what is the function of the LOAD switch?

this is a momentary-action push-button switch, which causes preset information to be loaded into memory

what is the CONTL FAULT indicator?

an indicator lights that lights up when the R/T BITE circuitry determines the control to be the source of a problem; also indicates certain shorts between the headsets

why is the tuner section of the antenna coupler pressurized?

to prevent high-voltage arcing at high altitudes, provide a uniform cooling medium, and prevent the entry of corrosive elements

when does the R/T's external blower come on?

when the R/T is keyed and for about a minute after it is unkeyed

what is the HF radio operating power and where does it come from?

115 VAC, 400 Hz, 3-phase; aircraft power

describe the general signal path for a receive operation.

signal -> antenna -> coupler -> R/T

describe the general signal path for a transmit operation.

XMT -> modulator -> antenna coupler -> R/T

what three purposes does the intercommunications system provide?

provides crew-to-crew communications, the ability to select, key and modulate radio R/Ts and the means to monitor received audio signals from radio and navigational system receivers

define these six terms: INTERPHONE, HOT-MIC, CALL, chassis ground, battery ground, and audio ground.

INTERPHONE - method of intercommunication requiring PTT switchHOT-MIC - method of crew-to-crew communicationCALL - emergency intercommunicationchassis ground - connected to chassis/framebattery ground - completes the path for current flow back to the power sourceaudio ground - return line for all audio voltages

what part of the intercommunication set control would the operator use to select, key and modulate any of the six different radios?

the rotary select switch

what is the purpose of the CALL switch?

used for emergency or high-priority communications between crew members

what two switches are required to activate HOTT-MIC transmit and receive?

HOT-MIC TALK and HOT-MIC LISTEN

what switches enable crew members to individually monitor and adjust the audio level of eight different inputs?

monitor switches

keying the MIC involves what action by the crew members?

placing the PTT switch into transmit mode of operation using the one- or two-button mode of operation

what three lines are routed by the rotary select switch of the intercommunication set control?

control, MIC audio and receiver audio

why is the passive satellite not as effective as the active?

passive satellites do not have any means for amplifying weak signals

explain the movement of the geosynchronous satellite.

move at the the same velocity as a specific point of the Earth

what is the power range of satellites generally used in AFSATCOM systems?

200-2,000 watts

why is satellite communications used for most critical communications needs?

because of its reliable, invulnerable, secure, and flexible communications

how many narrow-band channels are available in the Type 1 terminal?

35,000

what is the ouput power for the Type 1 terminal?

100 watts

what major component is used to prepare and send messages?

C-10080/A keyboard

what is the term used to describe automated channel sharing?

multiplexing

how are satellite channels allocated?

on the basis of current needs and priorities

what is the definition of CDMA?

a method of supporting multiple users over a single channel by precoordinating the uniqe frequencey each transmitter and associated receiver will use

what is the definition of TDMA?

a method of supporting multiple users over a single channel by precoordinating the time period each user will be given to transmit on the channel

what is the term used when two terminals attempt to transmit at the same time and interfere with each other?

contention

what is the definition of ranging?

the process where the terminal determines its distance to the satellite

what item of equipment must be added to an IFF system to obtain SIF capabilities?

adding an antenna on top of the radar antenna

besides determining azimuth and aircraft identification, what additional information does SIF equipment provide?

altitude

define the abbreviation AIMS.

Air traffic control radar beacon system, IFF, Mark XII System

what are the basic series of operations of the IFF transponder?

it receives RF interrogations from two antennas, decodes the interrogations into the proper mode, encodes the selected reply and transmits the coded RF reply

what IFF mode uses side-lobe suppression pulses?

mode 4

what are considered the normal IFF interrogation pulses?

two pulses, each approximately 0.8 usec wide

where are the information pulses located in a normal reply?

between the framing pulses

what are special replies?

identification of position and emergency

name the four modes of operation of the IFF transponder.

standby, normal, low and emergency

what does the audio output indicate?

the transponder is being interrogated in Mode 4

what is the function of the Mode 4 monitor switch?

controls the REPLY light indications and Mode 4 audio monitoring

what IFF mode permits a speical code to be transmitted for aircraft identification?

IDENT position

what is the Mode 3/A SIF code when emergency mode is selected?

SIF code 7700

when is the IFF caution light active?

only when a Mode 4 computer is installed

what term is given to the part of the airfoil facing into the wind during flight?

leading edge

what happens to the pressure over the top of an airfoil when the velocity of the airflow is increased?

the airflow travels farther and faster, causing the pressure to decrease

the chord is a straight line drawn from where to where?

the most distant parts of the leading and trailing edges

what are the two main reasons why airfoils differ in design?

to meet lift and speed requirements

from where is the angle of attack (AOA) derived?

from the angle between the chord line of the airfoil and the direction of the relative wind

explain how a high AOA adds to the total lift.

dynamic pressure created on the bottom of the airfoil adds to the total lift

what is a stall condition?

lift over the airfoils is destroyed

what four aerodynamic forces affect an aircraft during flight?

gravity, lift, thrust, and drag

which force attracts a body to the ground?

gravity

what force is produced by an aircraft's power plant?

thrust

what force does the friction and turbulence of the air produce as it passes over an aircraft?

drag

why is a high AOA necessary at slow-flight airspeeds?

because at slow speeds more lift is required to overcome drag and gravity

define the longitudinal axis.

an imaginary line that extends from the nose to the tail

define the Y-axis

an imaginary line that extends from the left wing tip to the right wing tip

define the vertical axis.

an imaginary line that extends vertically through the intersection of the X and Y axes

left wing down or right wing down is movement about which axis?

longitudinal

what is the movement about the lateral axis called?

pitch

what is the movement about the vertical axis called?

yaw

movment about the vertical axis is referenced to what part of the aircraft?

nose

where are the ailerons located?

near the wing tip

how do the ailerons move in reference to each other?

opposite each other

what does symmetrical movement of the stabilators provide?

pitch control

what does differential movement of the stabilators control?

roll control

to what is stabilator movement referenced?

trailing edge of the stabilator

where is the rudder located?

on the trailing edge of the vertical stabilizer

about what axis does the rudder provide control?

vertical

what control surfaces prevents an aircraft from stalling when it's slowing down for a landing?

flaps

for safety reasons, how are flaps activated?

simultaneously

the F-16 aircraft uses what type of control suface in place of ailerons to control roll?

flaperons

what does the hydromechanical flight control system use to position flight control surfaces?

mechanical linkage and hydraulic actuators

what systems provide inputs to the hydraulic actuators

hydromechanical and control augmentation systems

what is the purpose of the control stick?

it provides the mechanical inputs to the pitch and roll channels

what is the purpose of the rudder pedals?

they provide the pilot with inputs to the directional yaw channel

what F-15 system provides damping on all three axes?

automatic flight controls system's control augmentation system (CAS)

what components generate electronic signals for the F-16 FLCS?

stick, rudder pedals, and manual trim panel

what is the main component of the F-16 FLCS?

flight control computer (FLCC)

what mechanical device provides for correct rudder pedal feel?

spring

what components make up the air data system?

air data computer, air data instruments, and air sensors

what is the main function of the ADC?

to produce reference data for almost all other aircraft systems

what are the two pneumatic inputs to the ADC?

Psi and Pt

what is the purpose of the heating element in the pitot tube?

prevents icing

what self-contained flight instrument shows aircraft heading with respect to magnetic north?

magnetic compass

what unit provides signals to the vertical velocity indicator (VVI)?

air data computer

what systems use the radar altitude for terrain following and low-altitude warning?

AFCS, autopilot, LANTIRN navigation pod and central computer

what are the two modes of operation for the altimeter?

ELECT and PNEU

what are the inputs to the airspeed/Mach indicator?

total and static pressure

what does the HSI's HDG set knob provide?

rotates the heading reference marker

what does the HSI's bearing pointer provide?

bearing information to the TACAN or INS destination

what type of information is displayed by the ADI?

pitch and roll attitude

what does the ADI OFF warning flag indicate?

INS or ADI failure

how long after power loss can the standby attitude indicator provide usable information?

approximately nine minutes

what systems are controlled by the display system in addition to the monitoring of vital aircraft systems?

navigation, communications, weapons delivery, and mission data systems

what method does the multipurpose display process or (MPDP) use to generate and overlay display symbology on the multipurpose displays (MPD) and the multipurpose color displays (MPCD)?

raster and/or stroke

what display unit initiates and controls data transfer with the HUD, MPD, and MPCD?

multipurpose display processor (MPDP)

what format is used to display all information on a MPD?

monochromic format

how many MPDs/MPCDs are located in each cockpit?

two MPDs in each cockpit, one MPCD in the front cockpit, and two MPCDs in the rear cockpit

what do the legends, positioned adjacent to each pushbutton, provide to the crew?

modes and options selectable for operation

what is the purpose of color-coding the displayed data?

aids in quick interpretation of complex formats such as HSI and ADI

what is the purpose of the MPDs and MPCDs pushbuttons?

controls system selection and data to be displayed

what type of information is displayed on the head-up display (HUD) system?

attack symbology and steering information

where is information displayed when using a HUD system?

on a combiner glass in the forward field of view

what is a major benefit of having a HUD system?

it keeps the pilot from constantly looking down into the cockpit

what avionic system optimizes weapon delivery capabilites for a one-man operation?

integrated fire control avioncs system

what F-16 LRUs provide attack mode control and weapon selection?

upfront crontrols and multifunction displays

what are the main functions of the fire control computer (FCC)?

interfacing and primary bus controller for the AMUX, BMUX, and DMUX acts as the central computer, performs weapons delivery, navigation functions, and malfunction analysis capabilities

what is the purpose of the upfront controls?

provides a simplified, centralized, head-up means of controlling the most frequently used functions of the communications, navigation, and IFF systems

what is the primary function of the data entry display (DED)?

it provides a visual display of switch actions made via the upfront controls

what system is the heart of the F-15?

central computer complex

what types of computations does the very high speed integrated circuit (VHSIC) central computer (CC) make?

mission oriented from data received from control panels and subsystems aboard the aircraft

what enables the VHSIC CC to retain boresight values?

batteries enable it to retain variable data

what is the purpose of the avionics interface units (AIU)?

controls, processes, and routes interfacing signals between multiple aircraft systems

what F-15 LRU provides the major interface and control of avionics systems in both the front and rear cockpits?

upfront crontrols

define multiplexing.

the procedure of transmitting many digital signals over a single pair of wires

what is the time-sharing concept of mutliplexing?

all the information being processed takes turns on the same communication line

how are information bits processed on MUX lines?

alternately

what are the requirements for the information exchange on a MUX line?

it must be quickly and accurately processed, controlled, and routed between systems

what is considered the central point of a MUX bus?

the bus controller

what must occur for a remote terminal to communicate on a MUX bus?

it has to receive the proper computer word from the bus controller

what is the purpose of a bus controller?

it initiates and directs data transfers on the MUX bus

what type of device is used as a bus controller?

a computer that performs all control and computing functions

what performs the secretarial function on the MUX bus?

the remote terminal

what are the three types of computer words used by the MUX bus system?

comman, data and status words

what device can transmit both command and data words?

bus controller

what types of words does the remote terminal transmit?

data and status words

what is the basic operating principle of all radar?

to create a signal and detect its echo

what characteristics of radio frequency energy make it possible to measure distance in terms of time?

travels in straight line, at a constant velocity, and it's partially reflected by objects it strikes

how does a frequency-modulation radar system establish range?

it measures the time interval by comparing the frequency of the transmitter with the frequency of the received echo

what two dimensions must be considered in determining direction of a radar target?

azimuth and elevation

name two types of navigational data that an airborne Doppler radar system provides.

ground speed and drift angle

what component sends trigger pulses to various units to control system operation?

synchronizer

what component generates short bursts of RF energy?

transmitter

what component reflects the radar echo into the duplexer?

antenna

what component amplifies the pulse, changes it to video, and sends it to the radar indicator?

receiver

what component operates on a time base that translates into range?

indicator

name three advantages a waveguide has over a two-wire transmission line.

less dielectric loss, less radiation loss, and greater power-handling capability

identify the principle disadvantage of a waveguide.

impractical size requirements at lower frequencies

generation and radiation of electromagnetic energy for ECM purposes is the definition of what countermeasure?

electronic jamming

what characteristic of most radar systems makes them vulnerable to jamming?

sensitivity

briefly describe an electronic alternative to blocking a radar receiver with highly concentrated RF energy.

inject confusing and/or misleading information

chaff is what type of jamming device?

mechanical

what is a weakness of chaff?

it lacks velocity

how does RAM act as a countermeasure?

by absorbing radar energy and attenuating the return

flying in the shadow area of radar is an example of what kind of countermeasure?

evasion

what countermeasure method is assigned to aircraft specially equipped with radar-homing missiles?

destruction

state the functions provided by a digital stores management system.

stores ID, inventory and status

what component of a digital stores management system stores, sends, and computes information used by the entire system?

the main computer or computers

what process is normally used by a digital stores management system to transfer data from computer to computer?

mutliplexing

what SMS-related system responds to commands by displaying information on an aircraft's MFD?

controls and displays

what aircraft panel is responsible for distributing power throughout the entire aircraft?

aircraft power panels

through what panel is the selection of gun firing rates normally made?

main armament control panel

what stick grip switch on an aircraft releases munitions?

the armament release switch

what is the function of a video display in an aircraft's cockpit?

it displays information about the status of the aircraft's weapon system and the munitions that are installed on the aircraft

what is the purpose of the release priority systems?

they control the sequencing of weapons release when more than one station is selected for weapons delivery

what two aircraft panels are used with each other to facilitate emergency jettison of nuclear weapons?

emergency jettison control panels and the special weapons control panels

what function is provided by system override panels?

they provide a circuit that bypasses the need for the landing gear to be in the UP position before the armament system is able to receive power

normally, what is the only connection an EO-guided bomb control system has with the SMS?

weapon and station selection and release activation

what is the purpose of the nuclear system on nuclear-capable aircraft?

to prevent accidental or unauthorized prearming of nuclear weapons and, if necessary, accommodate their delivery

weapon system management is accomplished by which LRU's on an F-15?

MPCD and the MPDs

what F-16 LRU provides the interface between the CIU and the weapon stations?

remote interface units

state the two types of bombing systems used in our aircraft.

internal and external

what are the three basic types of releases incorporated into all aircraft bombing systems?

manual, manual-computed, and automatic

how is manual release equal to a single-selected weapons release?

manual release allows the release of one bomb from one station

what is produced by a manual input to the bombing system during manual-computed weapons release?

release pulses are distributed to the vaious selected weapons stations

in what type of release is the proper weapons release time calculated using previously inputted data?

automatic or computed

what are the two basic modes of operation in missile systems?

air-to-air and air-to-ground

how are AIM-7 and AIM-9 missiles fired?

individually

what happens to nonselected aircraft missile system stations during missile release?

they'll automatically be passed over during the firing sequence

what are the two basic modes of operation in aircraft jettison systems?

selective and emergency jettison

what type of operation can emergency jettison be equated to?

an override mod of operation

what is the Air Force standard system for the movement of concentrated cargo?

463L system

what are the dimensions of a 463L pallet? the usable area dimensions?

108" x 88" x 2.25"; usable area is 104" x 84

what is the total weight a pallet of cargo secured with nets can weigh?

10,355 lbs

when low-profile cargo is loaded on a pallet that does not permit the use of side nets on what conditions can a top net be used?

total weight does not exceed 2,500 lbs

pallets must be in good condition. for what reason would you reject a pallet for transportation?

pallets with excessive mud, dirt, or oild on them

describe what is unique about the 10K adverse terrain forklift's steering. what is such steering called?

steering is accomplished by pivoting the front frame with respect to the rear frame. this is called an articulated frame or steering

how long must forklift tines be to be used with 463L pallets?

72 inches

when rolling stock has loose items, what must you ensure about this cargo?

it must be carefully checked to ensure all loose items are secure

what is the difference between a type of airdrop and a method of airdrop?

method of airdrop refers to the way the loads exit the aircraft. type of airdrop refers to the rate of decent of the loads

on a high-velocity drop, what type of parachute is used and why?

stabilizing parachute--attached to the top of the load to hold it upright

what type of airdrop uses a large, clear drop zone and why?

low-velocity because it usually consists of large, complex loads

what method of airdrop is being used when the load has to be pushed out of the aircraft?

door bundle method

what method of airdrop is being used when the aircraft is flown at a nose-high attitude at the release point?

gravity drop method

what is the difference between HALO and HAHO?

HALO is at low altitude and HAHO at higher altitudes

what C-17 subsystem provides control for the cargo handling and missions system?

system integration subsystem

what components make up the forward loadmaster subsystem?

pilot/copilot ADS control panel, and the ADS backup control panel, and forward CDSCS

what panel serves as the primary interface between operating personnel and the aircraft cargo delivery system?

forward cargo delivery system control-status panel (CDSC-SP)