(001) What is outlined in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 36�2101,
Classifying Military Personnel (Officer and Enlisted)?

b. Duties and responsibilities for each Air Force career field or specialty.

2. (001) Materiel management specialists are not responsible for

directing policy and guidance for career field

The purpose of the Air Force Logistics Career Broadening Program is
to promote a better understanding of the whole materiel management
system through the cross-utilization of training, knowledge,
experience, and


To be eligible for the Logistics Career Broadening Program, you must
be a technical sergeant or master sergeant with less than how many
years of time-in-service?


What two organizations provide wholesale logistics experience for
selected materiel management noncommissioned officers (NCO)?

defense logistics agency (DLA) and AFMC

Which Expeditionary Logistics 21st Century (eLog21) effect ensures
logistics decisions are made and actions are taken with an
understanding of their impact across the entire Air Force?

one: enterprise view

In support of the Expeditionary Logistics 21st Century�s (eLog21)
Integrated Processes, which is not a resource?


Which source of supply provides wholesale support to all government agencies?

general services administration (GSA)

Local manufacture is a term that describes an item

fabricated by a maintenance activity on base

Which section gives maintenance repair functions in a single facility?

centralized repair facility (CRF)

Who serves as the primary point of contact for interfacing with the
Air Force Sustainment Center (AFSC) on behalf of maintenance customers?

decentralized materiel support (DMS)

Who is required to notify the flightline expediter of all back
ordered parts in accordance with AFI 21�101?

decentralized materiel support (DMS)

Which references govern the Repair Network Integration (RNI) process?

AFI 20-117 and AFMAN 20-118

(005) What best describes supply Class I items?


(005) Which class of supply includes weapons?


(005) Which class of supply consists of ammunition?


What best describes supply Class III items?

petroleum, oil, and lubricants. (POL)

What best describes supply Class VI items?

personal demand items

Which class of supply consists of major end items?


Which class of supply consists of medical materiel?


What best describes supply Class X items?

material to support nonmilitary programs

What provides a unique framework that links performance metrics,
processes, best practices, and people into a unified structure?

supply-chain operations reference (SCOR)

Which specialized center is the hub for the integration and
management of maintenance/supply chain capabilities?

air force sustainment center

The Air Force Sustainment Center�s (AFSC) mission is to

sustain weapon system readiness to generate airpower for America

How many primary subordinate units (PSU) make up the foundation of
the Air Force Installation & Mission Support Center (AFIMSC)?


Which maintenance process updates various basic and support records,
such as item records, routing identifier records, and warehouse locations?

miscellaneous file maintenance

Which type of reports provide information about the overall
management of the supply system?


Which Department of Defense (DOD) publication implements requirements
and procedures for materiel managers and others who work within the
supply system?

4140.01,DOD supply chain materiel management procedures

The Defense Logistics Manual (DLM) 4000.25, Defense Logistics
Management Standards, does not pertain to which functional area?


What process governs logistics functional business management
standards and practices?

defense logistics management standards

Which key on a keyboard do you press after typing in a word or phrase
using the Find tool for research?


What two entities make up the national stock number (NSN)?

federal supply classification (FSC) and NIIN

How many major types of inquiries are there in the materiel
management system?


Which code on an item record inquiry in the materiel management
system is used to obtain specific information?

record retrieval

Which record retrieval code in the materiel management system gives
you the transaction history when processing an inquiry?


What information prints out after processing an item record inquiry?

data element names

What releveling flag is used on a requirements computation inquiry in
the materiel management system to provide a summary of information
about a given stock number?


Users can query the materiel management computer system consolidated
transaction history (CTH) records as far back as

one year or more

Under the consolidated transaction history (CTH) system, which type
inquiry allows you to select records using the national stock number
(NSN) and transaction date?

stock number

Who is responsible for ensuring all rejects are corrected from
computer records?

flight chief

Which chapter in Air Force Handbook (AFH) 23�123, Materiel Management
Handbook, Volume 2, Part 2, identifies the action required to correct
the materiel management system�s rejects created during processing?


What letters, preceding the management code and phrase, readily
identifies management notices?


Which product of the materiel management system is used to ensure
rejects are processed in a timely manner?


What listing shows all force-deleted rejects processed through the
reject processor program?


Which individual must ensure force deletions from the reject
processor program are processed for valid reasons only?

flight chief

Who, in coordination with the flight chief, determines who will
process controlled transaction identification codes (TRIC) and informs
the computer operations terminal security manager which controlled
TRICs each user identification (user ID) is authorized to process?

terminal security monitors

Who is responsible for reviewing Part 8 of the D20 when an
unauthorized user attempts to process a controlled transaction
identification codes (TRIC)?

logistics manager

The annotated forecast listing of all computer requirements is
returned to the computer room production scheduler by which workday of
the same month it is received?


The operating principle of no-profit/no-loss best describes the

supply management activity group-retail (SMAG-R)

When the cost of an item is transferred from the customer�s funds
into the Supply Management Activity Group-Retail (SMAG-R) account,
what type of fund is created?


Which is not a division within the Supply Management Activity
Group-Retail (SMAG-R)?

air force working capital fund (AFWCF)

Which item falls under the scope of the Consolidated Sustainment
Activity Group-Supply (CSAG-S)?

`wholesale-managed items

The quality assurance (QA) program helps identify any area, program,
or equipment and system that is not compliant with


Which section has oversight of the self-inspection program?

quality assurance

Who selects highly experienced materiel management personnel for
customer support visits?

logistics readiness squadron (LRS) leadership

When the materiel management system does not process or update
transactions as it should, which Air Force form is used to report the problem?

1815, difficulty report (DIREP) worksheet

Which activity within the Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) supply
chain management �retail (SCM-R) community is responsible for
submitting, controlling, and monitoring difficulty reports?

quality assurance

A category III difficulty report does not stop computer system
processing and is corrected

in the next scheduled release

Which analysis method do you use most often for recurring reports or
for comparing statistical data with standards and norms?

trend analysis

Which analysis method do you use most often to satisfy a one-time
requirement or solve a specific problem?

special studies

Who works with logistics readiness squadron (LRS) quality assurance
(QA) to develop local programs for solving problems identified by management?


What section of the materiel management analysis program is tasked
with assigning meaning to raw data and providing information that can
be used to determine the account�s effectiveness?

quality assurance

What is used to help logistics readiness squadron (LRS) leadership
know what an organization has done in the past and how it is doing at
the present before directing future efforts?


Which is not an example of a source document?


Which is not required when comparing information between the document
control record (DCR) and source document?


How often does document control perform a validation of who is
authorized to receipt for classified property?


What type of materiel management source documents are not placed in a
permanent document file?

source documents with file indicator D

How long are transactions retained when documents are processed
through the materiel management automated tracking system?

75 month

When does a document become delinquent after processing the
information from the document control record (DCR) document?

6th calendar day

How often does document control hold a meeting to discuss document
delinquent status?


Which materiel management register may be prepared to replace the
Daily Transaction Register (D06)?

consolidated transaction (M 19)

Which materiel management register lists information from the
transactions stored in the daily transaction history area of the
materiel management database?

daily document control

The Consolidated Inventory Adjustment Document (IAD) Register (M10)
must contain an entry for each adjustment transaction appearing on
what two registers?

D04 and D06

What is the purpose of the Shipment-Suspense Program?

ensure an item has been shipped

All shipments and transfers processed through the logistics readiness
squadron (LRS) produce what type of detail?

shipment-suspense or shipped not credited

Which transaction identification code is used to update the
shipment-suspense detail?


Which listing is used to manage delinquent shipment suspense details?


Which transaction identification code is used for an automated
reverse-post (RVP) transaction?


What information is required to process an automated reverse-post
(RVP) input?

transaction serial number, TTPC, and date

The materiel management system uses which issue request code to
select the correct internal program to process an input transaction?

.Transaction identification code (TRIC).

What one-position alpha code is used to indicate how the materiel
management system accumulates demand data for stock leveling and
due-in from maintenance (DIFM) control?

Demand code

Organizations may identify their issue requests to base supply using
either a

stock number or part number

What letter is entered in position 8 on the AF Form 2005 for a part
number request?


What is the next step in the ordering process after gathering and
documenting data on the AF Form 2005?

enter data into materiel management system

What may be produced after processing an order request that notifies
further actions are required?

management notice

Which management notice is the result of issue processing and
reflects issue, kill, or backorder quantity status?


An I007 management notice is produced when a

part number request cannot be converted to a stock number under
program control

What transaction exception code is used to reprocess an issue request
when the customer requests a backorder?


Which base-wide organization uses the Integrated Maintenance Data
System Central Database (IMDS CDB) to interface with materiel
management system?


What materiel management system output notifies the Integrated
Maintenance Data System Central Database (IMDS CDB) of changes in
due-out status?


When the materiel management system detects an Integrated Maintenance
Data System Central Database (IMDS CDB) transaction error, the image is

returned to IMDS CDB

What Air Force Sustainment Center (AFSC) entity is responsible for
mission capable (MICAP) management?

Air Force Materiel Command Supply Chain Management-Retail (AFMC
SCM-R) Weapon System Support Activity (WSSA).

When spares support is required, the Air Force Materiel Command
Supply Chain Management-Retail (AFMC SCM-R) Weapon System Support
Activity (WSSA) is the primary interface for the


What response is sent to the materiel management computer system when
a mission capable (MICAP) requisition is transmitted to the source of
supply when assets are immediately available?

positive status

Who confirms an end-item is not mission capable and verifies all
local resources are exhausted prior to submitting a MICAP request?

Logistics readiness squadron (LRS) base level

Who will the aircraft parts store (APS) or customer support liaison
contact to verify a mission capable (MICAP) condition exists?

.Maintenance production superintendent

What information needs to be aggressively monitored and updated on a
mission capability (MICAP) requirement?


What mission capability (MICAP) report (DIC B9*) code identifies the
reason for terminating a MICAP condition?


What is processed in the materiel management system to satisfy a
mission capability (MICAP) condition and allow MICAP reporting to be initiated?


What transaction can be processed on an existing requisition that
will initiate mission capability (MICAP) reporting?


What output is produced to report the applicable change of a mission
capable (MICAP) condition each time transaction NOR is processed?

MICAP report (B9*).

Y-type details are internally established and maintained in the
supply computer for how many days after a mission capability (MICAP) termination?


What transaction identification code (TRIC) is processed to end the
repair cycle process?


Which activity is responsible for providing repair cycle support with
new status and location for a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) detail?


What transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to process the
updated status and location for a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) record?


Which listing is used to perform the due-in from maintenance (DIFM) reconciliation?


What is the purpose of performing a due-in from maintenance (DIFM)
reconciliation between the logistics readiness squadron (LRS) and the
maintenance activities?

Ensure maintenance activities physically have all the DIFM items.

Within how many duty days from the date of issue will a due-in from
maintenance (DIFM) item that was not inducted into maintenance repair
be returned to the LRS?


How are time compliance technical order (TCTO) items identified on
the item record?

numeric parts preference code (NPPC) 4

What condition tag is used to label a time compliance technical order
(TCTO) item that was modified and returned from the maintenance function?

.DD Form 1574 (Yellow tag)

What is entered in the �remarks� block of the DD Form 1574 (yellow tag)?

Time compliance technical order (TCTO) number.

What code is used on a turn-in request for DIFM item indicating what
actions were taken by maintenance and logistics readiness squadron
(LRS)/materiel management activity?

.Action taken.

Which action taken code indicates an item is condemned?


What will the materiel management information technology system scan
for in its internal records after an item was repaired and turned in
as serviceable?


Where are serviceable condition returns forwarded after a �notice to
stock� document is received?

appropriate storage facility

What is produced after processing an unserviceable turn-in for an
asset that cannot be repaired at base level?

shipment document

Time change assets are replaced on what type of schedule?

Calendar or hourly

Who appoints the time change manager?

Materiel management flight chief or equivalent.

Failure to process turnaround (TRN) data in a correct and timely
manner results in reduced base stock levels and incomplete reports
from which buy, repair, and distribution decisions are made by

Headquarters Air Force Materiel Command (HQ AFMC).

Which update is prepared and processed by repair cycle support (RCS)
to update demand data on the item record and repair cycle data on the
repair cycle record?


Where does Supply obtain data used to process turnaround transactions?

.Air Force technical order (AFTO) Form 350, Reparable Item Processing Tag.

Which management notice is produced reflecting stock awaiting
disposition instructions after an unserviceable turn-in process?


What transaction identification code (TRIC) is not an option for
processing after dispositions instructions for an unserviceable asset
has been received?


Who maintains ownership of supply point assets until they are used?


Which transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to load, change,
or delete supply point details?


Which listing is used to verify balances during a supply point reconciliation?


What transaction identifier code (TRIC) is processed when the on-hand
quantity is less than the authorized quantity after a supply point reconciliation?


Who will continuously monitor requirements supporting Air Force war
plans and ensure the validity of all war reserve materiel (WRM) requirements?


Who is responsible for physical materiel handling, receiving,
storing, and processing of war reserve materiel (WRM) shipment requests?


Which Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources (BEAR) system includes
facilities, equipment, and supplies necessary to establish and support
aircraft flight-related operations and maintenance activities for an
initial aircraft squadron deployed to a bare base location?

Initial flightline.

Which Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources (BEAR) system includes
facilities, equipment, and supplies necessary to establish and support
flight operations and maintenance needs for a second and subsequent
squadrons deployed to an austere base?

Follow-on flightline.

Mobility readiness spares package (MRSP) assets are designed to allow
support of a weapon system in a deployed location for how many days
before resupply is necessary?


Who will authorize allocation of readiness spares packages (RSP) to
specific units/bases?


What transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to load the
serial number/control record for readiness spares package (RSP) authorizations?


In the master file, what format is readiness spares package (RSP)
data authorization input records received from the major command (MAJCOM)?


What program performs the readiness spares package (RSP) reconciliation?


What process involves shelf life controls and other inspection
functions for readiness spares package (RSP) assets?

Care of supplies in storage (COSIS).

What transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to issue mobility
readiness spares package (MRSP) assets to users?


What asset status flag reflects mobility readiness spares package
(MRSP) assets are deployed?


The decision to transfer mobility readiness spares package (MRSP)
accountability rests with the host and the

gaining major command (MAJCOM).

What transaction identification code (TRIC) do you use to transfer
mobility readiness spares package (MRSP) accountability?


What transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to transfer
assets between mobility readiness spares packages (MRSP) and war
reserve materiel (WRM) detail records?


What action code is used when transferring multiple quantities from a
mobility readiness spares package (MRSP) or war reserve materiel (WRM)
detail record?


Which current listing/listings must be obtained prior to shipping out
readiness spares package (RSP) assets?

R43 and/or R52.

What wartime capability system is used to conduct wartime assessments?

Personal Computer-Aircraft Sustainability Model (PC-ASM).

What system is used to access the War Consumable Distribution
Objective (WCDO)?

Logistics Feasibility Analysis Capability (LOGFAC).

Which listing provides a management product for special spares
authorizations, assets, and products?

Special Spares Report (R34).

The Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) is structured and
executed under three principles transparency, predictability, and


Which of the following identifies the first three positions of a
materiel management unit type code (UTC)?


What system captures unit type code (UTC) assessments, identifies
suitable UTCs to satisfy taskings, and helps forecast shortfalls?

Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) Unit Type Code (UTC)
Reporting Tool (ART).

What code reflected in the operation plan (OPLAN) or time phased
force deployment data (TPFDD) defines the number of passengers and/or
amount of cargo that must be moved to meet a wartime tasking?

Unit type code (UTC).

What was established as the sole readiness reporting system for the
Department of Defense?

Defense Readiness Reporting System (DRRS).

What section stores small arms for mobility use?

.Individual protective equipment element.

What number must be annotated on all documentation for small arms?


What Air Force (AF) Form will requesting individuals provide prior to
being issued a weapon?

AF form 522

Who must ensure that additional controls are exercised over all
weapons movements, marshaling, and deployments at the deployed location?

.Accountable officer (AO) or commander.

At a minimum, how often are mobility assets inventoried?


Who performs warehouse validations prior to inventorying mobility assets?

Individual protective equipment personnel.

Which type mobility bag (MOBAG) contains cold weather equipment?


Which type mobility bag (MOBAG) contains chemical warfare defense equipment?


What is available to allow Individual Protective Equipment (IPE)
element personnel to put away, redistribute, ship, and mange shipment
discrepancies within Enterprise Solution-Supply (ES-S) Mobility?

.Mobility dashboards.

Shelf life assets are tracked in ES-S Mobility by

Contract/lot number

What is used to determine bulk stock requirements and are the basis
for placing mobility stock orders based on mission support requirements?

Mobility shopping list.

Which function in Enterprise Solution-Supply (ES-S) Mobility gives
Individual Protective Equipment (IPE) element personnel the ability to
view and update customer information and manage assets currently in
possession by customers?

Issue items.

Which capability gives Individual Protective Equipment (IPE) element
personnel the ability to check stock availability that is either on
hand in mobility warehouse locations or in the possession of mobility customers?

.Mobility data query.

What information is entered when returning mobility items through
Enterprise Solution-Supply (ES-S) Mobility?What information is entered
when returning mobility items through Enterprise Solution-Supply
(ES-S) Mobility?

Electronic data interchange personal identifier (EDIPI).

What does Enterprise Solution-Supply (ES-S) Mobility asset management
programmatically search for and detect in relation to gas masks?

Expired service life dates

Where are the equipment requests forwarded after being reviewed and
validated by the equipment accountability element (EAE)?

AFMC SCM-R Equipment Activity

The selection of property custodians requires mutual agreement
between the

equipment accountability element (EAE) and organization commanders.

What is used to determine which equipment items organizations are
authorized to purchase and maintain?

.AS and configuration data

Which item describes the items and quantities of equipment Air Force
activities and individuals normally require to carry out their mission?

Allowance standards (AS).

What element within an allowance standard (AS) establishes the number
of items that can be issued to an individual, activity, or military organization?


Which expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost designator
(ERRCD) identifies nonequipment authorization inventory data
(non-EAID) equipment items?


Which Air Force form is used to request a change to an allowance
standard (AS) or to request an item that requires approval under
miscellaneous allowance source code (ASC)?


Which Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS) computer screen
provides an automated method for submitting and evaluating allowance
change requests?


Which FCI format within the Air Force Equipment Management System
(AFEMS) is used to load, change, or delete equipment authorized/in-use details?


Which turn-in method to the logistics readiness squadron (LRS) is
used to process the turnin before picking up the property?

Pre-degraded operations.

Which activity code is used to process non-equipment authorization
inventory data (nonEAID) equipment turn-ins to the logistics readiness
squadron (LRS)?


Which transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to transfer
equipment from one custodian account to another?


Which management listing helps ensure that equipment authorizations
are maintained within prescribed allowances?

Allowance source code (ASC) listing.

Which management listing is used to identify out-of-balance conditions?


Which management listing provides visibility for high dollar value
non-equipment authorization inventory data (non-EAID) items?

R15, Organizational visibility listing

Which system is used to globally distinguish one item from all other
items that the Department of Defense (DOD) buys or owns?

Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS).

Who mandated the Item Unique Identification (IUID) compliance process
for equipment assets with an acquisition cost of over $5,000?

Department of Defense (DOD).

Equipment accountability element (EAE) personnel use which method to
conduct physical inventories?

Floor to book.

Who ensures chief financial officer (CFO) data is loaded in the
applicable Materiel Management information technology system?

Equipment accountability element (EAE).

Which system is used to report any equipment item exceeding $100,000?

Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS).

Which special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenance (SPRAM)
asset categories are defined in the �21 technical order (TO)?

Maintenance and safety protection (MSP) equipment, AME, and CPS equipment.

Which transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to load a
special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenance (SPRAM) detail?


Which report provides a listing of all items authorized, on-hand, and
due-out, for organizations authorized special-purpose recoverables
authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets?

. R25.

How often must you reconcile base weapons detail records with the
central file at Warner Robins Air Logistics Complex (WR-ALC)?


Who works hand-in-hand with the logistics readiness squadron (LRS) to
support mission requirements?

Air Force Materiel Command Supply Chain Management-Retail (AFMC
SCM-R) Stock Control Activity.

Which stock leveling term identifies the repair rate for the current
and past four quarters?

. Average percent of base repair (PBR).

What stock leveling term represents the maximum quantity that should
be on-hand or on order to sustain current operations?

Requisition objective (RO).

Which stock leveling term identifies quantities required to be on
hand to permit continuous operation during minor interruptions of
normal replenishment or unpredictable increases in demands?

. Safety level quantity (SLQ).

What must be established anytime stock is authorized for
nonexpendable (equipment) items?

adjustment level

When one-for-one stock requisitioning is not needed, which adjusted
minimum level should be used?


Which type of adjusted stock level (ASL) is assigned to an item to
ensure the requisitioning objective remains constant and does not
fluctuate due to demand patterns?


Which materiel management system program is used to review and
validate adjusted stock levels (ASL)?


Which stock level is derived from a mathematical technique used to
determine the lowest total variable costs to order and hold inventory?

Economic order quantity (EOQ).

Which materiel management system listing is used to identify a
possible readiness-based level (RBL) misallocation?


Which technology enables logisticians to identify, categorize, and
locate assets?

.Radio frequency identification (RFID).

What process has the overall goal to have the capability to provide
users with timely and accurate information on the location, movement,
status, and identity of units, personnel, equipment, materiel, and supplies?

Total asset visibility (TAV).

What document identification code (DIC) indicates a denial to a
redistribution order (RDO) sent by Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC)
item managers (IM)?


Which shipment exception (SEX) code is used for do not ship�assets frozen?


Which transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to process a
special requisition (SPR)?


Program control uses which system to assign a requisition priority
for each requisition?

Uniform Materiel Movement and Issue Priority System (UMMIPS).

Who does the source of supply (SOS) owe an item to when a due-in
detail is established after being requisitioned?

Requisitioning activity

What part of the due-in document identifies the base that placed the requisition?

.Address code.

How often are requisition exception (REX) codes reviewed and validated?


Which requisition exception (REX) code is assigned under program
control due to military standard requisitioning and issue procedures
(MILSTRIP) status?


Which code is assigned to the item record to indicate the source of
supply (SOS) has cancelled a requisition?


Which type of military standard requisitioning and issue procedures
(MILSTRIP) status results from out-of-stock conditions, new
requirements, and other conditions that stop the supply source from
filling the requisition exactly as it was requested?


Which transaction identification code (TRIC) is processed to request
an improved estimated availability date or estimated shipment date for
priority 01�08 requisitions?


What reconciliation flag on the status detail record indicates that
AFC action was taken to request improved status on a requisition?


Supply difficulty for Air Force-managed items is reported on Air
Force Form


Supply difficulty reports must be processed within how many calendar days?


Which listings are used to perform due-out review and validation?

.D18 and R01.

How often are urgency of need (UND) C due-outs validated?


Which transaction is processed to change various data elements on
retail materiel management system due-in details?

Due-in/due-out (DIT).

What cancellation status code indicates that a due-in cancellation
request was generated by off-line action?


How many days will local purchase (LP) items appear on the listing
after the vendor bill is received and processed for
billed-not-received (BNR) transactions?


Which detail is created by the materiel management system whenever a
referral order is honored and a credit is given to the shipping base?

shipped not credited

Which interactive query screen in Web Federal Logistics Information
System (WebFLIS) provides the option to select more or less
information to include in a search?

Search Selection Menu.

Which search screen in Web Federal Logistics Information System
(WebFLIS) allows users to locate manufacturer names for the code entered?


Which system provides Air Force personnel with on-line cataloging,
standardization, and other logistics management data for Air
Force-managed or user items?


Illustrated parts breakdowns (IPB) are normally identified and
published in

�4 series of technical orders (TO).

Which section of the illustrated parts breakdown (IPB) provides a
sequential listing of all part numbers appearing in the IPB

Group assembly parts list

The transaction identification code (TRIC) FIL input establishes what
type of record(s)?

Repair cycle and constant records.

An expendable item is identified by which code used in the first
position of an expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost
(ERRC) designator?


What transaction identification code (TRIC) establishes the part
number record?

FIC or 1AA

What purpose does the part number detail record serve?

Automates the part number to stock number cross-reference file.

What noncataloged (NC) number position indicates which Air Logistics
Complex (ALC) assigned the number?

position 7

Which transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to change the
stock number; expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost
designator (ERRCD), equipment management code (EMC), routing
identifier (RID), and budget code on the item record?


What is the maximum number of characters for the descriptive
nomenclature field on the item record?


For internal records, what transaction identification code (TRIC)
changes the unit price, unit of issue, and quantity unit pack (except
for local purchase [LP] items) fields?


What computer system provides interchangeable and substitute group
(I&SG) information?


Which code identifies the order in which items within
interchangeability and substitution grouping (I&SG) are
substituted or issued?

order of use

What transaction identification code (TRIC) code is used to load,
change, or delete interchangeable and substitution group (I&SG) items?


Who must justify in writing the request to load, change, or delete
interchangeable and substitution group (I&SG) items?

Major command

Which item is not checked when off-loading property from a carrier?

Production date.

Who works with the in-checker to ensure items are correctly
identified and the appropriate condition tags or labels are used on
the assets?


Which block of the AF Form 2005 will the inspector sign or stamp
after the in-checker has signed and dated the form?


Which operation includes verifying identity, security classification,
condition, status, markings, tagging, and labeling for property?

Inspection operations

Who is responsible for overseeing the Care of Supplies in Storage
(COSIS) program?

Chief inspector

What three things are used to identify an item?

Reference number, stock number, and item description.

Which Department of Defense (DD) form is red and is used to identify
property that is unserviceable and uneconomical to repair?

DD Form 1577, Unserviceable (Condemned) Tag.

Which Department of Defense (DD) form is red and is used to identify
property that is unserviceable and uneconomical to repair?

Updates inspection data.

What transaction identification code (TRIC) is processed to initiate
a condition change?


An organizational refusal would be a customer�s responsibility if the

customer failed to cancel the due-out.

Who schedules and accomplishes an aggressive surveillance inspection
program of all items in storage?


When is a supply discrepancy report (SDR) required?

Incorrect materiel, unacceptable substitutes, or duplicate shipments

Where are all unresolved supply discrepancy reports forwarded when
additional help is needed?

Major command (MAJCOM).

(608) At what temperature must a refrigerated storage chill space be maintained?

Between 32 and 50�F.

At a minimum, how many feet must separate flammable storage
facilities from other facilities?


What is a major disadvantage in the use of unimproved open storage?

Limited use of materiel handling equipment (MHE).

The basic resource of any materiel management and distribution
operation is the

storage space

What must be planned before the actual start of the storage operation
to assure the floor and cubic capacity of the warehouse will be used
to the greatest extent possible?

Storage areas.

When you increase the amount of space for an item in a location to
eliminate overflow into another item�s location, you are implementing
what storage factor?

Item quantity

What is used to identify a bin subdivision in the warehouse location
code 05C045F056D?


Warehouse stockrooms are sequenced from

left to right and front to rear

What letter or symbol is entered in the �Warehouse Location Delete
Flag� field when deleting a warehouse location?


What item does the Air Force use to aid in inventory and warehouse validation?

Bar-coded labels.

Within how many workdays of the start of an inventory cycle should
the storage activity complete scheduled validations?


How many days prior to the start of a warehouse validation is a
warehouse location parameter input prepared?


What action is required prior to performing a validation to ensure a
warehouse is in the best condition for an inventory?

Prepare the warehouse area.

What transaction identification code (TRIC) is processed to move
property to the correct location?

. FCS.

The practice of storing items in a way that causes a loss of storage
space is called


Markings found on containers that do not apply to presently packaged
materials need to be


Which transaction identification code (TRIC) identifies a warehouse
change document for an indicative data change?


What transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to manually
transfer nondirected assets to the Defense Logistics Agency
Disposition Services (DLADS)?


What routing identifier code (RIC) is processed with a special
requisition when property is available in Defense Logistics Agency
Disposition Services (DLADS)?


What is used to identify hazards and safety measures associated with
a particular product?

Safety data sheet (SDS).

As a minimum, how often must a utility program be run to identify
potentially hazardous item records that do not have an issue exception
(IEX) code or health hazard flag (HHF) assigned?


Flammable solids include chemicals that are solids at a minimum
temperature of


What type of material storage is best used for items such as
pesticides, poisons, and certain batteries?

Low hazard

When chemical and petroleum products reach their retest dates, what
transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to suspend the outdated
materiel on an unserviceable detail and prevent reissue?

. FCC.

Hazardous disposal can generally be grouped into how many categories?


Who is responsible for the costs of disposing of hazardous wastes?

Producing organization

Which class of storage vault is used for storing secret and
confidential materiel?


Who is assigned as the installation Precious Metals Recovery Program
(PMRP) manager/focal point for all matters concerning PMRP?

Materiel management flight chief inspector.

Who is responsible for transferring precious metals-bearing metals to
the nearest Defense Logistics Agency Disposition Services (DLADS) facility?

Department of Defense (DOD) activity

As a minimum, how often must the combination on padlocks be changed
for classified storage?


How are electronic sensitive devices (ESD) identified on the item record?

Type cargo code 3.

What transaction identification code (TRIC) and activity code are
used to process an electronic sensitive device (ESD) item from a
detail record to maintenance for testing?


If required, who can open an electrostatic discharge (ESD) item package?

Materiel management inspector

What markings on an item provides proof that a functional check was done?

. Base maintenance inspector�s stamp/signature.

As a minimum, how often is a functional check listing produced?

. Semiannually

What type of shelf life coded item has a definite nonextendable shelf-life?

Type I.

How many days prior to the expiration date should type II shelf-life
items be scheduled for serviceability testing?

15 to 45

What computer input is used to load a suspect materiel flag to an
item record?

FCD with suspect flag S.

What is employed to determine how counterfeit/discrepant materiel was
procured to prevent reoccurrence?

Risk-based approach

Which program reviews discrepant and suspected counterfeit materiel?

Joint Discrepancy Reporting System.

The information that must be annotated on the receiving document of a
warranty or guaranty item is the serial number,

model, and manufacturer�s name

At a minimum, how frequently is the unserviceable storage area
reviewed by storage personnel for validation purposes?


The inventory deadline date is the Julian date the actual count


Who ensures the warehouse does not remain closed to normal receipts
and issues for an unreasonable length of time and that all backlog
transactions are processed upon completion of the inventory?

Accountable officer

When inventory count images are input, the computer compares the
record balance with the

physical count quantity.

When performing an inventory on an equipment account, which product
is used to record the out-of-balance conditions?

Custodian authorization/custody receipt listing (CA/CRL) (R14).

What document is used to clear the �I� freeze code suspense file?

Annotated 1GP notice.

An automatic adjustment for a pilferable item occurs when the record
balance does not agree with the recount quantity and the dollar value
of the adjustment is less than


To indicate that additional research is needed, the modified recount
image contains a research indicator of

. AR.

At a minimum, how often will an inventory analysis be performed?


Which listing has an intermediate inventory adjustment summary of the
inventory analysis?


Who initiates the deficiency report process to include the deficient
property at the time of turn-in?

Maintenance personnel.

Which document is an official report of facts and circumstances
supporting assessment of financial liability for the loss, damage, or
destruction of Air Force property?

Report of survey.

Which individual is appointed by the unit commander to accept
custodial responsibility for government property under their control?

Property custodian.

Which concept mandates all personnel are essential to conserve,
protect, and maintain available government systems, equipment and
supplies for operational requirements?

Supply discipline

The expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost designator
(ERRCD) for bench stock items must be


What transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to load the
initial master bench stock details?


Once the date of last demand has exceeded how many days are bench
stock items recommended for deletion?


Which product recommends items that qualify for addition to
organizational bench stocks?


How often must bench stock standard reporting designator (SRD) data
and minimum reserve authorization (MRA) levels be validated?


Which principle of materiel handling obtains the greatest economy in
moving materiel?

Least handling is the best handling

Which principle of materiel handling requires consideration of legal
and physical restrictions concerning transportation?

Advanced planning.

What can increase productivity and utilization of warehouse space in
addition to improving mission capability and enhancing safety?

Storage aids systems

Short-life reusable containers are expected to survive at least how
many round-trips?


Which action makes cargo loading and unloading as fast and easy as possible?


Which element within the logistic readiness squadron (LRS) is
responsible for providing secure storage for weapons?


What is defined as materiel that requires a high degree of protection
and control due to statutory requirements or regulations?

Sensitive items.

Identification of persons authorized to accept controlled material is
done according to

AFI 16�1404, Air Force Information Security Program

Who is responsible for training logistics readiness squadron (LRS)
personnel who will handle controlled materiel?

Chief inspector.

Who will Air Force activities report to concerning all discrepancies
involving classified items?

Security manager.

What color of ink is used to stamp or write �Classified Item� on
copies of source documents for classified items?


Who is responsible for the health of assigned items to meet mission requirements?

Item manager

Who accounts for threat reduction assets at both organic and contract
repair facilities?

. Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) item management team

What item must be loaded in the Enterprise Solution�Supply (ES-S)
system for all individuals who receive parts from the logistics
readiness squadron (LRS)?

Customer record

Which report provides a snapshot of the effectiveness of meeting
customer requirements with on-the-shelf assets?

Items Not Received by Customer

The intent of the Enterprise Asset Visibility (EVA) component is to
provide complete visibility of Air Force

owned assets

What legacy systems can the Enterprise Solution�Supply (ES�S) query
and view orders in?

Materiel Management System; D035A; D035K

In Enterprise Solution�Supply (ES�S), what are the three main areas
of the Order Selection Page?

Data Source, Search Value, and DODAAC

What type of audits does the Audit Data Query enhances your ability
to query transaction information for?

Internal and external.

What on-line system combines the issue, shipment, receipt, and
transfer of wholesale and retail materiel?

. Stock control system (SCS).

Which system provides the user with information on their
requisitions, with emphasis placed on the flightline base level user?


Which supports repair execution and item distribution, and manages
flow of recoverable assets in and out of depot repair?

Execution and Prioritization of Repair Support System.

The Supply Interface System residue images are considered delinquent
after how many hours?


How long are the Supply Interface System residue images kept before
they are deleted?

10 days

How can users request access to the logistics, installations &
mission support-enterprise view (LIMS-EV)?

Via the Air Force Portal