add definitions from course notes

1) A localized group of organisms that belong to the same species is
called aA) biosystem.B) community.C)
population.D) ecosystem.E) family.

C) population.

Organisms interact with their environments, exchanging matter and
energy. For example,plant chloroplasts convert the energy of
sunlight toA) the energy of motion.B) carbon dioxide and
water.C) chemical energy.D) oxygen.E) kinetic energy.

C) chemical energy.

The main source of energy for producers in an ecosystem isA)
light energy.B) kinetic energy.C) thermal energy.D)
chemical energy.E) ATP.

A) light energy.

Which of the following types of cells utilize deoxyribonucleic acid
(DNA) as their geneticmaterial but do not have their DNA encased
within a nuclear envelope?A) animalB) plantC)
archaeaD) fungiE) protists

C) archaea

To understand the chemical basis of inheritance, we must understand
the molecular structureof DNA. This is an example of the
application of which concept to the study of biology?A)
evolutionB) emergent propertiesC) reductionismD) the
cell theoryE) feedback regulation

C) reductionism

Prokaryotes are classified as belonging to two different domains.
What are the domains?A) Bacteria and EukaryaB) Archaea and
MoneraC) Eukarya and MoneraD) Bacteria and
ProtistaE) Bacteria and Archaea

E) Bacteria and Archaea

A water sample from a hot thermal vent contained a single-celled
organism that had a cellwall but lacked a nucleus. What is its
most likely classification?A) EukaryaB) ArchaeaC)
AnimaliaD) ProtistaE) Fungi

B) Archaea

An organism has been isolated from decomposing organic matter. This
organism has a cellwall but no chloroplasts. How would you
classify this organism?A) domain Bacteria, kingdom
ProkaryotaB) domain Archaea, kingdom BacteriaC) domain
Eukarya, kingdom PlantaeD) domain Eukarya, kingdom
ProtistaE) domain Eukarya, kingdom Fungi

E) domain Eukarya, kingdom Fungi

Which of these provides evidence of the common ancestry of all
life?A) ubiquitous use of catalysts by living systemsB)
near universality of the genetic codeC) structure of the
nucleusD) structure of ciliaE) structure of chloroplasts

B) near universality of the genetic code

Which of the following is (are) true of natural selection?A) It
requires genetic variation.B) It results in descent with
modification.C) It involves differential reproductive
success.D) It results in descent with modification and involves
differential reproductive success.E) It requires genetic
variation, results in descent with modification, and involves
differentialreproductive success.

E) It requires genetic variation, results in descent with
modification, and involves differentialreproductive success.

Charles Darwin proposed a mechanism for descent with modification
that stated thatorganisms of a particular species are adapted to
their environment when they possessA) non-heritable traits that
enhance their survival in the local environment.B) non-heritable
traits that enhance their reproductive success in the local
environment.C) non-heritable traits that enhance their survival
and reproductive success in the localenvironment.D)
heritable traits that enhance their survival and reproductive success
in the local environment.E) heritable traits that decrease their
survival and reproductive success in the local environment.

D) heritable traits that enhance their survival and reproductive
success in the local environment.

Which of these individuals is likely to be most successful in an
evolutionary sense?A) a reproductively sterile individual who
never falls illB) an organism that dies after five days of life
but leaves 10 offspring, all of whom survive toreproduceC)
a male who mates with 20 females and fathers one offspringD) an
organism that lives 100 years and leaves two offspring, both of whom
survive to reproduceE) a female who mates with 20 males and
produces one offspring that lives to reproduce

B) an organism that dies after five days of life but leaves 10
offspring, all of whom survive toreproduce

Through time, the lineage that led to modern whales shows a change
from four-limbed landanimals to aquatic animals with two limbs
that function as flippers. This change is best
explainedbyA) natural philosophy.B)
reductionism.C) the hierarchy of the biological organization of
life.D) natural selection.E) feedback inhibition.

D) natural selection.

Which of the following best describes what occurred after the
publication of CharlesDarwin's On the Origin of Species?A)
The book received little attention except from a small scientific
community.B) The book was banned from schools.C) The book
was widely discussed and disseminated.D) The book's authorship
was disputed.E) The book was discredited by most scientists.

C) The book was widely discussed and disseminated.

Why is Darwin considered original in his thinking?A) He
provided examples of organisms that had evolved over time.B) He
demonstrated that evolution is continuing to occur now.C) He
described the relationship between genes and evolution.D) He
proposed the mechanism that explains how evolution takes
place.E) He observed that organisms produce large numbers of offspring.

D) He proposed the mechanism that explains how evolution takes place.

Darwin's finches, collected from the Gal�pagos Islands, illustrate
which of the following?A) mutation frequencyB) ancestors
from different regionsC) adaptive radiationD) vestigial
anatomic structuresE) the accuracy of the fossil record

C) adaptive radiation

What is the major distinguishing characteristic of fungi?A)
gaining nutrition through ingestionB) being sedentaryC)
being prokaryoticD) absorbing nutrientsE) being
decomposers of dead organisms

D) absorbing nutrients

Imagine there is a species-specific fishing regulation that mandates
only adult fish of thisspecies that are 75 cm or longer may be
kept and shorter fish must be released. Based on yourknowledge
of natural selection, you would predict that the average length of the
adult fishpopulation willA) remain unchanged.B)
gradually decline.C) rapidly decline.D) gradually
increase.E) rapidly increase.

B) gradually decline.

Which of the following taxonomic categories is least likely to be
later revised for a particularorganism?A) kingdomB)
classC) orderD) phylumE) species

E) species

When applying the process of science, which of these is
tested?A) a conclusionB) a resultC) an
observationD) a hypothesisE) a control group

D) a hypothesis

A controlled experiment is one in whichA) the experiment is
repeated many times to ensure that the results are accurate.B)
the experiment proceeds at a slow pace to guarantee that the scientist
can carefully observe allreactions and process all experimental
data.C) there are at least two groups, one of which does not
receive the experimental treatment.D) there are at least two
groups, one differing from the other by two or more variables.E)
there is one group for which the scientist controls all variables.

C) there are at least two groups, one of which does not receive the
experimental treatment.

The application of scientific knowledge for some specific purpose is
known asA) technology.B) deductive science.C)
inductive science.D) anthropologic science.E) pure science

A) technology.

Which of the following are qualities of any good scientific
hypothesis?I. It is testable.II. It is
falsifiable.III. It produces quantitative data.IV. It
produces results that can be replicated.A) I onlyB) II
onlyC) III onlyD) I and IIE) III and IV

D) I and II

In presenting data that result from an experiment, a group of
students show that most of theirmeasurements fall on a straight
diagonal line on their graph. However, two of their data
pointsare "outliers" and fall far to one side of the
expected relationship. What should they do?A) Do not show these
points but write a footnote that the graph represents the correct
data.B) Average several trials and therefore rule out the
improbable results.C) Show all results obtained and then try to
explore the reason(s) for these outliers.D) Throw out this set
of data and try again.E) Change the details of the experiment
until they can obtain the expected results.

C) Show all results obtained and then try to explore the reason(s)
for these outliers.

Which of the following is the best description of a control for an
experiment?A) The control group is kept in an unchanging
environment.B) The control is left alone by the
experimenters.C) The control group is matched with the
experimental group except for the one
experimentalvariable.D) The control group is exposed to
only one variable rather than several.E) Only the experimental
group is tested or measured.

C) The control group is matched with the experimental group except
for the one experimentalvariable.

Which of these is an example of inductive reasoning?A) Hundreds
of individuals of a species have been observed and all are
photosynthetic; therefore,the species is photosynthetic.B)
These organisms live in sunny parts of this area, so they are able to
photosynthesize.C) If horses are always found grazing on grass,
they can be only herbivores and not omnivores.D) If protists are
all single-celled organisms, then they are incapable of
aggregating.E) If two species are members of the same genus,
they are more alike than each of them could beto a different genus.

A) Hundreds of individuals of a species have been observed and all
are photosynthetic; therefore,the species is photosynthetic.

Why is a scientific topic best discussed by people of varying points
of view, a variety ofsubdisciplines, and diverse
cultures?A) They can rectify each other's approach to make it
truly scientific.B) Robust and critical discussion between
diverse groups improves scientific thinking.C) Scientists can
explain to others that they need to work in isolation to utilize the
scientificmethod more productively.D) This is another way
of ensuring that everyone gets the same results.E) Scientists
need to exchange their ideas with other disciplines and cultures so
that all groupsare in consensus with the course of future research.

B) Robust and critical discussion between diverse groups improves
scientific thinking.

Why is it important that an experiment include a control
group?A) The researcher predetermines the results for the
control group.B) The control group provides a reserve of
experimental subjects.C) A control group is required for the
development of an "If�then" statement.D) A control
group assures that an experiment will be repeatable.E) Without a
control group, there is no basis for knowing if a particular result is
due to thevariable being tested.

E) Without a control group, there is no basis for knowing if a
particular result is due to thevariable being tested.

In a high school laboratory, which of the following constitutes an
experiment?I. learning to use a microscope by examining fixed
specimens on slidesII. being able to examine swimming protists
under a microscopeIII. seeking to identify the pigments present
in a leafIV. preparing root tips for examination by staining
themA) I onlyB) II onlyC) III onlyD) II and
III onlyE) II, III, and IV

C) III only

Which branch of biology is concerned with the naming and classifying
of organisms?A) informaticsB) schematic biologyC)
taxonomyD) genomicsE) evolution

C) taxonomy

All the organisms on your campus make upA) an
ecosystem.B) a community.C) a population.D) an
experimental group.E) a domain.

B) a community.

Which of the following best demonstrates the unity among all
organisms?A) identical DNA sequencesB) descent with
modificationC) the structure and function of DNAD) natural
selectionE) emergent properties

C) the structure and function of DNA

A controlled experiment is one thatA) proceeds slowly enough
that a scientist can make careful records of the results.B)
tests experimental and control groups in parallel.C) is repeated
many times to make sure the results are accurate.D) keeps all
variables constant.E) is supervised by an experienced scientist.

B) tests experimental and control groups in parallel.

Which of the following statements best distinguishes hypotheses from
theories in science?A) Theories are hypotheses that have been
proved.B) Hypotheses are guesses; theories are correct
answers.C) Hypotheses usually are relatively narrow in scope;
theories have broad explanatory power.D) Hypotheses and theories
are essentially the same thing.E) Theories are proved true;
hypotheses are often falsified.

C) Hypotheses usually are relatively narrow in scope; theories have
broad explanatory power.

Which of the following is an example of qualitative data?A) The
temperature decreased from 20�C to 15�C.B) The plant�s height is
25 centimeters (cm).C) The fish swam in a zigzag motion.D)
The six pairs of robins hatched an average of three chicks.E)
The contents of the stomach are mixed every 20 seconds.

C) The fish swam in a zigzag motion.

Which of the following best describes the logic of scientific
inquiry?A) If I generate a testable hypothesis, tests and
observations will support it.B) If my prediction is correct, it
will lead to a testable hypothesis.C) If my observations are
accurate, they will support my hypothesis.D) If my hypothesis is
correct, I can expect certain test results.E) If my experiments
are set up right, they will lead to a testable hypothesis.

D) If my hypothesis is correct, I can expect certain test results.

adapted

Matched to the local environment.

evolution

Descent with modification; the idea that living species are
descendants of ancestral species that were different from the
present-day ones; also defined more narrowly as the change in the
genetic composition of a population from generation to generation.

biology

The scientific study of life.

reductionism

The approach of reducing complex systems to simpler components that
are more manageable to study.

biosphere

The entire portion of Earth inhabited by life; the sum of all the
planet's ecosystems.

ecosystem

All the organisms in a given area as well as the abiotic factors with
which they interact; one or more communities and the physical
environment around them.

community

All the organisms that inhabit a particular area; an assemblage of
populations of different species living close enough together for
potential interaction.

population

A group of individuals of the same species that live in the same area
and interbreed, producing fertile offspring.

organism

An individual living thing.

organ

A specialized center of body function composed of several different
types of tissues.

organ system

A group of organs that work together in performing vital body functions.

tissue

An integrated group of cells with a common structure, function, or both.

cell

Life's fundamental unit of structure and function.

organelle

Any of several kinds of membrane-enclosed structures with specialized
functions, suspended in the cytosol of eukaryotic cells.

molecule

Two or more atoms held together by covalent bonds.

atom

The smallest unit of matter that retains the properties of an element.

emergent properties

New properties that arise with each step upward in the hierarchy of
life, owing to the arrangement and interactions of parts as complexity increases.

systems biology

An approach to studying biology that aims to model the dynamic
behavior of whole biological systems based on a study of the
interactions among the system's parts.

eukaryotic cell

A type of cell with a membrane-enclosed nucleus and membrane-enclosed
organelles and include protists, plants, fungi, and animals.

prokaryotic cell

A type of cell lacking a membrane-enclosed nucleus and
membrane-enclosed organelles and include bacteria and archaea.

DNA

A nucleic acid molecule, usually a double-helix, in which each
polynucleotide strand consists of nucleotide monomers with a
deoxyribose sugar and the nitrogenous bases adenine (A), cytosine (C),
guanine (G), and thymine (T); capable of being replicated and
determining the inherited structure of a cell's proteins.

replication

The process of copying DNA before a cell divides.

gene

A discrete unit of hereditary information consisting of a specific
nucleotide sequence in DNA (or RNA, in some viruses).

gene expression

The process by which information encoded in DNA directs the synthesis
of proteins or, in some cases, RNAs that are not translated into
proteins and instead function as RNAs.

genome

The genetic material of an organism or virus; the complete complement
of an organism's or virus's genes along with its noncoding nucleic
acid sequences.

genomics

The study of whole sets of genes and their interactions within a
species, as well as genome comparisons between species.

bioinformatics

The use of computers, software, and mathematical models to process
and integrate biological information from large data sets.

Bacteria

One of two prokaryotic domains, the other being Archaea.

Archaea

One of two prokaryotic domains, the other being Bacteria.

Eukarya

The domain that includes all eukaryotic organisms.

natural selection

A process in which individuals that have certain inherited traits
tend to survive and reproduce at higher rates than other individuals
because of those traits.

science

An approach to understanding the natural world.

inquiry

The search for information and explanation, often focusing on
specific questions.

data

Recorded observations.

qualitative data

A type of recorded observation that is descriptive and not numerical.

quantitative data

A type of recorded observation that is numerical and often organized
into tables and graphs.

inductive reasoning

A type of logic in which generalizations are based on a large number
of specific observations.

hypothesis

A testable explanation for a set of observations based on the
available data and guided by inductive reasoning. Narrower in scope
than theory.

deductive reasoning

A type of logic in which specific results are predicted from a
general premise.

controlled experiment

An experiment in which an experimental group is compared with a
control group that varies only in the factor being tested.

theory

An explanation that is broader in scope than a hypothesis, generates
new hypotheses, and is supported by a large body of evidence.

technology

The application of scientific knowledge for a specific purpose, often
involving industry or commerce but also including uses in basic research.

Organisms are composed of

Matter

Matter

Anything that takes up space and has mass

Element

Substance that cannot be broken down to other substances by chemical
reactions(92 of them)

Compound

A substance consisting of two or more different elements combined in
a fixed ratio

Example of Compound

Sodium Chloride - NaCl = table salt

Essential Elements

*Elements that an organism needs to live a healthy life and reproduce
(20-25% of 92 natural elements)

Trace Elements

Required by an organism in only minute quantities

Example of Trace Elements

Calcium, Phosphorus, Potassium, Sulfur, Sodium, Chlorine, Magnesium

Atom

The smallest unit of matter that still retains the properties of an element

Neutrons

Neutral electric charge

Protons

One unit of positive charge

Electrons

one unit of negative charge

Atomic nucleus

center of an atom- where protons and neutrons are packed together
tightly in a dense core

Dalton

unit of measurement used for atoms and subatomic particles

Atomic Number

The number of protons-unique to each element
*written as a subscript to the left of the symbol for the element

Mass Number

Sum of protons and neutrons
*written as a superscript

Atomic Mass

Approximation of total mass of an atom

Isotopes

#NAME?

Radioactive Isotope

Spontaneously give off particles and energy

Half-Life

The time it takes for 50% of the parent isotope to decay

Radiometric Dating

Scientists measure the ratio of different isotopes and calculate how
many half-lives(in years) have passed since an organism was fossilized
or a rock was formed

Energy

The capacity to cause change-by doing work

Potential Energy

The energy that matter possesses because of its location or structure

Electron Shells

#NAME?

Valence Electrons

Outer electrons

Valence Shell

Outermost electron shell

Orbital

The three-dimensional space where an electron is found 90% of the time

Chemical Bonds

when atoms stay close together - held by attractions called _______

Covalent Bond

The sharing of a pair of valence electrons by two atoms

Example of Covalent Bond

2 Hydrogen Bonds sharing their valence electrons to form a full 1S orbital

Molecule

Two or more atoms held together by covalent bonds

Single Bond

A pair of shared electrons
(represented by a line.. H-H)

Double Bond

Sharing of 2 pairs of valence electrons
(represented by 2 lines.. O=O)

Valence

Bonding capacity of an atom

Electronegativity

The attraction of a particular atom for the electrons of a covalent bond

Non-polar Covalent bond

A covalent bond between two atoms of the same element..electrons are
shared equally

Polar Covalent bond

When an atom is bonded with a more electronegative atom

Ions

Two resulting oppositely charged atoms(or molecules)

Cation

A positively charged ion

Anion

A negatively charged ion

Ionic Bond

Formed by any two ions of opposite charge

Example of Ionic Bond

Na+Cl
Na gives its lone electron on the outer shell to Cl to
complete Cl

Hydrogen Bonds

The attraction between a hydrogen and an electronegative atom

About 25 of the 92 natural elements are known to be essential to
life. Which 4 of these 25elements make up approximately 96% of
living matter?A) carbon, sodium, hydrogen, nitrogenB)
carbon, oxygen, phosphorus, hydrogenC) oxygen, hydrogen,
calcium, nitrogenD) carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygenE)
carbon, oxygen, nitrogen, calcium

D) carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen

Trace elements are those required by an organism in only minute
quantities. Which of thefollowing is a trace element that is
required by humans and other vertebrates, but not by
otherorganisms such as bacteria or plants?A)
nitrogenB) calciumC) iodineD) sodiumE) phosphorus

C) iodine

Which of the following statements is false?A) Carbon, hydrogen,
oxygen, and nitrogen are the most abundant elements of living
matter.B) Some naturally occurring elements are toxic to
organisms.C) All organisms require the same elements in the same
quantities.D) Iron is an example of an element needed by all
organisms.E) Approximately one-quarter of the natural elements
are essential elements.

C) All organisms require the same elements in the same quantities.

Why is each element unique and different from other elements with
respect to its chemicalproperties?A) Each element has a
unique atomic mass.B) Each element has a unique atomic
number.C) Each element has a unique number of protons.D)
Each element has a unique number of neutrons.E) Each element has
different radioactive properties.

C) Each element has a unique number of protons.

Knowing just the atomic mass of an element allows inferences about
which of the following?A) the number of electrons in the
elementB) the number of protons in the elementC) the
number of neutrons in the elementD) the number of protons plus
neutrons in the elementE) the number of protons plus electrons
in the element

D) the number of protons plus neutrons in the element

In what way are elements in the same column of the periodic table the
same?A) They have the same number of protons.B) They have
the same number of neutrons.C) They have the same number of
electrons.D) They have the same number of electrons in their
valence shell.E) They have the same number of electron shells.

D) They have the same number of electrons in their valence shell.

The nucleus of a nitrogen atom contains 7 neutrons and 7 protons.
Which of the following is acorrect statement concerning
nitrogen?A) The nitrogen atom has a mass number of approximately
7 and an atomic number of 14.B) The nitrogen atom has a mass
number of approximately 14 and an atomic number of 7.C) The
nitrogen atom has a mass number of approximately 14 and an atomic
number of 14.D) The nitrogen atom has a mass number of
approximately 7 and an atomic number of 21.E) The nitrogen atom
has a mass number of approximately 14 and an atomic number of 21

B) The nitrogen atom has a mass number of approximately 14 and an
atomic number of 7.

Molybdenum has an atomic number of 42. Several common isotopes exist,
with mass numbersof 92, 94, 95, 96, 97, 98, and 100. Therefore,
which of the following can be true?A) Molybdenum atoms can have
between 50 and 58 neutrons.B) The isotopes of molybdenum have
different electron configurations.C) The isotopes of molybdenum
can have between 50 and 58 protons.D) The isotopes of molybdenum
have between 50 and 58 neutrons and have different
electronconfigurations.E) The isotopes of molybdenum have
between 50 and 58 protons and have different electronconfigurations.

A) Molybdenum atoms can have between 50 and 58 neutrons.

Carbon-12 is the most common isotope of carbon and has a mass number
of 12. However, theatomic mass of carbon is slightly more than
12 daltons. Why?A) The atomic mass does not include the mass of
electrons.B) Some carbon atoms in nature have an extra
proton.C) Some carbon atoms in nature have more
neutrons.D) Some carbon atoms in nature have a different valence
electron distribution.E) Some carbon atoms in nature have
undergone radioactive decay.

C) Some carbon atoms in nature have more neutrons.

One difference between carbon-12 ( C) and carbon-14 ( C) is that
carbon-14 hasA) two more protons than carbon-12.B) two
more electrons than carbon-12.C) two more neutrons than
carbon-12.D) two more protons and two more neutrons than
carbon-12.E) two more electrons and two more neutrons than carbon-12.

C) two more neutrons than carbon-12.

An atom has 6 electrons in its outer shell. How many unpaired
electrons does it have?A) 0B) 2C) 4D)
6E) 2 or 4

B) 2

The atomic number of nitrogen is 7. Nitrogen-15 is heavier than
nitrogen-14 because theatomic nucleus of nitrogen-15 contains
how many neutrons?A) 6B) 7C) 8D) 12E) 14

C) 8

Electrons exist only at fixed levels of potential energy. However, if
an atom absorbssufficient energy, a possible result is
thatA) an electron may move to an electron shell farther away
from the nucleus.B) an electron may move to an electron shell
closer to the nucleus.C) the atom may become a radioactive
isotope.D) the atom would become a positively charged ion, or
cation, and become a radioactive isotope.E) the atom would
become a negatively charged ion, or anion.

A) an electron may move to an electron shell farther away from the nucleus.

The atomic number of neon is 10. Therefore, which of the following is
most correct about anatom of neon?A) It has 8 electrons in
its outer electron shell.B) It is inert.C) It has an
atomic mass of 10 daltons.D) It has 8 electrons in its outer
electron shell and it is inert.E) It has 8 electrons in its
outer electron shell, it is inert, and it has an atomic mass of 10 daltons.

D) It has 8 electrons in its outer electron shell and it is inert.

From its atomic number of 15, it is possible to predict that the
phosphorus atom hasA) 15 neutrons.B) 15 protons.C)
15 electrons.D) 8 electrons in its outermost electron
shell.E) 15 protons and 15 electrons.

E) 15 protons and 15 electrons.

The atomic number of each atom is given to the left of each of the
following elements.Which of the atoms has the same valence as
the carbon in the photo
A) 7N nitrogenB) 9F
fluorineC) 10Ne neonD) 12Mg
magnesiumE) 14Si silicon

E) 14Si silicon

Two atoms appear to have the same mass number. These atomsA)
must have the same atomic number.B) must have the same number of
electrons.C) must have the same chemical properties.D)
must have the same number of protons + neutrons.E) must have the
same atomic number, the same number of protons + neutrons, the same
numberof electrons, and the same chemical properties.

D) must have the same number of protons + neutrons.

Phosphorus-32, a radioactive isotope of phosphorus-31 (atomic number
15), undergoes aform of radioactive decay whereby a neutron
turns into a proton, which is retained in the nucleus,and emits
radiation in the form of an electron. What is the product of such
radioactive decay ofphosphorus-32?A) phosphorus-31B)
a positively charged phosphorus-31 ionC) a negatively charged
phosphorus-32 ionD) sulfur-32 (atomic number 16)E) the
conversion of the phosphorus-32 atom into pure energy

D) sulfur-32 (atomic number 16)

Fluorine has an atomic number of 9 and a mass number of 19. How many
electrons areneeded to complete the valence shell of a fluorine
atom?A) 1B) 3C) 0D) 7E) 9

A) 1

Oxygen has an atomic number of 8 and a mass number of 16. Thus, what
is the atomic massof an oxygen atom?A) approximately 8
gramsB) approximately 8 daltonsC) approximately 16
gramsD) approximately 16 daltonsE) approximately 24 grams

D) approximately 16 daltons

What is the maximum number of electrons in a single 2 p orbital of an
atom?A) 1B) 2C) 3D) 4E) 5

B) 2
*Remember each orbital has 2 electrons

An atom with atomic number 12 would have what type of chemical
behavior in bonding withother elements?A) It would form
ions with a +1 charge.B) It would form ions with a +2
charge.C) It would form ions with a -1 charge.D) It would
form ions with a -2 charge.E) It would form two covalent bonds
with other atoms.

B) It would form ions with a +2 charge.

A covalent chemical bond is one in whichA) electrons are
removed from one atom and transferred to another atom so that the two
atomsbecome oppositely charged.B) protons and neutrons are
shared by two atoms so as to satisfy the requirements of both
atoms.C) outer-shell electrons of two atoms are shared so as to
satisfactorily fill the outer electronshells of both
atoms.D) outer-shell electrons of one atom are transferred to
fill the inner electron shell of anotheratom.E) an
electron occupies a hybrid orbital located between the nuclei of two atoms.

C) outer-shell electrons of two atoms are shared so as to
satisfactorily fill the outer electronshells of both atoms.

If an atom of sulfur (atomic number 16) were allowed to react with
atoms of hydrogen(atomic number 1), which of the following
molecules would be formed?

B) H�S�H

What is the maximum number of covalent bonds an element with atomic
number 8 can makewith hydrogen?A) 1B) 2C)
3D) 4E) 6

B) 2

Nitrogen (N) is much more electronegative than hydrogen (H). Which of
the followingstatements is correct about the atoms in ammonia
(NH3)?A) Each hydrogen atom has a partial positive
charge; the nitrogen atom has a partial negativecharge.B)
The nitrogen atom has a full positive charge; each hydrogen atom has a
full positive charge.C) Each hydrogen atom has a partial
negative charge; the nitrogen atom has a full
positivecharge.D) The nitrogen atom has a partial positive
charge; each hydrogen atom has a partial negativecharge.E)
There are covalent bonds between the hydrogen atoms and polar bonds
between eachhydrogen atom and the nitrogen atom.

A) Each hydrogen atom has a partial positive charge; the nitrogen
atom has a partial negativecharge.

When two atoms are equally electronegative, they will interact to
formA) hydrogen bonds.B) van der Waals
interactions.C) polar covalent bonds.D) nonpolar covalent
bonds.E) ionic bonds.

D) nonpolar covalent bonds.

What results from an unequal sharing of electrons between
atoms?A) a nonpolar covalent bondB) a polar covalent
bondC) an ionic bondD) radioactive decayE) a
hydrophobic interaction

B) a polar covalent bond

A covalent bond is likely to be polar whenA) one of the atoms
sharing electrons is much more electronegative than the other
atom.B) the two atoms sharing electrons are equally
electronegative.C) oxygen is one of the two atoms sharing
electrons.D) one of the atoms has absorbed more energy than the
other atom.E) the two atoms sharing electrons are different elements.

A) one of the atoms sharing electrons is much more electronegative
than the other atom.

Which of the following molecules contains the most polar covalent
bond?A) H2 B) O2 C)
CO2 D) H2OE) CH4

D) H2O

In comparing covalent bonds and ionic bonds, which of the following
would you expect?A) An atom can form covalent bonds with
multiple partner atoms, but only a single ionic bondwith a
single partner atom.B) Covalent bonds and ionic bonds occupy
opposite ends of a continuous spectrum, from nearlyequal to
completely unequal sharing of electrons.C) Both involve
electrical attraction between the electrons of one atom and the
nucleus of theother atom.D) Ionic interactions remain when
covalent bonds are broken in water. Ionic bonds are muchstronger
than covalent bonds.

B) Covalent bonds and ionic bonds occupy opposite ends of a
continuous spectrum, from nearlyequal to completely unequal
sharing of electrons.

What is the difference between covalent bonds and ionic
bonds?A) Covalent bonds are formed between atoms to form
molecules; ionic bonds are formedbetween atoms to form
compounds.B) Covalent bonds involve the sharing of pairs of
electrons between atoms; ionic bonds involvethe sharing of
single electrons between atoms.C) Covalent bonds involve the
sharing of electrons between atoms; ionic bonds involve
theelectrical attraction between atoms.D) Covalent bonds
involve the sharing of electrons between atoms; ionic bonds involve
thesharing of protons between atoms.E) Covalent bonds
involve the transfer of electrons between atoms; ionic bonds involve
thesharing of electrons between atoms.

C) Covalent bonds involve the sharing of electrons between atoms;
ionic bonds involve theelectrical attraction between atoms.

In ammonium chloride salt (NH4Cl) the anion is a single
chloride ion, Cl. What is the cationof NH4Cl?A)
N, with a charge of +1B) NH, with a charge of +1C)
H3, with a charge of +1D) NH4, with a
charge of +1E) NH4, with a charge of +4

D) NH4, with a charge of +1

The atomic number of chlorine is 17. The atomic number of magnesium
is 12. What is theformula for magnesium chloride?A)
MgClB) MgCl2 C) Mg2ClD)
Mg2Cl2 E) MgCl3

B) MgCl2

How many electron pairs are shared between carbon atoms in a molecule
that has theformula C2H4?A)
0B) 1C) 2D) 3E) 4

C) 2

Which bond or interaction would be difficult to disrupt when
compounds are put into water?A) covalent bondB) hydrogen
bondC) van der Waals interactionD) ionic bondE)
either covalent bond or ionic bond

A) covalent bond

Van der Waals interactions result whenA) hybrid orbitals
overlap.B) electrons are not symmetrically distributed in a
molecule.C) molecules held by ionic bonds react with
water.D) two polar covalent bonds react.E) a hydrogen atom
loses an electron.

B) electrons are not symmetrically distributed in a molecule.

What bonding or interaction is most likely to occur among a broad
array of molecules ofvarious types (polar, nonpolar,
hydrophilic, hydrophobic)?A) covalent bondingB) polar
covalent bondingC) ionic bondingD) hydrogen
bondingE) van der Waals interactions

E) van der Waals interactions

Which of the following is (are) not considered to be a weak molecular
interaction?A) a covalent bondB) a van der Waals
interactionC) an ionic bond in the presence of waterD) a
hydrogen bondE) both a hydrogen bond and a covalent bond

A) a covalent bond

Which of the following would be regarded as compounds?A)
H2O, O2, and CH4 B)
H2O and O2 C) O2 and
CH4 D) CH4 and O2, but not
H2OE) H2O and CH4, but not O2

E) H2O and CH4, but not O2

What is the maximum number of hydrogen atoms that can be covalently
bonded in amolecule containing two carbon atoms?A)
2B) 3C) 4D) 6E) 8

D) 6

Which of the following is true for this reaction?3 H2 + N2 ? 2
NH3A) The reaction is nonreversible.B) Hydrogen and
nitrogen are the reactants of the reverse reaction.C) Hydrogen
and nitrogen are the products of the forward reaction.D) Ammonia
is being formed and decomposed.E) Hydrogen and nitrogen are
being decomposed.

D) Ammonia is being formed and decomposed.

Which of the following correctly describes chemical
equilibrium?A) Forward and reverse reactions continue with no
effect on the concentrations of the reactantsand
products.B) The concentrations of the products are higher than
the concentrations of the reactants.C) Forward and reverse
reactions have stopped so that the concentration of the reactants
equalsthe concentration of the products.D) Reactions stop
only when all reactants have been converted to products.E) There
are equal concentrations of reactants and products, and the reactions
have stopped.

A) Forward and reverse reactions continue with no effect on the
concentrations of the reactantsand products

Which of the following correctly describes any reaction that has
reached chemicalequilibrium?A) The concentration of the
reactants equals the concentration of the products.B) The rate
of the forward reaction is equal to the rate of the reverse
reaction.C) All of the reactants have been converted to the
products of the reaction.D) All of the products have been
converted to the reactants of the reaction.E) Both the forward
and the reverse reactions have stopped with no net effect on
theconcentration of the reactants and the products.

B) The rate of the forward reaction is equal to the rate of the
reverse reaction.

Which of the following explains most specifically the attraction of
water molecules to oneanother?A) nonpolar covalent
bondB) polar covalent bondC) ionic bondD) hydrogen
bondE) hydrophobic interaction

D) hydrogen bond

If a salamander relied on hydrogen bonds to cling to surfaces, what
type of surface wouldcause the most problems for this
animal?A) a surface coated with a thin film of waterB) a
surface made with carbon and hydrogen atoms covalently bonded
togetherC) a surface made with carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen
atoms covalently bonded togetherD) a surface made with carbon,
hydrogen, nitrogen, and oxygen atoms covalently
bondedtogetherE) a surface made with silicon and oxygen
atoms covalently bonded together

B) a surface made with carbon and hydrogen atoms covalently bonded together

In a single molecule of water, two hydrogen atoms are bonded to a
single oxygen atom byA) hydrogen bonds.B) nonpolar
covalent bonds.C) polar covalent bonds.D) ionic
bonds.E) van der Waals interactions.

C) polar covalent bonds.

The slight negative charge at one end of one water molecule is
attracted to the slight positivecharge of another water
molecule. What is this attraction called?A) a covalent
bondB) a hydrogen bondC) an ionic bondD) a
hydrophilic bondE) a van der Waals interaction

B) a hydrogen bond

The partial negative charge in a molecule of water occurs
becauseA) the oxygen atom acquires an additional
electron.B) the electrons shared between the oxygen and hydrogen
atoms spend more time around theoxygen atom�s nucleus than
around the hydrogen atom�s nucleus.C) the oxygen atom has two
pairs of electrons in its valence shell that are not neutralized
byhydrogen atoms.D) the oxygen atom forms hybrid orbitals
that distribute electrons unequally around the
oxygennucleus.E) one of the hydrogen atoms donates an
electron to the oxygen atom.

B) the electrons shared between the oxygen and hydrogen atoms spend
more time around theoxygen atom�s nucleus than around the
hydrogen atom�s nucleus.

Sulfur is in the same column of the periodic table as oxygen, but has
electronegativity similarto carbon. Compared to water molecules,
molecules of H2S willA) ionize more readily.B)
have greater cohesion to other molecules of H2S.C)
have a greater tendency to form hydrogen bonds with each
other.D) have a higher capacity to absorb heat for the same
change in temperature.E) not form hydrogen bonds with each other.

E) not form hydrogen bonds with each other.

Water molecules are able to form hydrogen bonds withA)
compounds that have polar covalent bonds.B) oils.C) oxygen
gas (O2) molecules.D) chloride ions.E) any
compound that is not soluble in water.

A) compounds that have polar covalent bonds.

Which of the following effects is produced by the high surface
tension of water?A) Lakes don't freeze solid in winter, despite
low temperatures.B) A water strider can walk across the surface
of a small pond.C) Organisms resist temperature changes,
although they give off heat due to chemical reactions.D)
Evaporation of sweat from the skin helps to keep people from
overheating.E) Water flows upward from the roots to the leaves
in plants.

B) A water strider can walk across the surface of a small pond.

Which of the following takes place as an ice cube cools a
drink?A) Molecular collisions in the drink increase.B)
Kinetic energy in the drink decreases.C) A calorie of heat
energy is transferred from the ice to the water of the drink.D)
The specific heat of the water in the drink decreases.E)
Evaporation of the water in the drink increases.

B) Kinetic energy in the drink decreases.

A dietary Calorie equals 1 kilocalorie. Which of the following
statements correctly defines 1kilocalorie?A) 1,000
calories, or the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1
g of water by1,000�CB) 100 calories, or the amount of heat
required to raise the temperature of 100 g of water by 1�CC)
10,000 calories, or the amount of heat required to raise the
temperature of 1 kg of water by1�FD) 1,000 calories, or
the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of water
by 1�CE) 1,000 calories, or the amount of heat required to raise
the temperature of 100 g of water by100�C

D) 1,000 calories, or the amount of heat required to raise the
temperature of 1 kg of water by 1�C

The nutritional information on a cereal box shows that one serving of
a dry cereal has 200kilocalories. If one were to burn one
serving of the cereal, the amount of heat given off would
besufficient to raise the temperature of 20 kg of water how many
degrees Celsius?A) 0.2�CB) 1.0�CC) 2.0�CD)
10.0�CE) 20.0�C

D) 10.0�C

Liquid water's high specific heat is mainly a consequence of
theA) small size of the water molecules.B) high specific
heat of oxygen and hydrogen atoms.C) absorption and release of
heat when hydrogen bonds break and form.D) fact that water is a
poor heat conductor.E) higher density of liquid water than solid
water (ice)

C) absorption and release of heat when hydrogen bonds break and form.

Which type of bond must be broken for water to vaporize?A)
ionic bondsB) both hydrogen bonds and ionic bondsC) polar
covalent bondsD) hydrogen bondsE) both polar covalent
bonds and hydrogen bonds

D) hydrogen bonds

Temperature usually increases when water condenses. Which behavior of
water is mostdirectly responsible for this phenomenon?A)
the change in density when it condenses to form a liquid or
solidB) reactions with other atmospheric compoundsC) the
release of heat by the formation of hydrogen bondsD) the release
of heat by the breaking of hydrogen bondsE) the high surface
tension of water

C) the release of heat by the formation of hydrogen bonds

Why does ice float in liquid water?A) The high surface tension
of liquid water keeps the ice on top.B) The ionic bonds between
the molecules in ice prevent the ice from sinking.C) Ice always
has air bubbles that keep it afloat.D) Hydrogen bonds stabilize
and keep the molecules of ice farther apart than the
watermolecules of liquid water.E) The crystalline lattice
of ice causes it to be denser than liquid water.

D) Hydrogen bonds stabilize and keep the molecules of ice farther
apart than the watermolecules of liquid water.

Hydrophobic substances such as vegetable oil areA) nonpolar
substances that repel water molecules.B) nonpolar substances
that have an attraction for water molecules.C) polar substances
that repel water molecules.D) polar substances that have an
affinity for water.E) charged molecules that hydrogen-bond with
water molecules.

A) nonpolar substances that repel water molecules.

One mole (mol) of glucose (molecular mass = 180 daltons) isA)
180 ? 1023 molecules of glucose.B) 1 kg of glucose
dissolved in 1 L of solution.C) the largest amount of glucose
that can be dissolved in 1 L of solution.D) 180 kilograms of
glucose.E) both 180 grams of glucose and 6.02 ? 1023
molecules of glucose.

E) both 180 grams of glucose and 6.02 ? 1023 molecules of glucose.

How many molecules of glucose
(C6H12O6 molecular mass = 180
daltons) would bepresent in 90 grams of glucose?A) 90 ?
1023 B) (6.02/180) ? 1023 C)
(6.02/90) ? 1023 D) (90 ? 6.02) ? 1023
E) (90/180) ? 6.02 ? 1023

E) (90/180) ? 6.02 ? 1023

How many molecules of glycerol
(C3H8O3; molecular mass = 92) would
be present in 1 Lof a 1 M glycerol solution?A) 1 ?
106B) 14 ? 6.02 ? 1023 C) 92 ? 6.02 ?
1023 D) 6.02 ? 1026 E) 6.02 ? 1023

E) 6.02 ? 1023

When an ionic compound such as sodium chloride (NaCl) is placed in
water, the componentatoms of the NaCl crystal dissociate into
individual sodium ions (Na+) and chloride ions (Cl�).In
contrast, the atoms of covalently bonded molecules (e.g., glucose,
sucrose, glycerol) do notgenerally dissociate when placed in
aqueous solution. Which of the following solutions would
beexpected to contain the greatest number of solute particles
(molecules or ions)?A) 1 L of 0.5 M NaClB) 1 L of 0.5 M
glucoseC) 1 L of 1.0 M NaClD) 1 L of 1.0 M glucoseE)
1 L of 1.0 M NaCl and 1 L of 1.0 M glucose will contain equal numbers
of solute particles.

C) 1 L of 1.0 M NaCl

The molar mass of glucose is 180 g/mol. Which of the following
procedures should youcarry out to make a 1 M solution of
glucose?A) Dissolve 1 g of glucose in 1 L of water.B)
Dissolve 180 g of glucose in 1 L of water.C) Dissolve 180 g of
glucose in 180 g of water.D) Dissolve 180 milligrams (mg) of
glucose in 1 L of water.E) Dissolve 180 g of glucose in 0.8 L of
water, and then add more water until the total volume ofthe
solution is 1 L

E) Dissolve 180 g of glucose in 0.8 L of water, and then add more
water until the total volume ofthe solution is 1 L

he molar mass of glucose (C6H12O6)
is 180 g/mol. Which of the following proceduresshould you carry
out to make a 0.5 M solution of glucose?A) Dissolve 0.5 g of
glucose in a small volume of water, and then add more water until the
totalvolume of the solution is 1 L.B) Dissolve 90 g of
glucose in a small volume of water, and then add more water until the
totalvolume of the solution is 1 L.C) Dissolve 180 g of
glucose in a small volume of water, and then add more water until the
totalvolume of the solution is 1 L.D) Dissolve 0.5 g of
glucose in 1 L of water.E) Dissolve 180 g of glucose in 0.5 L of water.

B) Dissolve 90 g of glucose in a small volume of water, and then add
more water until the totalvolume of the solution is 1 L.

You have a freshly prepared 0.1 M solution of glucose in water. Each
liter of this solutioncontains how many glucose
molecules?A) 6.02 ? 1023 B) 3.01 ?
1023 C) 6.02 ? 1024 D) 12.04 ?
1023 E) 6.02 ? 1022

E) 6.02 ? 1022

The molecular weight of water is 18 daltons. What is the molarity of
1 liter of pure water?(Hint: Note that 1 liter of pure water has
a mass of 1 kg.)A) 55.6 MB) 18 MC) 37 MD) 0.66
ME) 1.0 M

A) 55.6 M

You have a freshly prepared 1 M solution of glucose in water. You
carefully pour out a 100-mL sample of that solution. How many
glucose molecules are included in that 100-mL sample?A) 6.02 ?
1023 B) 3.01 ? 1023 C) 6.02 ?
1024 D) 12.04 ? 1023 E) 6.02 ?
1022

E) 6.02 ? 1022

A strong acid like HClA) ionizes completely in an aqueous
solution.B) increases the pH when added to an aqueous
solution.C) reacts with strong bases to create a buffered
solution.D) is a strong buffer at low pH.E) both ionizes
completely in aqueous solutions and is a strong buffer at low pH.

A) ionizes completely in an aqueous solution.

Which of the following ionizes completely in solution and is
considered to be a strong base(alkali)?A) NaClB)
HClC) NH3 D) H2CO3
E) NaOH

E) NaOH

A 0.01 M solution of a substance has a pH of 2. What can you conclude
about thissubstance?A) It is a strong acid that ionizes
completely in water.B) It is a strong base that ionizes
completely in water.C) It is a weak acid.D) It is a weak
base.E) It is neither an acid nor a base.

A) It is a strong acid that ionizes completely in water.

A given solution contains 0.0001(10-4) moles of hydrogen
ions (H+) per liter. Which of thefollowing best describes this
solution?A) acidic: will accept H+ from both strong and weak
acidsB) basic: will accept H+ from both strong and weak
acidsC) acidic: will give H+ to weak acids, but accept H+ from
strong acidsD) basic: will give H+ to weak acids, but accept H+
from weak acidsE) acidic: will give H+ to both strong and weak acids

C) acidic: will give H+ to weak acids, but accept H+ from strong acids

A solution contains 0.0000001(10-7) moles of hydroxyl ions
(OH-) per liter. Which of thefollowing best describes this
solution?A) acidic: H+ acceptorB) basic: H+
acceptorC) acidic: H+ donorD) basic: H+ donorE) neutral

E) neutral

What is the pH of a solution with a hydroxyl ion (OH-) concentration
of 10-12 M?A) pH 2B) pH 4C) pH 10D)
pH 12E) pH 14

A) pH 2

What is the pH of a 1-millimolar NaOH solution?A) pH 3B)
pH 8C) pH 9D) pH 10E) pH 11

E) pH 11

Which of the following solutions would require the greatest amount of
base to be added tobring the solution to neutral pH?A)
gastric juice at pH 2B) vinegar at pH 3C) tomato juice at
pH 4D) black coffee at pH 5E) household bleach at pH 12

A) gastric juice at pH 2

What is the hydrogen ion (H+) concentration of a solution of pH
8?A) 8 MB) 8 ? 10-6 MC) 0.01 MD)
10-8 ME) 10-6 M

D) 10-8 M

If the pH of a solution is decreased from 9 to 8, it means that
theA) concentration of H+ has decreased to one-tenth (1/10) what
it was at pH 9.B) concentration of H+ has increased tenfold
(10X) compared to what it was at pH 9.C) concentration of OH-
has increased tenfold (10X) compared to what it was at pH 9.D)
concentration of OH- has decreased to one-tenth (1/10) what it was at
pH 9.E) concentration of H+ has increased tenfold (10X) and the
concentration of OH- has decreasedto one-tenth (1/10) what they
were at pH 9.

E) concentration of H+ has increased tenfold (10X) and the
concentration of OH- has decreasedto one-tenth (1/10) what they
were at pH 9.

If the pH of a solution is increased from pH 5 to pH 7, it means that
theA) concentration of H+ is twice (2X) what it was at pH
5.B) concentration of H+ is one-half (1/2) what it was at pH
5.C) concentration of OH- is 100 times greater than what it was
at pH 5.D) concentration of OH- is one-hundredth (0.01X) what it
was at pH 5.E) concentration of H+ is 100 times greater and the
concentration of OH- is one-hundredth whatthey were at pH 5.

C) concentration of OH- is 100 times greater than what it was at pH 5.

One liter of a solution of pH 2 has how many more hydrogen ions (H+)
than 1 L of a solutionof pH 6?A) 4 times moreB) 16
times moreC) 40,000 times moreD) 10,000 times moreE)
100,000 times more

D) 10,000 times more

One liter of a solution of pH 9 has how many more hydroxyl ions (OH-)
than 1 L of asolution of pH 4?A) 5 times moreB) 32
times moreC) 50,000 times moreD) 10,000 times moreE)
100,000 times more

E) 100,000 times more

Which of the following statements is true about buffer
solutions?A) They maintain a constant pH when bases are added to
them but not when acids are added tothem.B) They maintain
a constant pH when acids are added to them but not when bases are
added tothem.C) They maintain a relatively constant pH of
approximately 7 when either acids or bases areadded to
them.D) They maintain a relatively constant pH when either acids
or bases are added to them.E) They are found only in living
systems and biological fluids.

D) They maintain a relatively constant pH when either acids or bases
are added to them.

Buffers are substances that help resist shifts in pH byA)
releasing H+ to a solution when acids are added.B) donating H+
to a solution when bases are added.C) releasing OH- to a
solution when bases are added.D) accepting H+ from a solution
when acids are added.E) both donating H+ to a solution when
bases are added and accepting H+ when acids are added.

E) both donating H+ to a solution when bases are added and accepting
H+ when acids are added.

One of the buffers that contributes to pH stability in human blood is
carbonic acid (H2CO3).Carbonic acid is a
weak acid that dissociates into a bicarbonate ion (HCO3-)
and a hydrogen ion(H+). Thus,H2CO3 ?
HCO3- + H+If the pH of the blood drops, one would
expectA) a decrease in the concentration of
H2CO3 and an increase in the concentration of
HCO3-.B) the concentration of hydroxide ion (OH-) to
increase.C) the concentration of bicarbonate ion
(HCO3-) to increase.D) the HCO3- to act as
a base and remove excess H+ with the formation of
H2CO3.E) the HCO3- to act as an
acid and remove excess H+ with the formation of H2CO3.

D) the HCO3- to act as a base and remove excess H+ with
the formation of H2CO3.

One of the buffers that contributes to pH stability in human blood is
carbonic acid (H2CO3).Carbonic acid is a
weak acid that, when placed in an aqueous solution, dissociates into
abicarbonate ion (HCO3-) and a hydrogen ion (H+).
Thus,H2CO3 ? HCO3- + H+If
the pH of the blood increases, one would expectA) a decrease in
the concentration of H2CO3 and an increase in
the concentration of HCO3-.B) an increase in the
concentration of H2CO3 and a decrease in the
concentration of HCO3-.C) a decrease in the
concentration of HCO3- and an increase in the concentration
of H+.D) an increase in the concentration of HCO3-
and a decrease in the concentration of OH-.E) a decrease in the
concentration of HCO3- and an increase in the concentration
of both H2CO3 and H+

A) a decrease in the concentration of H2CO3 and
an increase in the concentration of HCO3-.

Assume that acid rain has lowered the pH of a particular lake to pH
4.0. What is the hydroxylion concentration of this lake?A)
1 ? 10-10 mol of hydroxyl ion per liter of lake
waterB) 1 ? 10-4 mol of hydroxyl ion per liter of
lake waterC) 10.0 M with regard to hydroxyl ion
concentrationD) 4.0 M with regard to hydroxyl ion
concentrationE) 1 ? 10-4 mol of hydroxyl ion per
liter of lake water and 4.0 M with regard to hydrogen ionconcentration

A) 1 ? 10-10 mol of hydroxyl ion per liter of lake water

Research indicates that acid precipitation can damage certain marine
organisms byA) buffering ocean waters.B) decreasing the H+
concentration in oceans.C) increasing the OH- concentration in
oceans.D) decreasing the concentration of carbonate ions in
oceans.E) both decreasing the H+ concentration and increasing
the OH- concentration in oceans.

D) decreasing the concentration of carbonate ions in oceans.

Consider two solutions: solution X has a pH of 4; solution Y has a pH
of 7. From thisinformation, we can reasonably conclude
thatA) solution Y has no free hydrogen ions (H+).B) the
concentration of hydrogen ions in solution X is 30 times as great as
the concentration ofhydrogen ions in solution Y.C) the
concentration of hydrogen ions in solution Y is 1,000 times as great
as the concentrationof hydrogen ions in solution X.D) the
concentration of hydrogen ions in solution X is 3 times as great as
the concentration ofhydrogen ions in solution Y.E) the
concentration of hydrogen ions in solution X is 1,000 times as great
as the concentrationof hydrogen ions in solution Y.

E) the concentration of hydrogen ions in solution X is 1,000 times as
great as the concentrationof hydrogen ions in solution Y.

If a solution has a pH of 7, this means thatA) there are no H+
ions in the water.B) this is a solution of pure water.C)
the concentration of H+ ions in the water equals the concentration of
OH- ions in the water.D) this is a solution of pure water, and
the concentration of H+ ions in the water is 10-7
M.E) this is a solution of pure water, and the concentration of
H+ ions equals the concentration ofOH- ions in the water.

C) the concentration of H+ ions in the water equals the concentration
of OH- ions in the water.

Carbon dioxide (CO2) is readily soluble in water,
according to the equation CO2 + H2O
?H2CO3. Carbonic acid
(H2CO3) is a weak acid. Respiring cells release
CO2 into thebloodstream. What will be the effect on
the pH of blood as that blood first comes in contact
withrespiring cells?A) Blood pH will decrease
slightly.B) Blood pH will increase slightly.C) Blood pH
will remain unchanged.D) Blood pH will first increase, then
decrease as CO2 combines with hemoglobin.E) Blood pH
will first decrease, then increase sharply as CO2 combines
with hemoglobin.

A) Blood pH will decrease slightly.

A beaker contains 100 mL of NaOH solution at pH = 13. A technician
carefully pours intothe beaker 10 mL of HCl at pH = 1. Which of
the following statements correctly describes theresults of this
mixing?A) The concentration of Na+ ion will rise.B) The
concentration of Cl- ion will be 0.1 M.C) The concentration of
undissociated H2O molecules will remain unchanged.D) The pH of
the beaker's contents will be neutral.E) The pH of the beaker's
contents will decrease.

E) The pH of the beaker's contents will decrease.

Equal volumes (5 mL) of vinegar from a freshly opened bottle are
added to each of thefollowing solutions. After complete mixing,
which of the mixtures will have the highest pH?A) 100 mL of pure
waterB) 100 mL of freshly brewed coffeeC) 100 mL of
household cleanser containing 0.5 M ammoniaD) 100 mL of freshly
squeezed lemon juiceE) 100 mL of tomato juice

C) 100 mL of household cleanser containing 0.5 M ammonia

Increased atmospheric CO2 concentrations might have what
effect on seawater?A) Seawater will become more acidic, and
bicarbonate concentrations will decrease.B) Seawater will become
more alkaline, and carbonate concentrations will decrease.C)
There will be no change in the pH of seawater, because carbonate will
turn to bicarbonate.D) Seawater will become more acidic, and
carbonate concentrations will decrease.E) Seawater will become
more acidic, and carbonate concentrations will increase.

D) Seawater will become more acidic, and carbonate concentrations
will decrease.

How would acidification of seawater affect marine organisms?A)
Acidification would increase dissolved carbonate concentrations and
promote faster growthof corals and shell-building
animals.B) Acidification would decrease dissolved carbonate
concentrations and promote faster growthof corals and
shell-building animals.C) Acidification would increase dissolved
carbonate concentrations and hinder growth of coralsand
shell-building animals.D) Acidification would decrease dissolved
carbonate concentrations and hinder growth of coralsand
shell-building animals.E) Acidification would increase dissolved
bicarbonate concentrations, and cause increasedcalcification of
corals and shellfish.

D) Acidification would decrease dissolved carbonate concentrations
and hinder growth of coralsand shell-building animals.

One idea to mitigate the effects of burning fossil fuels on
atmospheric CO2 concentrations isto pipe liquid
CO2 into the ocean at depths of 2,500 feet or greater. At
the high pressures at suchdepths, CO2 is heavier than
water. What potential effects might result from implementing such
ascheme?A) increased photosynthetic carbon fixation
because of the increased dissolved carbon dioxide inthe deep
waterB) increased carbonate concentrations in the deep
watersC) increased growth of corals from a change in the
carbonate�bicarbonate equilibriumD) no effect because carbon
dioxide is not soluble in waterE) both increased acidity of the
deep waters and changes in the growth of
bottom-dwellingorganisms with calcium carbonate shells

E) both increased acidity of the deep waters and changes in the
growth of bottom-dwellingorganisms with calcium carbonate shells

If the cytoplasm of a cell is at pH 7, and the mitochondrial matrix
is at pH 8, this means thatA) the concentration of H+ ions is
tenfold higher in the cytoplasm than in the
mitochondrialmatrix.B) the concentration of H+ ions is
tenfold higher in the mitochondrial matrix than in
thecytoplasm.C) the concentration of H+ ions in the
cytoplasm is 7/8 the concentration in the
mitochondrialmatrix.D) the mitochondrial matrix is more
acidic than the cytoplasm.E) the concentration of H+ ions in the
cytoplasm is 8/7 the concentration in the mitochondrialmatrix

A) the concentration of H+ ions is tenfold higher in the cytoplasm
than in the mitochondrialmatrix.

Which of the following best describes the relationship between the
atoms described in Figure2.1?A) They are isomers.B)
They are polymers.C) They are isotopes.D) They contain 1
and 3 protons, respectively.E) They each contain 1 neutron.

C) They are isotopes.

Refer to Figure 2.2 (first three rows of the periodic table). If life
arose on a planet wherecarbon is absent, which element might
fill the role of carbon?A) boronB) siliconC)
nitrogenD) aluminumE) phosphorus

B) silicon

Which drawing in Figure 2.3 depicts the electron configuration of an
element with chemicalproperties most similar to those of helium
(2He)?A) AB) BC) CD) DE) E

E) E

Which drawing in Figure 2.3 depicts the electron configuration of an
atom that can formcovalent bonds with two hydrogen
atoms?A) AB) BC) CD) DE) E

C) C

Which drawing in Figure 2.3 depicts the electron configuration of an
atom capable of formingthree covalent bonds with other
atoms?A) AB) BC) CD) DE) E

B) B

Which drawing in Figure 2.3 is of the electron configuration of a
sodium 11Na+ ion?A) AB) BC) CD)
DE) E

E) E

Which drawing in Figure 2.3 depicts an atom with a valence of
3?A) AB) BC) CD) DE) E

B) B

Which drawing in Figure 2.3 depicts an atom with a valence of
2?A) AB) BC) CD) DE) E

C) C

In Figure 2.4, how many electrons does nitrogen have in its valence
shell?A) 2B) 5C) 7D) 8E) 14

B) 5

In Figure 2.4, how many unpaired electrons does phosphorus have in
its valence shell?A) 15B) 2C) 3D) 7E) 5

C) 3

How many neutrons are present in the nucleus of a phosphorus-32
(32P) atom (see Figure2.4)?A) 5B)
15C) 16D) 17E) 32

D) 17

How many electrons does an atom of sulfur have in its valence shell
(see Figure 2.4)?A) 4B) 6C) 8D) 16E) 32

B) 6

Based on electron configuration, which of these elements in Figure
2.4 would exhibit achemical behavior most like that of
oxygen?A) carbonB) hydrogenC) nitrogenD)
sulfurE) phosphorus

D) sulfur

Figure 2.5 shows a representation of formic acid. A formic acid
moleculeA) will form hydrogen bonds with water
molecules.B) has a tetrahedral configuration of hybrid electron
orbitals for the carbon atom.C) consists of largely nonpolar
covalent bonds.D) is held together by hydrogen bonds.E)
has a tetrahedral shape and will form hydrogen bonds with water molecules.

A) will form hydrogen bonds with water molecules.

What results from the chemical reaction illustrated in Figure
2.6?A) a cation with a net charge of +1B) a cation with a
net charge of -1C) an anion with a net charge of +1D) an
anion with a net charge of -1E) a cation with a net charge of +1
and an anion with a net charge of -1

E) a cation with a net charge of +1 and an anion with a net charge of -1

What is the atomic number of the cation formed in the reaction
illustrated in Figure 2.6?A) 1B) 8C) 10D)
11E) 16

D) 11

What causes the shape of the molecule shown in Figure 2.7?A)
the configuration of the 2 p orbitals in the carbon atomB) the
configuration of the 1 s orbital in the carbon atomC) the
configuration of the sp hybrid orbitals of the electrons shared
between the carbon andhydrogen atomsD) the packing of the
carbon and hydrogen atoms in a crystal latticeE) hydrogen
bonding configurations between the carbon and hydrogen ato

C) the configuration of the sp hybrid orbitals of the electrons
shared between the carbon andhydrogen atoms

In the methane molecule shown in Figure 2.8, bonds have formed that
include both the sorbital valence electrons of the hydrogen
atoms and the p orbital valence electrons of the carbon.The
electron orbitals in these bonds are said to beA) double
orbitals.B) tetrahedral orbitals.C) complex
orbitals.D) hybrid orbitals.E) polar orbitals.

D) hybrid orbitals.

Which one of the atoms shown would be most likely to form a cation
with a charge of +1?

A

Which one of the atoms shown would be most likely to form an anion
with a charge of -1?

D

Which of the following pairs of atoms would be most likely to form a
polar covalent bond?

A

Which one of the following pairs of atoms would be most likely to
form ions and thus anionic bond?

B

Based on your knowledge of the polarity of water molecules, the
solute molecule depicted inFigure 2.9 is most likelyA)
positively charged.B) negatively charged.C) without
charge.D) hydrophobic.E) nonpolar.

A) positively charged.

How many grams would be equal to 1 mol of the compound shown in
Figure 2.10?(carbon = 12, oxygen = 16, hydrogen = 1)A)
29B) 30C) 60D) 150E) 342

C) 60

How many grams of the compound in Figure 2.10 would be required to
make 1 L of a 0.5 Msolution?(carbon = 12, oxygen = 16,
hydrogen = 1)A) 29B) 30C) 60D) 150E) 342

B) 30

How many grams of the compound in Figure 2.10 would be required to
make 2.5 L of a 1 Msolution?(carbon = 12, oxygen = 16,
hydrogen = 1)A) 29B) 30C) 60D) 150E) 342

D) 150

A small birthday candle is weighed. It is then lighted and placed
beneath a metal cancontaining 100 mL of water. Careful records
are kept as the temperature of the water rises. Datafrom this
experiment are shown on the graph. What amount of heat energy is
released in theburning of candle wax? (Note that 1 liter of pure
water has a mass of 1 kg.)
A) 0.5 kilocalories per gram of wax burnedB) 5
kilocalories per gram of wax burnedC) 10 kilocalories per gram
of wax burnedD) 20 kilocalories per gram of wax burnedE)
50 kilocalories per gram of wax burned

A) 0.5 kilocalories per gram of wax burned

Carbon dioxide (CO2) is readily soluble in water,
according to the equation CO2 + H2O ?
H2CO3. Carbonic acid
(H2CO3) is a weak acid. If CO2 is
bubbled into a beaker containing pure,freshly distilled water,
which of the following graphs correctly describes the results?

B

A group of molecular biologists is trying to synthesize a new
artificial compound to mimic theeffects of a known hormone that
influences sexual behavior. The biologists have turned to youfor
advice. Which of the following compounds is most likely to mimic the
effects of thehormone?A) a compound with the same number
of carbon atoms as the hormoneB) a compound with the same
molecular mass (measured in daltons) as the hormoneC) a compound
with the same three-dimensional shape as part of the hormoneD) a
compound with the same number of orbital electrons as the
hormoneE) a compound with the same number of hydrogen and
nitrogen atoms as the hormone

C) a compound with the same three-dimensional shape as part of the hormone

You have two beakers. One contains pure water, the other contains
pure methanol (woodalcohol). The covalent bonds of methanol
molecules are nonpolar, so there are no hydrogenbonds among
methanol molecules. You pour crystals of table salt (NaCl) into each
beaker.Predict what will happen.A) Equal amounts of NaCl
crystals will dissolve in both water and methanol.B) NaCl
crystals will not dissolve in either water or methanol.C) NaCl
crystals will dissolve readily in water but will not dissolve in
methanol.D) NaCl crystals will dissolve readily in methanol but
will not dissolve in water.E) When the first crystals of NaCl
are added to water or to methanol, they will not dissolve; butas
more crystals are added, the crystals will begin to dissolve faster
and faster.

C) NaCl crystals will dissolve readily in water but will not dissolve
in methanol.

You have two beakers. One contains a solution of HCl at pH = 1.0. The
other contains asolution of NaOH at pH = 13. Into a third
beaker, you slowly and cautiously pour 20 mL of theHCl and 20 mL
of the NaOH. After complete stirring, the pH of the mixture will
beA) 2.0.B) 12.0.C) 7.0.D) 5.0.E) 9.0.

C) 7.0.

The reactivity of an atom arises fromA) the average distance of
the outermost electron shell from the nucleus.B) the existence
of unpaired electrons in the valence shell.C) the sum of the
potential energies of all the electron shells.D) the potential
energy of the valence shell.E) the energy differences between
the electron shells.

B) the existence of unpaired electrons in the valence shell.

Which of the following statements correctly describes any chemical
reaction that has reachedequilibrium?A) The concentrations
of products and reactants are equal.B) The reaction is now
irreversible.C) Both forward and reverse reactions have
halted.D) The rates of the forward and reverse reactions are
equal.E) No reactants remain.

D) The rates of the forward and reverse reactions are equal.

) Many mammals control their body temperature by sweating. Which
property of water is mostdirectly responsible for the ability of
sweat to lower body temperature?A) water's change in density
when it condensesB) water's ability to dissolve molecules in the
airC) the release of heat by the formation of hydrogen
bondsD) the absorption of heat by the breaking of hydrogen
bondsE) water's high surface tension

D) the absorption of heat by the breaking of hydrogen bonds

) We can be sure that a mole of table sugar and a mole of vitamin C
are equal in theirA) mass in daltons.B) mass in
grams.C) volume.D) number of atoms.E) number of molecules.

E) number of molecules.

Measurements show that the pH of a particular lake is 4.0. What is
the hydrogen ionconcentration of the lake?A) 4.0 MB)
10?10 MC) 10?4 MD) 104 ME) 4%

C) 10?4 M

The atomic number of sulfur is 16. Sulfur combines with hydrogen by
covalent bonding toform a compound, hydrogen sulfide. Based on
the number of valence electrons in a sulfur atom,predict the
molecular formula of the compound.A) HSB) HS2
C) H2SD) H3S2 E) H4S

C) H2S

What coefficients must be placed in the following blanks so that all
atoms are accounted for inthe products?C6H12O6 ? ________
C2H6O + ________ CO2A) 1; 2B) 3; 1C) 1; 3D) 1;
1E) 2; 2

E) 2; 2

A slice of pizza has 500 kcal. If we could burn the pizza and use all
the heat to warm a 50-Lcontainer of cold water, what would be
the approximate increase in the temperature of the water?(Note:
A liter of cold water weighs about 1 kg.)A) 50�CB)
5�CC) 1�CD) 100�CE) 10�C

E) 10�C

organic compound

A chemical compound containing carbon.

macromolecule

A giant molecule formed by the joining of smaller molecules, usually
by a dehydration reaction. Polysaccharides, proteins, and nucleic acids.

valence

The bonding capacity of a given atom; the number of covalent bands an
atom can form usually equals the number of unpaired electrons in its
outermost shell.

hydrocarbon

An organic molecule consisting of only carbon and hydrogen.

hydroxyl group

A chemical group consisting of an oxygen atom joined to a hydrogen
atom. Molecules possessing this group are soluble in water and are
called alcohols.

carbonyl group

A chemical group present in aldehydes and ketones and consisting of a
carbon atom double-bonded to an oxygen atom.

carboxyl group

A chemical group present in organic acids and consisting of a single
carbon atom double-bonded to an oxygen atom and also bonded to a
hydroxyl group.

amino group

A chemical group consisting of a nitrogen atom bonded to two hydrogen
atoms; can act as a base in solution, accepting a hydrogen ion and
acquiring a charge of 1+.

sulfhydryl group

A chemical group consisting of a sulfur atom bonded to a hydrogen atom.

phosphate group

A chemical group consisting of a phosphorus atom bonded to four
oxygen atoms; important in energy transfer.

methyl group

A chemical group consisting of a carbon bonded to three hydrogen
atoms. May be attached to a carbon or to a different atom.

functional group

A specific configuration of atoms commonly attached to the carbon
skeletons of organic molecules and involved in chemical reactions.

adenosine triphosphate

An adenine-containing nucleoside triphosphate that releases free
energy when its phosphate bonds are hydrolyzed. This energy is used to
drive endergonic reactions in cells.

polymer

A long molecule consisting of many similar or identical monomers
linked together by covalent bonds.

monomer

The subunit that serves as the building block of a polymer.

enzyme

A macromolecule serving as a catalyst, a chemical agent that
increases the rate of a reaction without being consumed by the
reaction. Most are proteins.

dehydration reaction

A chemical reaction in which two molecules become covalently bonded
to each other with the removal of a water molecule.

hydrolysis

A chemical reaction that breaks bonds between two molecules by the
addition o water; functions in disassembly of polymers to monomers.

carbohydrate

A sugar (monosaccharide) or one o its dimers (disaccharide) or
polymers (polysaccharides).

monosaccharide

The simplest carbohydrate, active alone or serving as a monomer for
disaccharides and polysaccharides. Also known as simple sugars, and
they have molecular formulas that are generally some multiple of CH2O.

disaccharide

A double sugar, consisting of two monosaccharides joined by a
glycosidic linkage formed by a dehydration reaction.

glycosidic linkage

A covalent bond formed between two monosaccharides by a dehydration reaction.

polysaccharide

A polymer of many monosaccharides, formed by dehydration reactions.

starch

A storage polysaccharide in plants, consisting entirely of glucose
monomers joined by alpha glycosidic linkages.

glycogen

An extensively branched glucose storage polysaccharide found in the
liver and muscle of animals; the animal equivalent of starch.

cellulose

A structural polysaccharide of plant cell walls, consisting of
glucose monomers joined by beta glycosidic linkages.

chitin

A structural polysaccharide, consisting of amino sugar monomers,
found in many fungal cell walls and in the exoskeletons of all arthropods.

lipid

Any of a group of large biological molecules, including fats,
phospholipids, and steroids, that mix poorly, if at all, with water.

fat

A lipid consisting of three fatty acids linked to one glycerol
molecule; also called a triacylglycerol or triglyceride.

fatty acid

A carboxylic acid with a long hydrocarbon chain. They vary in length
and in the number and location of double bonds.

triacylglycerol

A lipid consisting of three fatty acids linked to one glycerol
molecule; also called a fat or triglyceride.

triglyceride

Another name for fat that is often found in the list of ingredients
on packaged foods.

saturated fatty acid

A fatty acid in which all carbons in the hydrocarbon tail are
connected by single bonds, thus maximizing the number of hydrogen
atoms attached to the carbon skeleton.

unsaturated fatty acid

A fatty acid that has one or more double bonds between carbons in the
hydrocarbon tail. Such bonding reduces the number of hydrogen atoms
attached to the carbon skeleton.

phospholipid

A lipid made up of glycerol joined to two fatty acids and a phosphate
group. The hydrocarbon chains of the fatty acids act as nonpolar,
hydrophobic tails, while the rest of the molecule acts as a polar,
hydrophilic head. They form bilayers that function as biological membranes.

steroid

A type of lipid characterized by a carbon skeleton consisting on four
fused rings with various chemical groups attached.

cholesterol

A steroid that forms an essential component of animal cell membranes
and acts as a precursor molecule for the synthesis of other
biologically important steroids, such as many hormones.

catalyst

A chemical agent that selectively increases the rate of a reaction
without being consumed by the reaction.

polypeptide

A polymer of many amino acids linked together by peptide bonds.

protein

A biologically functional molecule consisting of one or more
polypeptides folded and coiled into a specific three-dimensional structure.

amino acid

An organic molecule possessing both a carboxyl and an amino group.
They serve as the monomers of polypeptides.

peptide bond

The covalent bond between the carboxyl group on one amino acid and
the amino group on another, formed by a dehydration reaction.

primary structure

The level of protein structure referring to the specific linear
sequence of amino acids.

secondary structure

Regions of repetitive coiling or folding of the polypeptide backbone
of a protein due to hydrogen bonding between constituents of the
backbone (not the side chains).

alpha helix

A coiled region constituting one form of the secondary structure of
proteins, arising from a specific pattern of hydrogen bonding between
atoms of the polypeptide backbone (not the side chains).

beta pleated sheet

One form of the secondary structure of proteins in which the
polypeptide chain folds back and forth. Two regions of the chain lie
parallel to each other and are held together by hydrogen bonds between
atoms of the polypeptide backbone (not the side chains).

tertiary structure

The overall shape of a protein molecule due to interactions of amino
acid side chains, including hydrophobic interactions, ionic bonds,
hydrogen bonds, and disulfide bridges.

hydrophobic interaction

A type of weak chemical interaction caused when molecules that do not
mix with water coalesce to exclude water.

disulfide bridges

A strong covalent bond formed when the sulfur of one cysteine monomer
bonds to the sulfur of another cysteine monomer.

quaternary structure

The particular shape of a complex, aggregate protein, defined by the
characteristic three-dimensional arrangement of its constituent
subunits, each a polypeptide.

sickle-cell disease

A recessively inherited human blood disorder in which a single
nucleotide change in the beta-globin gene causes hemoglobin to
aggregate, changing red blood cell shape and causing multiple symptoms
in afflicted individuals.

denaturation

In proteins, a process in which a protein loses its native shape due
to the disruption of weak chemical bonds and interactions, thereby
becoming biologically inactive.

x-ray crystallography

A technique used to study the three-dimensional structure of
molecules. It depends on the diffraction of an X-ray beam by the
individual atoms of a crystallized molecule.

gene

A discrete unit of hereditary information consisting of a specific
nucleotide sequence in DNA (or RNA, in some viruses).

nucleic acid

A polymer (polynucleotide) consisting of many nucleotide monomers,
serves as a blueprint for proteins and, through the actions of
proteins, for all cellular activities. The two types are DNA and RNA.

deoxyribonucleic acid

A nucleic acid molecule, usually a double-stranded helix, in which
each polynucleotide strand consists of nucleotide monomers with a
deoxyribose sugar and the nitrogenous bases adenine (A), cytosine (C),
guanine (G), and thymine (T); capable of being replicated and
determining the inherited structure of a cell's proteins.

ribonucleic acid

A type of nucleic acid consisting of a polynucleotide made up of
nucleotide monomers with a ribose sugar and the nitrogenous bases
adenine (A), cytosine (C), guanine (G), and uracil (U); usually
single-stranded; functions in protein synthesis, gene regulation, and
as the genome of some viruses.

polynucleotide

A polymer consisting of many nucleotide monomers in a chain. The
nucleotides can be those of DNA or RNA.

nucleotide

The building block of a nucleic acid, consisting of a five-carbon
sugar covalently bonded to a nitrogenous base and one or more
phosphate groups.

pyrimidine

One of two types of nitrogenous bases found in nucleotides,
characterized by a six-membered ring. Cytosine (C), thymine (T), and
uracil (U).

purine

One of two types of nitrogenous bases found in nucleotides,
characterized by a six-membered ring fused to a five-membered ring.
Adenine (A) and guanine (G).

deoxyribose

The sugar component of DNA nucleotides, having one fewer hydroxyl
group than ribose, the sugar component of RNA nucleotides.

ribose

The sugar component of RNA nucleotides.

double helix

The form of native DNA, referring to its two adjacent antiparallel
polynucleotide strands wound around an imaginary axis into a spiral shape.

antiparallel

Referring to the arrangement of the sugar-phosphate backbones in a
DNA double helix (they run in opposite 5' to 3' directions).

complementary

Each strand of a DNA double helix is the predictable counterpart of
the other.

Which of the following is the correct electron configuration for the
bromide ion, Br-?
a) [Ar] 4s24p5
b) [Ar] 4s23d104p5
c) [Ar] 4s23d104p6
d) [Ar] 4s23d104p65s1
e) [Ar] 4s23d103p6

Remember: D orbital is -1 shell or row
F orbital is -2 shell or row (do not count 1 out of 15 F orbital
because 1 is in D orbital)

c) [Ar] 4s23d104p6

When carbon forms single covalent bonds with four other atoms, the
atoms joined to thecarbon form aA) sphere.B)
cube.C) tetrahedron.D) line.E) plane

C) tetrahedron.
ex:methane

When two carbon atoms are joined by a double bond, the atoms joined
to the carbons form aA) sphere.B) cube.C)
tetrahedron.D) line.E) plane

E) plane
ex:ethene

How many electron pairs does carbon share in order to complete its
valence shell?A) 1B) 2C) 3D) 4E) 8

D) 4

When two carbon atoms are joined by a double bond, how many electron
pairs are sharedbetween the two carbons?A) 1B)
2C) 3D) 4

B) 2

A carbon atom is most likely to form which of the following bonds
with other atoms?A) ionic bondsB) hydrogen bondsC)
covalent bondsD) covalent bonds and hydrogen bonds

C) covalent bonds

Research indicates that ibuprofen, a drug used to relieve
inflammation and pain, is a mixtureof two
enantiomers, that is, molecules thatA) have
identical chemical formulas but differ in the branching of their
carbon skeletons.B) are mirror images of one another.C)
exist in either linear chain or ring forms.D) differ in the
arrangement of atoms around their double bonds

B) are mirror images of one another.

Which of the following will result in changing the orientation of
bonds between carbon andother atoms from a tetrahedral
configuration to a planar configuration?A) the presence of
single covalent bonds with oxygen atomsB) the presence of single
covalent bonds with nitrogen atomsC) the presence of double
covalent bonds between the carbon atom and other atomsD) the
presence of polar covalent bonds between carbon and other atoms

C) the presence of double covalent bonds between the carbon atom and
other atoms

The primary functional groups in a common macromolecule are hydroxyl
groups. Which ofthe following statements regarding this
macromolecule is true?A) It lacks an asymmetric carbon, and it
is probably a fat or lipid.B) It will not dissolve in
water.C) It will dissolve in a nonpolar solvent.D) It will
form hydrogen bonds with water.

D) It will form hydrogen bonds with water.

Which two functional groups are always found in amino acids?A)
hydroxyl and carboxylB) carbonyl and aminoC) ketone and
aminoD) carboxyl and amino

D) carboxyl and amino

Which of the following will dissolve in water?A) organic
hydrocarbonsB) organic molecules with hydroxyl groupsC)
carbon skeletons bound to hydrogenD) fats

B) organic molecules with hydroxyl groups

Which of the following functional groups is hydrophobic?A)
aminoB) methylC) carboxylD) hydroxy

B) methyl

Amino acids are acids because they always possess which functional
group?A) aminoB) carbonylC) carboxylD)
phosphateE) hydroxyl

C) carboxyl

A carbon skeleton is covalently bonded to both an amino group and a
carboxyl group. Whenplaced in water, itA) will function
only as an acid because of the carboxyl group.B) will function
only as a base because of the amino group.C) will function as
both an acid and a base.D) will function as neither an acid nor
a base.

C) will function as both an acid and a base.

Which functional group can act as a base?A) aminoB)
phosphateC) hydroxylD) carboxylE) methyl

A) amino

Which of the following functional groups may be used to form polymers
via dehydrationreactions?A) only hydroxyl groupsB)
only carbonyl groupsC) only carboxyl groupsD) either
hydroxyl or carboxyl groupsE) either carbonyl or carboxyl groups

D) either hydroxyl or carboxyl groups

Which of the following is a correct monomer/polymer pairing?A)
monosaccharide/polypeptideB) amino acid/polysaccharideC)
amino acid/polypeptideD) glycerol/triglyceride

C) amino acid/polypeptide

Which of the following chemical equations describes a hydrolysis
reaction?A) monosaccharide + monosaccharide disaccharide +
H2OB) monosaccharide + monosaccharide +
H2O disaccharideC) disaccharide monosaccharide +
monosaccharide + H2OD) disaccharide + H2O
monosaccharide + monosaccharide

D) disaccharide + H2O monosaccharide + monosaccharide

Which of the following chemical equations describes a dehydration
reaction?A) monosaccharide + monosaccharide disaccharide +
H2OB) monosaccharide + monosaccharide +
H2O disaccharideC) disaccharide monosaccharide +
monosaccharide + H2OD) disaccharide + H2O
monosaccharide + monosaccharide

A) monosaccharide + monosaccharide disaccharide + H2O

Which of the following is a monomer used to build a
biological polymer?A) amino acidB)
disaccharideC) triglycerideD) DNA

A) amino acid

What is a common chemical reaction mechanism by which cells make
polymers frommonomers?A) decreasing the pHB)
hydrolysis reactionsC) dehydration reactionsD) the
formation of disulfide bridges between monomers

C) dehydration reactions

How many molecules of water are needed to completely hydrolyze a
polysaccharide that is10 monomers long?A) 12B)
11C) 10D) 9

D) 9

Which of the following best summarizes the relationship between
dehydration reactions andhydrolysis?A) Dehydration
reactions split water molecules and add hydroxyl groups to polymers,
andhydrolysis reactions remove hydroxyl groups from
polymers.B) Dehydration reactions assemble polymers, and
hydrolysis reactions break down polymers.C) Dehydration
reactions create monomers, and hydrolysis reactions assemble
polymers.D) Dehydration reactions break down polymers, and
hydrolysis reactions create monomers.

B) Dehydration reactions assemble polymers, and hydrolysis reactions
break down polymers.

Which of the following is an example of a hydrolysis
reaction?A) the reaction of two monosaccharides, forming a
disaccharide with the release of waterB) the synthesis of two
amino acids, forming a peptide bond with the release of waterC)
the reaction of a fat with glycerol, forming fatty acids with the
release of waterD) the reaction of a fat, forming glycerol and
fatty acids with the consumption of water

D) the reaction of a fat, forming glycerol and fatty acids with the
consumption of water

Which of the following is an example of a dehydration
reaction?A) the reaction of two monosaccharides, forming a
disaccharide with the release of waterB) the reaction of two
amino acids, forming a peptide bond with the consumption of
waterC) the reaction of a fat with glycerol, forming fatty acids
with the release of waterD) the reaction of a fat, forming
glycerol and fatty acids with the release of water

A) the reaction of two monosaccharides, forming a disaccharide with
the release of water

The molecular formula for glucose is
C6H12O6. What would be the molecular
formula for amolecule made by linking three glucose molecules
together by dehydration reactions?A)
C18H36O18 B)
C18H32O16 C)
C6H10O5 D)
C18H30O15 E) C16H36O16

B) C18H32O16

Which of the following is true of both starch and cellulose?A)
They are both polymers of glucose.B) They are cis-trans isomers
of each other.C) They can both be digested by humans.D)
They are both used for energy storage in plants.E) They are both
structural components of the plant cell wall.

A) They are both polymers of glucose.

The biochemical reaction that joins two amino acids to form a
dipeptide is accompanied byA) the addition of a water
molecule.B) the release of a carbon dioxide molecule.C)
the addition of a nitrogen atom.D) the release of a water molecule.

D) the release of a water molecule.

Humans can digest starch but not cellulose becauseA) the
monomer of starch is glucose, whereas the monomer of cellulose is
glucose modified bythe addition of a nitrogen-containing
group.B) humans have enzymes that can hydrolyze the ? glycosidic
linkages of starch but not the ?glycosidic linkages of
cellulose.C) humans have enzymes that can hydrolyze the ?
glycosidic linkages of starch but not the ?glycosidic linkages
of cellulose.D) humans harbor starch-digesting bacteria in the
digestive tract, but not cellulose-digestingbacteria.

C) humans have enzymes that can hydrolyze the ? glycosidic linkages
of starch but not the ?

Polysaccharides, triacylglycerols, and proteins are similar in that
theyA) are synthesized from monomers by hydrolysis
reactions.B) are synthesized from subunits by dehydration
reactions.C) are synthesized through the formation of peptide
bonds between monomers.D) are broken down into their subunits by
dehydration reactions.

B) are synthesized from subunits by dehydration reactions.

Which of the following compounds are formed by dehydration
reactions?A) triacylglycerolsB) monosaccharidesC)
amino acidsD) fatty acids

A) triacylglycerols

DNase is an enzyme that catalyzes the hydrolysis of the covalent
bonds that join nucleotidestogether. What would first happen to
DNA molecules treated with DNase?A) The two strands of the
double helix would separate.B) The phosphodiester bonds between
deoxyribose sugars would be broken.C) The bases would be
separated from the deoxyribose sugars.D) Oxygen atoms would be
removed from the deoxyribose sugars.

B) The phosphodiester bonds between deoxyribose sugars would be broken.

Which of the following is true of cellulose?A) It is a polymer
composed of enantiomers of glucose.B) It is a primary structural
component of plant cell walls.C) It is digestible by bacteria in
the human gut.D) It is a storage polysaccharide for energy in
plant cells.E) It is a polymer of glucose joined by ? glycosidic linkages.

B) It is a primary structural component of plant cell walls.

Which of the following polymers contains
nitrogen?A) starchB) glycogenC) celluloseD) chitin

D) chitin

Which of the following polymers lacks
nitrogen?A) proteinB) RNAC) glycogenD) chitin

C) glycogen

Which of the following classes of biological molecules consist of
both small molecules andmacromolecular polymers?A)
lipidsB) carbohydratesC) proteinsD) nucleic acids

B) carbohydrates

The enzyme amylase can break glycosidic linkages between glucose
monomers only if themonomers are the ? form. Which of the
following could amylase break down?A) starchB)
celluloseC) chitinD) starch and chitin

A) starch

On food packages, to what does the term insoluble fiber
refer?A) celluloseB) polypeptidesC) starchD) glycogen

A) cellulose

A molecule with the chemical formula
C6H12O6 is probably aA)
hydrocarbon.B) lipid.C) monosaccharideD) glycerol.

C) monosaccharide

Lactose, a sugar in milk, is composed of one glucose molecule joined
by a glycosidic linkageto one galactose molecule. How is lactose
classified?A) as a pentoseB) as a hexoseC) as a
monosaccharideD) as a disaccharideE) as a polysaccharide

D) as a disaccharide

Which of the following is the smallest carbohydrate?A)
lactoseB) glycogenC) chitinD) celluloseE) starch

A) lactose

Testosterone and estradiol are male and female sex hormones,
respectively, in manyvertebrates. How do these molecules differ
from each other?A) Testosterone and estradiol are structural
isomers but have the same molecular formula.B) Testosterone and
estradiol are cis-trans isomers but have the same molecular
formula.C) Testosterone and estradiol have different functional
groups attached to the same carbonskeleton.D) Testosterone
and estradiol are enantiomers of the same organic molecule.

C) Testosterone and estradiol have different functional groups
attached to the same carbonskeleton.

Why are hydrocarbons insoluble in water?A) The majority of
their bonds are polar covalent carbon-to-hydrogen linkages.B)
The majority of their bonds are nonpolar covalent carbon-to-hydrogen
linkages.C) They are hydrophilic.D) They exhibit
considerable molecular complexity and diversity.

B) The majority of their bonds are nonpolar covalent
carbon-to-hydrogen linkages.

Which of the following statements concerning saturated fats is
true?A) They are more common in plants than in animals.B)
They have multiple double bonds in the carbon chains of their fatty
acids.C) They are generally solid at room temperature.D)
They contain fewer hydrogen atoms than unsaturated fats having the
same number of carbonatoms

C) They are generally solid at room temperature.

A molecule with the formula C18H36O2
is probably aA) fatty acid.B) carbohydrate.C)
hydrocarbon.D) nucleic acid.

A) fatty acid.
its Stearic acid

Which of the following statements regarding lipids is true?A)
They generally contain nitrogen.B) They are made from glycerol
and amino acids.C) A gram of lipid stores less energy than a
gram of carbohydrate.D) They are insoluble in water.

D) They are insoluble in water.

Hydrogenated vegetable oil is the primary ingredient in margarine.
How does hydrogenatedvegetable oil differ from nonhydrogenated
vegetable oil?A) Hydrogenated vegetable oil has a lower melting
point than nonhydrogenated vegetable oil.B) Hydrogenated
vegetable oil is solid at room temperature, whereas nonhydrogenated
vegetableoil is liquid.C) Hydrogenated vegetable oil has
more kinks in its fatty acid chains than does
nonhydrogenatedvegetable oil.D) Hydrogenated vegetable oil
contains more cis fatty acids than nonhydrogenated vegetable oil.

B) Hydrogenated vegetable oil is solid at room temperature, whereas
nonhydrogenated vegetableoil is liquid.

Which of the following statements regarding saturated fatty acids is
true?A) They are the predominant fatty acid in corn oil.B)
They have double bonds between the carbon atoms of the fatty
acids.C) They are the principal molecules in lard and
butter.D) They are usually liquid at room temperature.E)
They are usually produced by plants.

C) They are the principal molecules in lard and butter.

Large organic molecules are generally synthesized by polymerization
of a few types ofsimple subunits. Which of the following is an
exception to this statement?A) a steroidB)
celluloseC) DNAD) an enzyme

A) a steroid

Which of the following large biological molecules will self-assemble
into a bilayer whenmixed with water?A) proteinsB)
triacylglycerolsC) celluloseD) phospholipids

D) phospholipids

Why are the vertebrate sex hormones estradiol and testosterone
considered to be lipids?A) They are essential components of cell
membranes.B) Their carbon skeletons are composed of primarily
C�C and C�H bonds.C) They are made of fatty acids.D) They
are hydrophilic compounds

B) Their carbon skeletons are composed of primarily C�C and C�H bonds.

Which of the following molecules lacks amino acids?A)
hemoglobinB) insulinC) antibodiesD) spider
silkE) cholesterol

E) cholesterol

There are 20 different amino acids. What makes one amino acid
different from another?A) different side chains (R groups)
attached to the carboxyl carbonB) different side chains (R
groups) attached to the amino groupsC) different side chains (R
groups) attached to an ? carbonD) different asymmetric carbons

C) different side chains (R groups) attached to an ? carbon

How many peptide bonds are present in a polypeptide that contains 45
amino acids?A) 90B) 46C) 45D) 44

D) 44

Which bonds are created during the formation of the primary structure
of a protein?A) disulfide bondsB) hydrogen bondsC)
peptide bondsD) phosphodiester bonds

C) peptide bonds

Which bonds maintain the primary structure of a protein?A)
disulfide bondsB) hydrogen bondsC) ionic bondsD)
peptide bonds

D) peptide bonds

What maintains the secondary structure of a protein?A) peptide
bonds between adjacent amino acidsB) hydrogen bonds between the
amino group of one peptide bond and the carboxyl group ofanother
peptide bondC) disulfide bonds between the amino group of one
peptide bond and the R group of anotheramino acidD)
hydrogen bonds between the carboxyl group of one peptide bond and the
R group of anotheramino acid

B) hydrogen bonds between the amino group of one peptide bond and the
carboxyl group ofanother peptide bond

Which type of interaction stabilizes the ? helix and the ? pleated
sheet structures of proteins?A) hydrophobic interactionsB)
ionic bondsC) hydrogen bondsD) peptide bonds

C) hydrogen bonds

The ? helix and ? pleated sheet are examples of which level of
protein structure?A) primaryB) secondaryC)
tertiaryD) quaternaryE) primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary

B) secondary

) Lactase is an enzyme composed of a single polypeptide that
hydrolyzes the disaccharidelactose to produce monosaccharides.
The optimal pH for lactase activity is 6. Transfer of lactaseto
pH 5 results in a substantial decrease in enzyme activity, likely due
to the disruption ofA) only the primary structure of the
enzyme.B) the primary and secondary structure of the
enzyme.C) the secondary and tertiary structure of the
enzyme.D) the secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structure of
the enzyme.

C) the secondary and tertiary structure of the enzyme.

Collagen is a protein made of three identical polypeptides composed
primarily of ? helixstructure. The ? helix is an example
ofA) secondary structure stabilized by covalent bonds.B)
secondary structure stabilized by hydrogen bonds.C) secondary
structure stabilized by ionic bonds.D) tertiary structure
stabilized by covalent bonds.E) tertiary structure stabilized by
hydrogen bonds.

B) secondary structure stabilized by hydrogen bonds.

The tertiary structure of a polypeptide is theA) linear
sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide.B) localized region of
a polypeptide chain that forms an ? helix or ? pleated sheet.C)
overall three-dimensional shape of a fully folded polypeptide.D)
overall three-dimensional shape of a protein composed of more than one polypeptide.

C) overall three-dimensional shape of a fully folded polypeptide.

A disulfide bridge is an example of which type of bond?A) ionic
bond between R groupsB) hydrophobic interaction between R
groupsC) hydrogen bond between R groupsD) covalent bond
between R groups

D) covalent bond between R groups

Interactions between the side chains (R groups) in a polypeptide are
most important instabilizing which of the following?A)
primary structureB) secondary structureC) tertiary
structureD) quaternary structure

C) tertiary structure

The side chain (R group) of the amino acid serine is �CH2�OH. The
side chain of the aminoacid leucine is �CH2�CH�(CH3)2. Where
would you expect to find these amino acids in aglobular protein
in aqueous solution?A) Serine would be on the exterior, and
leucine would be in the interior of the globular protein.B)
Serine would be in the interior, and leucine would be on the exterior
of the globular protein.C) Both serine and leucine would be in
the interior of the globular protein.D) Both serine and leucine
would be on the exterior of the globular protein.

A) Serine would be on the exterior, and leucine would be in the
interior of the globular protein.

Changing a single amino acid in a protein consisting of 433 amino
acids wouldA) always alter the primary structure of the protein
but never alter its tertiary structure orfunction.B)
always alter the primary structure of the protein and sometimes alter
its tertiary structure orfunction.C) always alter the
primary and tertiary structure of the protein but never alter its
function.D) sometimes alter the primary and tertiary structure
of the protein but always alter its function

B) always alter the primary structure of the protein and sometimes
alter its tertiary structure orfunction.

Normal hemoglobin is a tetramer, consisting of two molecules of
?-globin and twomolecules of ?-globin. In sickle-cell disease,
as a result of a single amino acid change, themutant hemoglobin
tetramers associate with each other and assemble into large fibers.
Based onthis information alone, we can conclude that sickle-cell
hemoglobin exhibitsA) altered primary structure.B) altered
secondary structure.C) altered tertiary structure.D)
altered quaternary structure.E) altered primary structure and
altered quaternary structure; the secondary and
tertiarystructures may or may not be altered.

E) altered primary structure and altered quaternary structure; the
secondary and tertiarystructures may or may not be altered.

In a normal cellular protein, where would you expect to find a
hydrophilic amino acid suchas asparagine?A) in the
interior of the folded protein, away from waterB) on the
exterior surface of the protein, interacting with waterC) in the
transmembrane portion interacting with lipid fatty acid chainsD)
on the exterior surface of the protein, interacting with water, or in
a transmembrane portioninteracting with lipid fatty acid chains

B) on the exterior surface of the protein, interacting with water

If cells are grown in a medium containing radioactive 35S,
which of these molecules will beradioactively labeled?A)
phospholipidsB) nucleic acidsC) proteinsD) starch

C) proteins

If cells are grown in a medium containing radioactive 32P,
which of these molecules will beradioactively labeled?A)
triacylglycerolsB) nucleic acidsC) fatty acidsD) starch

B) nucleic acids

How will brief heating (to 95�C) affect macromolecular structures in
aqueous solution?A) Unsaturated fatty acid tails will become
saturated.B) Proteins will unfold (denature).C) Starch
will hydrolyze into monomeric sugars.D) Proteins will hydrolyze
into amino acids.

B) Proteins will unfold (denature).

Which of the following statements about the 5' end of a
polynucleotide strand of RNA iscorrect?A) The 5' end has a
hydroxyl group attached to the number 5 carbon of ribose.B) The
5' end has a phosphate group attached to the number 5 carbon of
ribose.C) The 5' end has phosphate attached to the number 5
carbon of the nitrogenous base.D) The 5' end has a nitrogenous
base attached to the number 5 carbon of ribose.
*because in both nitrogenous base and sugar(pentose) are always
joined and both are always numbered the sugar is distinguished by a
prime (')

B) The 5' end has a phosphate group attached to the number 5 carbon
of ribose.

One of the primary functions of RNA molecules is toA) transmit
genetic information to offspring.B) function in the synthesis of
proteins.C) make a copy of itself, thus ensuring genetic
continuity.D) act as a pattern or blueprint to form DNA.

B) function in the synthesis of proteins.

If 14C-labeled uracil is added to the growth medium of cells, what
macromolecules will belabeled?A) polysaccharidesB)
proteinsC) DNAD) RNAE) both DNA and RNA

D) RNA

A nucleotide is composed ofA) a nitrogenous base and a
phosphate group.B) a nitrogenous base and a pentose
sugar.C) a nitrogenous base, a phosphate group, and a pentose
sugar.D) a nitrogenous base, a phosphate group, a pentose sugar,
and an amino acid.
*because in both nitrogenous base and sugar(pentose) are always
joined and both are always numbered the sugar is distinguished by a
prime (')

C) a nitrogenous base, a phosphate group, and a pentose sugar.

Which of the following are pyrimidines?A) adenine ,guanine,
thymineB) adenine and guanineC) cytosine, uracil,
thymineD) cytosine and guanine

C) cytosine, uracil, thymine

Uracil is only for RNA

Thymine only for DNA

Which of the following are purines?A) cytosine and
guanineB) guanine and adenineC) adenine and
thymineD) thymine and uracilE) uracil and cytosine

B) guanine and adenine

A double-stranded DNA molecule contains a total of 120 purines and
120 pyrimidines. ThisDNA molecule could be composed ofA)
120 adenine and 120 uracil molecules.B) 120 adenine and 120
guanine molecules.C) 120 cytosine and 120 thymine
molecules.D) 120 thymine and 120 adenine molecules.

D) 120 thymine and 120 adenine molecules.

The difference between the sugar in DNA and the sugar in RNA is that
the sugar in DNAA) is a six-carbon sugar and the sugar in RNA is
a five-carbon sugar.B) is a five-carbon sugar and the sugar in
RNA is a six-carbon sugar.C) is in the ? configuration and the
sugar in RNA is in the ? configuration.D) contains one less
oxygen atom than the sugar in RNA.

D) contains one less oxygen atom than the sugar in RNA.

If cells are grown in a medium containing radioactive 15N,
which of these molecules will belabeled?A) fatty acids
onlyB) nucleic acids onlyC) proteins onlyD) both
fatty acids and proteinsE) both proteins and nucleic acids

E) both proteins and nucleic acids

The two molecules shown in Figure 3.1 are best described asA)
optical isomers.B) enantiomers.C) structural
isomers.D) cis-trans isomers.

C) structural isomers.

What is the name of the functional group shown in Figure 3.2?A)
carbonylB) ketoneC) aldehydeD) carboxylE) hydroxyl

D) carboxyl

3) Which of the structures illustrated in Figure 3.3 is an impossible
covalently bonded molecule?A) AB) BC) CD)
DE) E

C) C

Which of the structures illustrated in Figure 3.3 contain(s) a
carbonyl functional group?A) AB) C and DC) CD)
DE) C and E

D) D

In which structure(s) illustrated in Figure 3.3 are all bonds with
hydrogen polar covalentbonds?A) only AB) A and
DC) A and ED) only DE) none of the structures

A) only A

Which of the structures illustrated in Figure 3.3 contain only
nonpolar single covalent bonds?A) AB) BC) B and
CD) B and DE) B and E

B) B

Which functional group shown in Figure 3.4 is characteristic of
alcohols?A) AB) BC) CD) DE) E

A) A

Which two functional groups shown in Figure 3.4 are present in all
amino acids?A) A and BB) A and DC) B and DD) C
and DE) C and E

D) C and D

During the synthesis of a polypeptide the next amino acid in the
growing polymer is added towhich functional group shown in
Figure 3.4?A) AB) BC) CD) DE) E

C) C

Which of the groups shown in Figure 3.4 is a functional group that
helps stabilize proteins byforming covalent cross-links within
or between protein molecules?A) AB) BC) CD)
DE) E

E) E

Which of the groups in Figure 3.4 is an acidic functional group that
can dissociate andrelease H+ into a solution?A) AB)
BC) CD) DE) E

C) C

Which of the groups in Figure 3.4 is a basic functional group that
can accept H+ and becomepositively charged?A) AB)
BC) CD) DE) E

D) D

Which molecule shown in Figure 3.5 would have a positive charge in a
cell?A) AB) BC) CD) DE) E

E) E

Which molecule(s) shown in Figure 3.5 is (are) ionized in a
cell?A) A onlyB) B and DC) D and ED) D
onlyE) E only

C) D and E

Which molecules shown in Figure 3.5 contain a carbonyl group?A)
A and BB) B and CC) B, C, and DD) D and EE) E
and A

B) B and C

Which molecule shown in Figure 3.5 contains a carboxyl group?A)
AB) BC) CD) DE) E

D)D

Which molecule shown in Figure 3.5 can increase the concentration of
hydrogen ions in asolution and is therefore an organic
acid?A) AB) BC) CD) DE) E

D) D

Which molecule shown in Figure 3.5 has a carbonyl functional group in
the form of aketone?A) AB) BC) CD)
DE) E

C)C

Which molecule shown in Figure 3.5 has a carbonyl functional group in
the form of analdehyde?A) AB) BC) CD)
DE) E

B)B

Which molecule shown in Figure 3.6 is a thiol?A) AB)
BC) CD) DE) E

B) B

Which molecule shown in Figure 3.6 contains an amino functional
group, but is not an aminoacid?A) AB) BC)
CD) DE) E

A)A

Which molecule shown in Figure 3.6 contains a functional group that
cells use to transferenergy between organic molecules?A)
AB) BC) CD) DE) E

D

Which molecule shown in Figure 3.6 can function as a base?A)
AB) BC) CD) DE) E

A

Which molecule shown in Figure 3.6 can form a covalent bond between
side chains (Rgroups) in a polypeptide?A) AB)
BC) CD) DE) E

B

If two of the molecules shown in Figure 3.7 were linked together,
carbon-1 of one moleculeto carbon-4 of the other, the bond that
is formed may be found in which of the
followingpolymers?A) celluloseB) glycogenC)
chitinD) polypeptideE) nucleic acid

B) glycogen

Which of the following describes the molecule shown in Figure
3.7?A) pentoseB) fructoseC) ? glucoseD) ?
glucoseE) ribose

C) ? glucose

Which of the following statements regarding the molecule illustrated
in Figure 3.8 is true?A) It is a saturated fatty acid.B)
It is an entirely nonpolar molecule.C) Molecules of this type
are usually liquid at room temperature.D) It would be highly
soluble in water.

A) It is a saturated fatty acid.

Which of the following statements regarding the molecule illustrated
in Figure 3.9 is true?A) It is a saturated fatty acid.B)
It is an entirely nonpolar molecule.C) Molecules of this type
are usually liquid at room temperature.D) It is highly soluble
in water

C) Molecules of this type are usually liquid at room temperature.

The molecule shown in Figure 3.9 is a(n)A)
polysaccharide.B) saturated fatty acid.C)
triacylglycerol.D) unsaturated fatty acid.

D) unsaturated fatty acid.

What is the structure shown in Figure 3.10?A) fatty acid
moleculeB) steroid moleculeC) triacylglycerol
moleculeD) phospholipid molecule

B) steroid molecule

Which of the following statements regarding the chemical reaction
illustrated in Figure 3.11 istrue?A) It is a hydrolysis
reaction.B) It results in a peptide bond.C) It forms a
disaccharide.D) It forms two amino acids.

B) It results in a peptide bond.

At which bond in Figure 3.12 would water need to be added to achieve
hydrolysis of thedipeptide, back to its component amino
acids?A) AB) BC) CD) DE) E

C) C

Which bond in Figure 3.12 is a peptide bond?A) AB)
BC) CD) DE) E

C

) Which bond in Figure 3.12 is closest to the amino-terminus of the
molecule?A) AB) BC) CD) DE) E

A

Which bond in Figure 3.12 is farthest from an carbon?A)
AB) BC) CD) DE) E

C

A chemist wishes to make an organic molecule less acidic. Which of
the following functionalgroups should be added to the molecule
in order to do so?A) carboxylB) sulfhydrylC)
hydroxylD) aminoE) phosphate

D) amino

Approximately 32 different monomeric carbohydrate subunits are found
in various naturalpolysaccharides. Proteins are composed of 20
different amino acids. DNA and RNA are eachsynthesized from four
nucleotides.Which class of biological polymer has the greatest
functional variety?A) polysaccharidesB) proteinsC)
DNAD) RNA

B) proteins

A nutritional supplement developed for athletes is shown to contain
only carbon, hydrogen,and oxygen. Based on these data, you may
safely conclude thatA) the food may contain carbohydrates and
protein.B) the food may contain carbohydrates and nucleic
acids.C) the food may contain lipids and protein.D) the
food may contain carbohydrates and lipids, but not protein.

D) the food may contain carbohydrates and lipids, but not protein.

A nutritional supplement developed for athletes is shown to contain
only carbon, hydrogen,oxygen, and sulfur. Based on these data,
you may safely conclude thatA) the food may contain
carbohydrates, lipids, and protein.B) the food may contain
carbohydrates, lipids, and nucleic acids.C) the food may contain
carbohydrates, phospholipids, and protein.D) the food may
contain carbohydrates and lipids, but not protein.

A) the food may contain carbohydrates, lipids, and protein.

Choose the term that correctly describes the relationship between
these two sugar molecules:A) structural isomersB)
cis-trans isomersC) enantiomersD) isotopes

A) structural isomers

Which functional group is not present in this molecule?A)
carboxylB) sulfhydrylC) hydroxylD) amino

B) sulfhydryl

Which chemical group is most likely to be responsible for an organic
molecule behaving as abase (see Concept 2.5)?A)
hydroxylB) carbonylC) aminoD) phosphate

C) amino

Which of the following categories includes all others in the
list?A) disaccharideB) starchC) carbohydrateD) polysaccharide

C) carbohydrate

Which of the following statements concerning unsaturated fats is
true?A) They are more common in animals than in plants.B)
They have double bonds in their fatty acid chains.C) They
generally solidify at room temperature.D) They contain more
hydrogen than do saturated fats having the same number of carbon atoms

B) They have double bonds in their fatty acid chains.

The structural level of a protein least affected by a disruption in
hydrogen bonding is theA) primary level.B) secondary
level.C) tertiary level.D) quaternary level

A) primary level.

Enzymes that break down DNA catalyze the hydrolysis of the covalent
bonds that joinnucleotides together. What would happen to DNA
molecules treated with these enzymes?A) The two strands of the
double helix would separate.B) The phosphodiester linkages of
the polynucleotide backbone would be broken.C) The pyrimidines
would be separated from the deoxyribose sugars.D) All bases
would be separated from the deoxyribose sugars

B) The phosphodiester linkages of the polynucleotide backbone would
be broken.

Which of the following hydrocarbons has a double bond in its carbon
skeleton?A) C3H8 B)
C2H6 C) C2H4
D) C2H2

C) C2H4

The molecular formula for glucose is
C6H12O6. What would be the molecular
formula for apolymer made by linking ten glucose molecules
together by dehydration reactions?A)
C60H120O60 B)
C60H102O51 C)
C60H100O50 D) C60H111O51

B) C60H102O51