board review


Which of the following can be described as a change in tissue type from one adult form to another due to an adaptation to stress?
A. transformation
B. hyperplasia
C. agenesis
D. metaplasia


Metaplasia


Which of the following is LEAST likely to be present or associated with the early stage of accute inflammation?
A. hyperemia
B. fibroblastic proliferation
C. increased neutrophils
D. tissue exudates


Fibroblastic proliferation


Pedal edema is a prominent feature of which condition?
A. cirrhosis
B. nephritic syndrome
C. kwashiorkor
D. right heart failure


Right heart failure


Red infarcts are found in all of the tissues EXCEPT following:
A. heart
B. lung
C. liver
D. intestine


Lung


What is the pathogenetic mechanism of ischemia?
A. anemia
B. reduced arterial blood flow
C. carbon monoxide poisoning
D. cardiorespiratory failure


Reduced arterial blood flow


Which is characterized by localized area of tissue necrosis resulting from an immunologically induced, acute, necrotizing vasculitis?
A. arthrus reaction
B. serum sickness
C. anaphylaxis
D. tuberculin reaction


Arthrus reaction


Mask-like face, claw-like fingers, fibrosis of the esophagus, and hypertension characterize which condition?
A. rheumatoid arthritis
B. scleroderma
C. systemic lupus erythematosus
D. Sjogren's syndrome


Scleroderma


Which condition affects both arteries and veins?
A. atheroslerosis
B. Monckenberg's sclerosis
C. varicosity
D. Buerger's disease


Buerger's disease


Which is a functional vasospastic disorder which affects the small arteries of the extremities?
A. carpal tunnel syndrome
B. Raynaud's disease
C. arteriosclerosis obliterans
D. Buerger's disease


Raynaud's disease


Upper gastrointestinal bleeding manifested by either hematemesis or melena is most common caused by ________.
A. hiatal hernia
B. peptic ulcer
C. espophageal trauma
D. gastritis


Peptic ulcer


Which of the following is the joint disease in which the articular cartilage is the primary tissue involved?
A. rheumatoid arthritis
B. Lyme disease
C. ochronosis
D. osteoarthritis


Osteoarthritis


Periosteal reactive bone formation on the external surface is characteristically seen in:
A. osteochondroma
B. enchondroma
C. osteosarcoma
D. nonossifying fibroma


Osteosarcoma


Which of the following is the benign tumor of striated muscle?
A. lipoma
B. leyomyoma
C. lymphoma
D. rhabdomyoma


Rhabdomyoma


Which of the following is associated with Parkinson's disease?
A. there is amyloid angiopathy with frontal and temporal cortical atrophy
B. there is a spongiform vacuolar cortex with putamen degeneration
C. there are senile plaques and neurofibrillary tangles with astrogliosis
D. Lewy's bodies are found in the substantia nigra with loss of pigmentation


Lewy's bodies are found in the substantia nigra with loss of pigmentation


Which of the following is NOT true regarding multiple sclerosis?
A. it is an auto-immune disease
B. it is a demyelinating disorder
C. there are neurofibrillary tangles in the cytoplasm of neurons
D. it is characterized by relapsing and remitting episodes involving the brain and spinal cord


There are neurofibrillary tangles in the cytoplasm of neurons


Postinfectious ascending paralysis and radiculoneuropathy are characteristics of what condition?
A. Guillian-Barre sysndrome
B. myasthenia gravis
C. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
D. multiple sclerosis


Guillian-Barre syndrome


In males, which of the following is the most common cause of both bilateral hydroureters and hydronephrosis?
A. acute pylonephritis
B. benign prostate hyperplasia
C. stones in the renal pelvis
D. hypospadias


Benign prostate hyperplasia


What is the characteristic pathological feature of malignant mesothelioma?
A. primary related to smoking
B. histologiacally, it is adenocarcinoma
C. a localized focal lesion in pleura
D. accompanied by pleural effusion


Accompanied by pleural effusion


The primary cause of endometrial hyperplasia is a high serum level of which hormone?
A. progesterone
B. dihydrotestosterone
C. estrogen
D. adrenocortocotrophic homone


Estrogen


What is the main cause of anemia in chronic renal failure?
A. deficiency of vitamin B12
B. deficiency of erythropoietin
C. deficiency of folic acid
D. deficiency of hematopoietic stem cells


Deficiency of erythropoietin


Which of the following is indicative of left heart failure?
A. pitting pedal edema
B. neck vein distention
C. orthopnea
D. ascites


Orthopnea


What is happmark of hypocalcemia?
A. bone pain
B. nephrolithiasis
C. tetany
D. peptic ulcers


Tetany


Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency may lead to which of the following?
A. chronic bronchitis
B. bronchial asthma
C. emphysema
D. cystic fibrosis


Emphysema


Which of the following pathologies is responsible for left cardiac concentric hypertrophy?
A. pulmonary emphysema secondary to smoking
B. thrombus-induced pulmonary artery obstruction
C. sustained diastolic pressure over 90 mm Hg
D. myxomatous degeneration of the mitral valve


Sustained diastolic pressure of 90 mm Hg


Which is NOT true of giant cell arteritis?
A. it is associated with polymyalgia rheumatica
B. it involves inflammation of the temporal artery
C.it may lead to visual loss
D. the condition is unresponsive to anti-inflammatory drugs


The condition is unresponsive to anti-inflammatory drugs


In what form is most body fat stored? (Which form of energy has almost unlimited capacity for storage in teh body?)
A. fatty acids
B. triglycerides
C. cholesterol
D. phospholipids


Triglycerides


In order for fatty acids to be oxidized in the mitochondria they need to be converted to what compound?
A. glycerol
B. pyruvate
C. acetyl-CoA
D. triglyceride


Acetyl-CoA


Ketones are produced from
A. cholesterol
B. hormones
C. amino groups
D. acetly-CoA


Cholesterol


Which hormone is condsidered to be an antagonist of lipolysis (Which hormones below have similar functions regarding energy metabolism?)
A. insulin
B. epinephrine
C. glucagon
D. thyroxine


Insulin


What organ provides the major sites for lipprotein formation from exogenously derived lipids? (endogenously?)
A. pancreas
B. adipocytes
C. intestine
D. liver


Liver


Branched chain amino acids are metabolized mainly in:
A. liver
B. muscle
C. kidney
D. heart


Muscle


Extracellular amonia is transported to the liver by?


L-glutamate


What is the molecule that the enzymes work on called?


Substrate


Product of Pyruvate?


Acetyl-CoA


Where does the conversion of pyruvate to its product tak place?


PDC=Pyruvate Dehydrogenase Complex


What structure does the following represent:
C-OOH
/
C=O
/
C
/
C
/
C-OOH


Ketopentose


Nitrogenous wastes are converted to urea in what organ?


Liver


Pantothenic acid is needed for the production of?


Co Enzyme A


A deficiency of B5 causes:


Burning Foot Syndrome


As the density of lipoproteins goes up, _________ goes down and __________ goes up.


down=Triglycerolup=Protein


What vitamin is responsible for carboxylation?


B7 Biotin


What vitamin is responsible for De-carboxylation?


B1 Thiamine


Most active form of folate?


Tetrahydrofolate


What is an important adjunct in the absorption of glucose?


Achromion


B-oxidation occurs in ___________ and is a _________process


Mitochondia, oxidative


What is needed for the uptake of lipoproteins in the small intestine?


Vitamin K


Megaloblastic anemia is a result from the deficiency of?


B9


Iron deficient anemia equals


Hypochromic Microcytic


What process forms D-oxyribose from RNA?


Oxidation


What kind of process is RNA to DNA?


Reductive


Which cycle contains CoEnzyme Q?


ETC


Anaerobic Glycolysis yields:


2 ATP's


Ketones result from:


Incomplete oxidation of fats


What are the 3 types of ketone bodies produced?


Acetone, acetyl acetate, Beta Hydroxybuterate


What are the Purines?


Adenine and Guanine


What are the Pyrimidines?


Thymine, Uracil and Cytosin


What type of bonds hold DNA strands together?


Hydrogen bonds


What type of bonds hold neucleotides of a single strand together?


Ester bonds


What type of bonds hold base pairs together?


Hydrogen bonds


What is the limiting enzymes in grains?


Lysine


What is the limiting enzyme in corn?


Tryptophan


What is the function of ascorbic acid?


Increase iron absorption collagen formation


What is the most active form of iron?


Fe3+: Ferric


What is the most easily absorbed form of iron?


Fe2+:Ferris


Malate is oxidized to:


Oxaloacetate


What is the most oxidized intermediate in the TCA cycle?


Oxaloacetate


What provides nicotinamide in the body?


Serotonin*made by tryptophan


What froms melanin


Tyrosine


An amino acid @pH 7 has its isoeletric point at pH 6, it is:


Negatively charged


Every 10 kg of body weight requires _____ g of dietary protein/day?


8 grams


Sucrose can be broken down into:


Glucose and fructose


Most active form of vitamin D?


1,25 dihydroxychole-calciferol


What is the most dominant form of vitamin D in the plasma?


D3


What is the regulating enzyme of cholesterol biosynthesis?


HMG-CoA Reductase


What is the regulating enzyme of cholemicron biosynthesis?


Lipidprotein Lipase


What is the specific for the elongation of fatty acids in fatty acid biosynthesis?


NADPH


Where is DANPH made?


HMP Shunt


What is the reducing agent in fatty acid biosynthesis?


NADPH


Oxidation of a fatty acid yielding CO2 and H2O also goes through:


Krebb's Cycle and ETC


Most cells can readily synthesize aspartate from:


Oxaloacetate


Branch chain amino acid =


Leucine


Derivatives of tyrosine include:


Thyroxine, epinephrine, norepi and melanin


Greatest source of pectin:


Fruit


A reaction uses glycerol dehydrogenase yields:


Glycerol phosphate


What is responsible for producing endogenous triglycerides?


VLDL


By which mechanism do we eliminate cholesterol?


Feces


What is a sulfur containing polypeptide hormone?


Insulin


What types of bonds are between amino acids?


Peptide bonds


What is a characteristic of spontaneous reactions?


Gibb's Free Energy is negative


How many bases make up a codon?


Three


Acetyl CoA carboxylase catylizes acetyl CoA into?


Molanyl CoA (in fatty acid synthesis)


What is the product of pyruvate that enters the TCA cycle?


Acetyl CoA (from Krebb's cycle/TCA)


Purine nitrogen is derived from ______ and excreted as ________?


Amino acid and uric acid


Protein metabolism is excreted as?


Urea


Muscle metabolism is excreted as?


Creatine


+RNA is responsible for?


Supplying amino acids to complete a specific protein chain


Amino acids are _________ molecules, making them the most powerful and abundant buffers in the body.


Amphoteric


What type of glycocidic bonds are found in glycogen?


Alpha-1, 4 (also Alpha-1, 6 @ branches)


Reverse transcriptase is:


RNA to DNA


Lack of B12 results in a deficiency of?


Methionine


Methionine is used for the remethylization of what?


Homocysteine


What amino acid is converted to indole in the intestines/


Tryptophan (then serotonin)


What carbon source provides a glycerol portion in triglycerides for lipogenesis?


Glucose


What is a 4-carbon glucose precursor?


Fumarate


What is not a product of the pentose phosphate pathway?


ATP


What are the products of the pentose phosphate pathway?


Ribose sugars


What are the products of fatty acid biosynthesis


NADPH


What are mucopholysaccharides?


Glycoseaminoglycans


What type of mucopolysaccharides are found in cartilage?


Chondroitin sulfate


What type of mucopholysaccharides are found in synovial joints?


Hyaluronic Acid


What distinguishes starch from cellulose?


Starch is digestable, cellulose is not.


The biosynthesis of cholesterol begins with?


Acetyl CoA


The reductive steps of fatty acid biosynthesis require?


NADPH


What is the final stage in the complete metabolism of fat?


TCA Cycle


What is the significant intermediate in the cytoplasmic biosynthesis of fatty acids?


Malonyl CoA


Free radicals are the highly reactive substances that result from?


Peroxidation of lipids


Components of triglycerides include?


A glycerol back bone and 3 fatty acids


Homocystine is a product of the demethylization of:


Methionine


How does hydrogenation of vegetable oils affect the melting point?


Raises it


To generate an unsaturated fatty acid, a saturated fatty acid must undergo?


Oxidation


Cholesterol is not a component of:
A. bacon
B. beef fat
C. peanuts
D. port


Peanuts


What is the intermediate in the formation of palmitic acid from Acetyl CoA?


Malonyl CoA


What is the secondary messenger for epinephrine?


Cyclic ANP


Name a sulfur containing amino acid.


Cysteine


What is initially involved in cholesterol synthesis?


Acetyl CoA


What is used with selenium?


Glutathyinperoxidase


Dietary intake of 10g of protein provides __________ kilocalories


10


Carbs provide ________ cals/g


4


Fats provide ________ cals/g


9


Alcohol provides __________cals/g


7


Fructose is a?


The endproduct of anaerobic glycolysis is?


Lactate


Insulin contains?


Sulfur


An endogenously produced carbohydrate polymer comprised of repeating disaccharide units which contain glucosamine is?


Hyaluronic acid/chondroitin sulfate


UDP Glucase is a major intermediate in?


Glycogen synthesis


DNA replication is done in the?


Nucleus


RNA to DNA translation takes place in the?


Cytoplasm


The precursor to prostaglandin?


Arachidonic acid


Linoleic acid is an?


Omega 6 EFA


Arachidonic acid is an?


Omega 6 EFA


Oxidative phosphorylation generates about _____% of ATP produced from glycolysis.


90%


Alpha-ketoglutarate is an interrmediate of?


TCA Cycle


+RNA is part of?


Translation


Loss of lipoprotein lipase results in?


High cylomicrons after a fatty meal


Serotonin and niacin come from?


Tryptophan


Up to 90% of serotonin is made where?


In the gut


What binds to ATP and makes a negative complex?


Magnesium


Selenium is an?


Antioxidant


What helps insulin uptake of glucose?


Chromium


DNA polymerase is needed for?


DNA synthesis


DNA to mRNA is done in the _________, and needs __________ to take place.


Nucleus and RNA polymerase


What inhibits cholesterol biosynthesis?


Cholesterol


What is the enzyme that catalyzes the degradation of purines?


Xanthine oxidase


What process causes the formation of pyruvate and oxaloacetate from alanine and aspartate?


Transamination


Transamination requires what vitamin?


B6


What is a high energy compound?


Creatine phosphate and glucose-6-phosphate


Ornithine is an intermediate in which cycle?


Urea cycle


What inhibits fat metabolism?


Insulin


What type of bonds link nucleotides in a single strand?


Ester bonds


Maltose is produced by enzymatic hydrolysis of?


Starch


What carbohydrate by product is derived from the HMPshunt?


Ribose-5-Phosphate


What ion transmits impulses along an axon?


Na+


Vitamin D is important in the absorption and metabolism of?


Ca++ and phosphorus


Most amino acid metabolism requires a coenzyme provided by the bioactive form of?


Pyridoxine


What mechanism causes the greatest loss of sterols?


Intestinal excretions (via feces)


The hydrolysis of lactose yields?


Glucose and galactose


What coenzyme is used with glutathione peridoxase?


Selenium


A diet high in polyunsaturated fat needs ________ to combine to prevent free radicals.


Tocopherol (vitamin E)


Poor appetite, high pyruvic acid in the blood, irritability, tingling in the arms and legs with uncoordination is the definition of?


Beri Beri


Folate deficiencies result in?


Neural tube defects and megoloblastic anemia


Niacin deficiency causes?


Pelegra and 4 D's


A deficiency of riboflavin causes?


Purple tongue and cracks at the corner of mouth


What are the 2 types of Beri Beri?


Wet: Cardiovascular SyDry: PNS


NADH + H2O + 1/2O2 becomes NAD +?


H2O


Triglycerides contain what type of bonds?


Ester


What is responsible for glycogenolysis in the liver?


Glucagon


Phosphate groups are transferred to other compounds by?


Kinase


What is the funtion of phosphatase?


Removes a phosphate group


What is the function of phosphorylase?


Add a phosphate group


Cereal is low in?


Lysine


Corn is low in?


Tryptophan


Ingested cholesterol travels from the digestive tract to the liver in the form of?


Chylomicrons


Undigested cholesterol is carried from the periphery to the liver in the form of?


HDL


What type of bonds link nucleotides in DNA strands?


H+ bonds


The major product of Beta Oxidation is?


Acetyl CoA


The peptide linkage of any peptide bond is between?


Carbon and nitrogen


What are the constituents of a nucleotide?


Nitrogenous base, pentose sugar and phosphate


A nucleotide consists of?


Nitrogen base and pentose sugar


Km is the measure of?


Affinity an enzyme has for a substrate


Glycogen is monosaccharides held together by:


Alpha 1,4 and alpha 1,6 glycoside bonds


Epinephrine causes the hydolysis of glycogen. What causes the cessation of this process and return to the synthesis of glycogen?


High glucose-6-phosphate


What substance has the highest energy per gram?


Fat


GNG in the liver does not include:


Citrate synthase


The most highly oxidized TLA intermediate is?


Oxaloacetate


Dietary lipids usually circulate as?


Chylomicrons through the lymphatics


What base is in DNA but not RNA?


Thiamine


FAD comes from?


Riboflavin


NAD comes from?


Niacin


What are the three ketone bodies?


AcetoneAcedo acetateHydroxybutarate


The amino acid precursor of carnitine is?


Lysine


The amino acid that is usually not active optically is?


Glysine


What nitrogen source provides the majority nitrogen in purines?


Glutamine


Glycerol is turned into glucose by?


GNG


Carbon atoms for fatty acid synthesis are transported across the mitochondrial membrane into the cytoplasm in the form of?


Citrate


What type of bonds are broken by ATPase?


Anhydride bonds


The stored form of iron is?


Ferritin


What transfers carbon atoms out of the mitochondria and into the cytoplasm for GNG


What transfers carbon atoms out of the mitochondria and into the cytopasm for GNG?


Malate


What stimulates GNG?


Glucagon and cortisol


Ammonia is turned into urea in what organ(s)?


Liver


How many aromatic essential amino acids are there?


2


What is the link between anaerobic glycolysis and GNG?


TCA cycle


This enzyme is necessary for fatty acide biosynthesis?


Malonyl CoA


Fat souable vitamins get to the liver via?


Chylomicrons


What is the most common form of dietary lipids?


TAG's (triaceyl-glycerides)


What is the source of ribose for nucleotide formation?


Hexose monophate shunt (HMS)


What essential amino acid is not synthesized in the body?


All of them!


Louse-born epidemic typhus is produced by?


Rickettsia prowazaki


Rickettsia richettsia causes ___________ and is transmitted by __________?


Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever and Tick


R. typhi and R prowazaki are both transmitted by?


Flea/louse


Coxiella burnetti causes ________ and are transmitted by _________?


Q fever and milk


R. Quintana causes?


Trench Fever/5 Day Fever


Rickettsia Acari causes ________ and is transmitted by _________.


Rickettsia pox and mites


What blood test is used for Rickettes?


Weil-Felix


The phage phase of bacteria is related to what?


Transportation


A cause of exudative lesions of mycobacterium tuberculosis and absorbs caseous necrosis is?


Ghons tubercule


The most common agent of a typical pneumonia is?


Mycoplasmic pneumonia


5 Common Staph Aureus infections:


S = scalded skinT = toxic shockO = osteomyolitisI = impetigo (type 1)C = carbuncles


6 Common Strep Pyogenes infections:


S = strep throatE = erysipleasR = rheumatic feverG = glomerulonephritisI = impetiga (type 2)S = scarlet fever* Also caused by:Beta Hemolytic Strep.Group A Lansfield


Gram Staining:


1. Primary Stain = crystal violet2. Fixer/Morchant = Iodine3. Wash/Decolorize = Alcohol4. Counter Stain = Saphrine
Gram+ = purple b/c peptidoglycans on wall (thick)Gram- = pink b/c mucopolysaccharides on wall (thin)


What is the most common cause of pneumonia?


Strep pneumonia


What is the second most common cause of pneumonia


Legionella pneumonia


What causes red currant jelly sputem?


Klebsiella


Herpes simplex produces a latent infection on?


The nervous system


Herpes Simplex I produces a latent infection on?


The triggeminal ganglion


Herpes Simplex I affects:


Oral


Herpes Simplex II produces a latent infection on?


The sacral ganglion


Herpes Simplex II affects?


Genitals


What is the purpose of iodine in gram staining?


Mordant/Fixer


A virus capsid is made of?


Protein


Coagulase + test means that the sample is?


Staph aureus


What test is used to differentiate strep from staph?


Catalase Test


What test is used to differentiate staph aureus from all other staphs?


Coagulase test


What is classified by way of locomotion?


Protozoa


What is the most common route for the transmission of polio?


Oral-fecal


What are the most common processes by which microbial pollution is eliminated?


Sand filtration


The most fatal form of malaria is?


Plasmodium falciparum


What causes black water fever?


Plasmodium falciparum


What is the most common cause of malaria? The second?


1. Plasmodium falciparum2. Plasmodium vivax


What is the best test to check the effectiveness of milk pasteurization?


Phosphatase test


A test to check for fecal contamination is?


Coliform test


What has an etiological agent called a spirochete?


Syphilli (condylomat mata)


What is the cause of Legionnaire's Disease?


Bacteria


What is the serology test for Rickettsia?


Weil-Felix Test


What antigen is used in a Weil-Felix Test?


Proteus Vulgaris


Body secretions like tears, breast mils and salive contain lg___?


lgA


A virus is most contagious during which stage?


Latent stage


What cuases a lower respirator tract infection?


Chlamydia psittaci


What is the cause of parrot fever?


Chlamydia psittaci


What can mimic a pulmonary infection like TB?


Histoplasmosis


What is the cause of Ohio Valley Fever?


Histoplasmosis


What makes up a virus cell wall?


Peptidoglycan (protein)


What is a common pre-operational disinfectant?


Iodine


What causes epidemic parotitis


Mumps


Mumps may lead to the impairment of wat nerve?


Facial


Cholera is characterized by?


Rice water stool, vomitting, dehydration (no lymphatic involved)


What is the heaviest and largest immunoglobin?


1 gm or which one has less


Which scientist discovered yellow fever?


Reed


Which scientist is accredited with (pox) vaccines?


Jenner


Who came up with the germ theory?


Pasteur


Who came up with antibiotics and discovered pennicillin?


Flemming


Ecchymosis is seen in what disease?


Scurvy


Sabin/Salk vaccines give immunity to?


Polio


A 71 y/o male presents with a sudden fever, productive cough, and a one time shiver episode. What is the diagnosis?


Strep pneumonia


a 71 y/o male presents with a sudden fever, neck stiffness and a productive cough. What is the diagnosis?


H. influenza


What type of immunity is a filled bacteria vaccine?


Artificial Acquired Active Immunity


What is the cause of black death?


Yerseria pestis, aka Bubonic Plague


What are bacteria that grow best at slightly lowered O2?


Microaerophils


How are bacteria that grow best at slightly lowered O2 levels cultured?


In a candal jar/flask


What is the largest health and safety organization that funds for research?


NIH


The persistent measles virus may cause?


Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis


What blood cell type increases with a parasitic infection?


Eosinophils


What is most commonly found in unpasteruized milk?


Brucella abortus


What parasite is diagnosed by recovering eggs from the perianal fold?


Enterobius vermicularis (pin worm)


Why has the administration of influenza vaccines been so ineffective?


There are many different strands


Organisms that only use oxygen as the final acceptor of electrons are known as?


Obligant aerobes


All bacteriocides and clostridia are characterized as?


Anaerobes


A bullseye rash is caused by?


Borellia burgdorfi (sp?)


What type of pus is characteristic of staph aureus?


Gold/yellow pus (it is also an active invasive opportunist)


A zoonosis disease spread by spores is?


Anthrax


A gram negative bacteria characterized by blue-green pus is?


Pseudomonus aeriginos


Who is most susceptable to pseudomonus ariginosa?


Burn victims, cystic fibrosis patients and patients with otitis externa


Pyocyan and properdin are associated with?


Blue-green pus and pseudomonus ariginosa


What is the choise mode of transportation for German Measles?


Respiratory (it is a virus)


What causes a funal ball in the lungs?


Aspirgillus


What consumes inorganic material?


Autotroph


What do you call an organism that dwells in salty water?


Halophyte


What type of organism feeds on the matter of the dead/decaying?


Saprophyte


What is the best medium to identify Nisseria ghonnorrhea?


Thayer-Martin Agar


What is the best medium to identify staph?


Salt Agar


What is the best medium to identify protozoans and malaria?


Glesma (or Giesma - couldn't read answer clearly)


Alpha nemolysis will show up as?


Green:partial nemolysis


Beta hemolysis will show up as?


Clear:complete


Gamma hemolysis will show up as?


Red:No hemolysis


What causes weight loss, abdominal pain and mucous diarrhea for >3 day?


Giardia Lamblia


What causes childhood dysentary?


Coxsackie virus


What is most commonly going to affect patients with AIDS?


1. Pneumocysis2. Toxoplasmosis


What is the counter stain to gram stain?


Safranin


A gray pseudomembrane is seen with?


Diptheria


What is the most effective sterilization in a lab?


Autoclaving


Fecal contamination in water is determined by?


Coliform count


What is the cause of amoebic dysentary?


Entamoeba histolysice (sp?)


Consumption of raw fish may be related to?


Diphyllobathrium Latum


The hiatid is?


Larval form of tapeworm


What causes Weil's Disease?


Leptospira ichtohemorragica


What is the cause of syphillis?


Trep. pallidum


What is released by cells infected by viruses and protects the uninfected cells?


Interferon


What air pollutant will cause headaches, lassitude and dizziness?


Carbon Monoxide Poisoning


What test differentiates staph aureus from staph epidermis?


Coagulase test


Aluminum and chlorine are used in what steps of water treatment?


Coagulation


What is the etiological agent of YAWS?


Treponema pertenue


What is the etiological agen of malaria?


Plasmodium


What is the etiological agent of black death?


Yersina pectis


What transmits epidemic typhus to humans?


Lice


What is the term for the transfer of genetic material via viral agent?


Transduction


What is the term for the transfer of genetic material via direct uptake through the cell wall?


Transformation


What is the term for the transfer of genetic material via bacterial phage?


Transduction


What is the term for the transfer of genetic material via a pylus/sex pilus?


Conjugation


The incidence of a disease is defined as the total number of?


New cases appearing in a given amount of time


Sand flies transmit?


Leishmaniasis


What is most commonly seen with bladder infection?


e. coli


Opsonins, aglutinins, lysins and precipitans are?


Partial antibodies


What vitamin is decreased when milk is left standing in the light?


Riboflavin


What inhibits bacterial replication and when removed allows reproduction to continue?


Bacteriostatic


The addition of soap to a sterilizing agent will?


Lower the surface tension


What is the most common helminth in the U.S.?


Enterobius veermiculaire (sp?) Pin Worms


What is associated wtih pork?


Thrichinella spirilis


Soap is a ?


Disinfectant and surfactant


Pasteur is most known for?


The Germ Theory


When a chemical substance acts upon the body, the biological reation depends on the amount of substance received. This is known as?


Dose-Response Relationship


Water softeners increase what ion in the water?


Na+ (Ca++ makes it harder)


What will cause calcification of skeletal muscles on an x-ray and pain?


Trichinella spiralis


What is associated with roots and fixed nitrogen?


Rhizobium japonium


What causes severe bone marrow depression after chronic poisoning over a long period of time and low levels?


Benzene


Most circulating antibodies are produced by?


Plasma cells


Majority of antibody content of serum is contained in?


Gammaglobulins


The rapid formation of a specific antibody as a result of a second stimulation by the specific antigen is known as?


Anamnestic Response


A frequent cause of infant diarrhea is?


Escherichia


What is the major source of ionizing radiation contamination in the U.S.?


Diagnostic Radiography


What is the main health hazard resulting from atmospheric inversion?


Pollutants are held closer to the Earth


What ion causes infant methemoglobulinemia?


Nitrates"Blue Baby Syndrome"


The highest reported incidence of occupational induced high blood pressure comes from?


Truck drivers


Lung disease from iron dust is?


Siderosis


Lead poisoning is not a major hazard for workers in?


Manufacturing fluorescent lamps


What is a hazard for chicken farmers?


Psitlacosis (sp?)


What can cause lung cancer and is associated with mesothelioma?


Asbestos


Jock itch is causes by?


Tinea cruris


What results in passive, naturally acquired immunity?


Breast feeding


What is the first line of human cellular defense against viran conditions?


Interferon Production


Dorsalis pedis is a continuation of what artery?


Anterior tibial artery


The muscularis externa is made of what type of muscle?


Smooth and skeletal muscle


he white cover of male genitals is called?


Tunica Albuguina


What layer of the hypedermis contains adipocytes?


Subque fascia


What pouches make of the parathyroid?


3rd and 4th pouches


The larynx is mde of what arches?


4th and 6th arches


The spinous process is made from?


Left and right lamina


The suprascapular foramen is made from?


Transvers scapular ligament


A 2nd order neuron for proprioception synapses where?


Ipsilateral thalamus


Azygos vein is on the _________ side and drains into ________?


Right sideSVC


What prevents the radial head from dislocating?


Annular Ligament


What is the superior boarder of the femoral triangle?


Inguinal Ligament


Wha innervates flexor oligitorum profundus?


Medial and Ulnar


Flexor carpi ulnaris is innervated by?


Ulnar nerve


The begma is at the crossing of the __________ and ________ sutures?


Coronal and Sagittal


What is on the left lung but not on the right?


Lingula


The right side of the lung has an indentation for the _______ (not found on the left)?


Azygos vein


What muscles are associated with TOS and put pressure on the brachial plexus?


Anterior scalenes


The mesosalphinx is also know as?


Brood ligament


The TFL is innervated by?


Superior gluteal nerve


What organ if found adjacent to the liver?


Stomach


Which part of the liver is palpable?


Right lobe


What separates the distal radio-ulnar joing (articulation)?


DISC


What type of joint is the stemoclavicular joint?


Saddle


The radiate ligament attaches to?


Rib head


The coxa joint is what type of joint?


Spheroidal/Triaxial


True/False:
The corocaclavicular joint is not synovial.
True False


True


The fibularis longus mm. has its origina on the?


Fibula


Papilla empty into?


Descending duodenum


What is found in the suspensory ligament of the ovary?


Ovarian artery


The reticular layer of the dermis is?


Dense and irregular


Seminepherous drain into?


Epididymis


The pelvic diaphragm is made of?


Levator ani and coccygeus


Which three mm make up the levator ani?


PubococcygeusPuborectalisIliococcygeus


What separates the pelvis and perineum


Levator ani


The vertebral foramen is a result of what type of ossification?


Endochondral


Which bones go through membranous ossification?


Panetal and clavical


Which bone is the first to ossify?


Clavical


The glabella is part of?


Frontal bone


TP's are an attachment for?


Levator scapula


Meroiga parastrieria is a result of impairment to what nerve?


Lateral femoral cutaneous


The sup. mesenteric and splenic dump into?


Portal vein


The spinal nerves of L4-S3 form?


Sciatic nerve


The sclera is derived from?


Dura Mater


The carotid canal goes through?


Temporal bone


Fast conducting axons are made of ______ fibers with _______ diameters?


Myelinated/Large


Which type of nerves are small and unmyelinated and conduct pain?


Type C


Which type of nerve fibers are myelinated and conduct acute pain?


Type A (A-delta)


What ligament connects the EOP with the SP of C7?


Nuchal ligament


What type of articulation is found between vert. bodies?


Symphysis (IVD's)


What articulates with T2?


Steinal angle aka Angle of Louis


What cells form the BBB?


Astrocytes


CSF is formed by?


1st Choroid plexus2nd Ependymal cells


What are the macrophages of the brain?


Microglia


From the ant. 2/3 of the tongue are located on what ganglion?


Geniculate ganglion


What are the boundaries of the IVF?


Anterior = discPosterior = FacetsSuperior = Pedicles (inf. notch of vertebral above)Inferior - Pedicles (superior notch of vertebral below)


The vertical notches are found on?


The pedicles


The costal groove of a typical rib lies along the _______ border of the _______ surface?f


Inferior/Internal


Axons of the oeptic nerve are formed by the _____ cells of the retina?


Ganglion


DRG, autonomic ganglia and schwann cells are derived from?


Neural Crest Cells


Name the suprahyoid muscles.


Digastric and mylo-, stylo-, genio-hyoid(You will die if you eat MSG for supper.)


What are the infrahyoid muscles?


Toss IN (all except thyrohoid innervated by ansa cervicalis)


What innervates thyrohyoid and geniohyoid mm?


C1 nerve via CN XI


What innervates the stylohyoid? Mylohyoid? Digastric?


Stylohyoid=CN7Mylohyoid=CN5Anterior Digastric=CN5Posterior Digastric=CN7


The long thoracic nerve innervates what muscle?


Serratus anterior


What supplies stimulation to z-joints?


Dorsal Rami


Are rami sensory or motor?


Motor


What is the post boundary of the IVF's?


Facets


The myelin of the CNS is formed by what cells?


Oligodendrocytes


The cerebellum and the Pons are part of what primitive structure?


Metencephalon (then rhobencephalon)


What muscle attaches to the articular processes of C3-C6?


Splenium capitus and cervicis


What is the anterior-superior aspect of the vertebral body of S1 called?


Sacral promontory


What ligaments attach C2 to the occiput?


Tectoral, alar and apical ligaments


Which suboccipital muscles rotate C1 on C2?


Obliques capitus inferior


Which suboccipital muscle is not part of the suboccipital triangle?


RCP minor


What is transmitted through the suboccipital triangle?


Vert. arter and suboccipital nerve


How many z-joints are in a typical thoracic vertebra?


4


How many total artiaculations are in the T-spine?


12/segment


Which are not sensory to the epidermis?
A. Krause
B. Merlel
C. Meisseners
D. Ruffini's


Meisseners - light touch


The carotid tubercle is found?


C6


Which spinal ligament has attachments to the discs?


PLL


What part of the PLL is the weakest?


Post. lat.


What structure forms the anterior boundary of the vertebral canal? The post boundary?


PLL=anteriorLig. Flavium=posterior


The embryoligic development of extensor muscles is derived from?


Epimeric


What's the embryologic derivation of splanchnic nerve?


Visceral


Which ribs are true?


1-7 (connect to sternum)


What is atypical about number 1 rib?


It has no demi-facets - connects with full facets of T1


The medullary pyramids contain which tract?


Cervicospinal


The parts of the brainstem from superior to inferior are?


Mid brain to pons to medulla oblongata


Atheromatous calcification of the aorta that occurs with normal calcium levels is?


Dystrophic calcification


What is deposition of Ca++ into necrotic tissue with normal Ca++ levels?


Dystrophic calcification


What is deposition of Ca++ into normal tissue with high Ca++ levels?


Metastatic calcification


Increased secretions from the anterior pituitary after closure of epiphyseal plates results in?


Acromegaly


Increased secretions from the anterior pituitary before closure of epiphyseal plates results in?


Gigantism


Decreased secretions from the anterior pituitary before closure of the epiphyseal plates results in?


Dwarfism


What are the 4 stages of Pagets?


1. Lytic2. Mixed3. Blastic4. Osteosarcoma (malignant)


Hypoparathyroid in kids is?


Creatinism


Deficiency in _______ results in tetan, similar to that which accompanies hypocalcemia?


Magnesium (1st look for calcium)


Who are the most infectious members of the family?


School aged kids


Cor pulmomale may be a result of ?


Emphysema


What is characterized by T-cell deficiency due to a lack of ...?


DiGeorge's Syndrome


What is characterized by a deficiency in T- and B-cells?


S.C.I.D.


Thrombocytopenia is seen in?


Wischott-Aldrich


Delayed Hypersensitivity is type______?


Type IV


The pigment found in regressive cells such as old age pigment is?


Lipofusion


Yellow pigment from the degradation of hematein is?


Hemosiderin


Heme + iron =


Hematein


What is a result of HPT?


Osteopenia


Wat type of collagen is found earliest in a wound?


Type 3


Type 1 collagen is found in?


End of wound healing


Type 2 collagen is found in?


Discs


Type 3 collagen is found in?


Earliest in wound healing


Type 4 collagen is found in?


Basement membranes


Who is most likely to have median nerve entrapment?


Pregnant women


Intracranial calcification occurs most commonly in?


Oligodendroglioma


Most common brain tumor?


Astrocytoma


What is the primary cerebellar tumor in children?


Medulloblastoma


What is cardiac tymponacle?


Fluid in the pericardial space


A primary immunodeficiency of B-cells is?


Brutons agammaglobulinemia


Autoimmune hypothyroidism is?


Hashimotos


Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune attack against?


Acetyl choline


Almost all changes in SLF involve?


Increased immune cells


Autosomal recessive gluco-cerebral disease with hepato/splenomegaly is?


Gaucher's


Alcapneuria is a result of?


PKU


Neimann-Pick and Tasach's are seen higher in?


Jews


Lyme's Disease is caused by?


Burelia


Marphan's (aka Abe Lincoln's disease) is characterized by?


Arachodactyly


Kleinfelters is characterized by?


47 xxy - Tall, thin, low I.Q., hypogonadism


What is the most common DJD of joints?


Osteoarthritis


During pronation of the foot, the knee goes?


In


What is responsible for post infectiou glomerulonephritis?


Strep Pyogene/beta-hemolytic strep


Metastatic osteoblastic tumor in a malignancy usually originates from the?


Prostate


Metastatic osteolytic tumor in a malignancy usually originates from the?


Lung


A benign neoplasm is?


Lipoma


An example of a systemic immune complex reaction?


R.A.


A deficiency of vitamin C mosts often affects the?


Connective tissue (scurvy)


Wernicke-Korsikoff Syndrome is a result of a deficiency in?


B1


What is characterized by a lesion with caseous necrosis?


TB


The release of histamine into the skin following cutaneous trauma causes?


Vasodilation of arterioles causing redness


What are the 5 signs of inflammation?


1. Rubor2. Dolor3.Tumor4. Calor5. Loss of Funtion


What is the most common benign tumor of the spine?


Hemangioma


What occurs in a keloid?


Hypertrophic enlargement of scar tissue


What is the most common benign tumor of the skull?


Osteoma


What causes hoarsness associated with carcinoma in the apex of the lung?


Laryngeal nerve damage


What is produced in cells and increases inflammation due to tissue injury?


Histamine


What is the result in a cell as a consequence of thyroid goiter?


Hyperplasia


What type of thyrotoxicosis is most common under 40 y/o?


Graves Disease


What is characterized by recanalization?


Thrombus


The circulatory level of what kind of cells are higher in an acute inflammatory response to bacteria?


Neutrophils


Chronic Rheumatoid Arthritis and Spleenomegaly are characteristic of what?


Felty's Syndrome


What disease affects the substantia nigra of the basal ganglia?


Parkinson's


Megoblastic anemia is a result of a deficiency of what vitamin?


B9


What is the most likely diagnos for a child with projectile vomiting within the firt three weeks of life?


Pylonic Stenosis


What is the most common neoplasm found in AIDS patients?


Kaposi's Sarcoma (and Non-Hodgkins Lymphoma)


A periosteal encasement of necrotic tissue is called?


Sequestra


Patients with asbestosis are predisposed to?


Mesothelioma


A periosteal reaction described as sunburst radiographically?


Osteosarcoma


A periosteal reaction described radiographically as laminated or onion-skin would be?


Ewing's Sarcoma


A degenerative disease that affects cranial nerve nuclei?


Progressive Bulbar Palsy


Philadelphia chromosomus are a risk factor in what type of Leukemia?


CML


What type of leukemia is most likely to affect kids?


ALL


Elderly men are more likely to get what type of leukemia?


CLL


What is the most common adult leukemia?


AML


Dilation of the inner mammary and subscapular arteries, hypertension, and weakness of the upper limbs with low lower limb pulse is seen in?


Coarctation of the aorta


The substitution of one fully differentiated cell type to another type is known as?


Metaplasia


Which cell type goes up with viral infections?


Lymphocytes


What disease is characterized by congenital absence of parasympathetic ganglia in the colon, constipation and dilation of the colon?


Congenital Megacolonaka Hirshsprung's Disease


Chaga's Disease is spread by?


The Kissing Bug


What muscle disorder is pseudohypertrophy most common?


Duchenne's Dystrophy


Fatty liver, edema and atrophy of the small bowel are characteristic of?


Kwashikor's


Pannus formation is in?


R.A.


Cretinism is caused by?


Hypothyroidism in kids


Acromegally and gigantism are results of an increase of?


Somatotopin


Subacute panencephalitis is a sequel to?


Measles


Degeneration of lateral horn cells affects:


Autonomic function, sympathetics


Chronic passive congestion of the liver is typically seen in?


Right sided heart failure


Starry-sky appearance of lymphoid tissue is characteristic of?


Burkett's Lymphoma


What causes hypoxia without ischemia?


Bronchopneumonia


The loss of breaking skills, the lack of the ability to stop forward motion of the hand when reaching is indicative of a lesion to?


Cerebellum


What disease is most likely to cause secondary orchitis in post-pubescent males?


Mumps


Giant cell artereitis primarily affects?


Temporary artery


Hodgkin's Lymphoma is characterized by the presence of?


Reed-Sternberg Cells


A genetic defect of the conversion of phenylalanine to tyrosine will result in?


PKU and mental retardation


A tumor comprised of 3 germ layers is called?


Teratoma


What is characterized by the presence of caseous necrosis?


TB


What is characterized by calcification of the temporal artery?


Giant Cell Arteritis


What is the mechanism by which the herpes virus stays in the body long after a vericella infection?


Sequestration (sp?) of the genome to a sensory ganglion (m/c trigeminal)


A male with an expanding mass in the jaw/cheek area, from Central Africa probably has?


Bukett's Lymphoma


A pulmonary embolus usually arises from?


Deep vein thrombosis


Pitting edema is usually caused by?


Congestive heart failure


If the medial groove of the prostate cannot be palpated, what is most likely present?


Prostatic carcinoma


What produces exudative lesions caused by mycobacterium tuberculosis and contains caseous necrosis?


Ghon's Lesions


Tuberculosis of the spine is?


Pott's Disease


What type of disease is ankylosing spondylitis?


Autoimmune


Pyknosis is characterized as?


Condensation


A mask-like face, claw hands, hypertension and fibrosis of the esophagus is seen in?


Scleroderma


Functional vasospastic disorder affecting the small arteries and arterioles of the hands is?


Raynaud's Disease


The presence of right lower quadrant pain, diarrha, malabsorption and granulomatosus inflammation of the intestin indicates?


IBD


What are characteristics of Horner's Syndrome


Ptosis, miosis and anhydrosis (also opthalmosis)


A small cystic projection from a joint capsule or tendon is known as a?


Ganglion


Hemorrhage into the reticular formation of the brain is most likely to result in?


Coma


A localized area of tissue necrosis resulting from an immunologically induced necrotizing vasculitis is?


Arthrus Phenomenon


Subluxation of the lens, laxity of the ligaments and cystic medial necrosis is seen in?


Marphan's Syndrome


Antibody synthesis is a primary function of what type of cells?


Plasma cells


Epidural hemorrhage most likely results from?


Middle Meningeal Artery


Synovial thickening and 2nd degree inflammation with edema but NO pannus indicates?


Gouty arthritis


Ischemic necrosis as a consequence to cardiac muscle damage is?


Coagulation


What causes localized edema that accompanies fiariasis?


Lymphatic obstruction


Heberden's nodes are on?


DIP's


Thrombosis and embolism of what vessels can cause a transmural infarction of the small intestine?


Superior mesentaric arteries


What produces symptoms due primarily to de-myelination of peripheral nerve axons?


Guillian-Barre (post-infectious poly-radiculitis)


What may lead to megaloblastic anemia?


B9 deficiency and atrophic gastric mucosa


Generalized muscle weakness, poor intestinal tonus, and resultant bloating, heart anomalies and weak respiratory muscles is from a deficiency of?


Calcium or magnesium


What is the most common tumor of the large intestine?


Endocarcinoma


Coccidiomycosis most commonly affects the?


Lungs