Microtubules in neurons:
Select one:
a. are the smallest of the cytoskeletal components
b. allow proteins to be transported inside their tubular structure
c. are only found in neurons
d. form a meshwork adjacent to the axonal membrane
e. are generally all aligned in one direction in axons
e
The cytoskeleton in neurons:
a. is the collective term for three protein complexes:
neurotubules, neurofilaments and nanofilaments
b. refers to protein complexes that line the outside of the cell
membranes to Gove structural stability
c. is the major determinant of neuronal shape
d. is produced during development and remains stable on
maturation of the cell
e. is identical to cytoskeleton in other cells.
c
Which of the following is not correct for both fast anterograde and
retrograde axonal transport:
Select one:
a. requires ATP
b. primarily transports vesicles
c. is dependent on the presence of neurofilaments (for use as a track)
d. moves substances at speeds between approximately 50 and 400 mm/day
e. can continue even if the axon is separated from the cell body
by a cut or crush
c
Which one of the following is not correct for microtubules in neurons:
Select one:
a. are found in axons but not dendrites
b. are a major determinant of neuronal shape
c. are predominantly composed of tubulin subunits
d. exhibit polarity that is determined by orientation of the
major subunits
e. have associated proteins (�mictrotubule-associated proteins�)
some of which contribute to polymerization of the microtubules
a
Ion channels can be directly gated (opened) by:
Select one:
a. membrane potential, neurotransmitters, glucose molecules
b. neurotransmitters, extracellular ion concentrations
c. membrane potential, neurotransmitters, second messengers
d. glucose molecules, extracellular ion concentrations, second messengers
e. membrane potential, extracellular ion concentrations, second messengers
c
The four major components of the cell membrane are:
Select one:
a. triglycerides, proteins, phospholipids and glycolipids
b. phospholipids, cholesterol, triglycerides and proteins
c. phospholipids, cholesterol, triglycerides and saccharides
d. cholesterol, phospholipids, glycolipids and proteins
e. cholesterol, glycolipids, proteins and saccharides
d
Which of the following would describe the components of a typical
phospholipid molecule located in the cell membrane
Select one:
a. two fatty acids, a phosphate group and polar head molecule
such as choline
b. one fatty acid, a cholesterol moiety, a polar head and glycerol
c. three fatty acids bonded to a glycerol backbone
d. testosterone attached to a cholesterol backbone with a
phosphate group
e. a phosphate group bonded to a fatty acid, with a second fatty
acid coupled to a hydrophilic sugar group such as galactose
a
Na+ ions move through the cell membrane via which structures:
Select one:
a. ion channels only
b. ion channels and some transporter molecules
c. ion channels, pumps and some transporters
d. through the membrane directly and ion channels, pumps and some transporters
e. through the membrane's phospholipid bilayer itself
c
At resting membrane potential, which of the following is true:
Select one:
a. Na+, K+ and Cl- ions are all at their equilibrium potentials
b. None of the Na+, K+ or Cl- ions is at its equilibrium potential
c. There is no flow of ions across the membrane
d. The permeabilities to Na+, K+ and Cl- are all equal
e. The Na+/K+ ATPase is not electrogenic
b
The Goldman equation differ from the Nernst equation in including a
number of extra terms � which of the following are included in the
Goldman equation but not the Nernst equation
Select one:
a. a term for the absolute temperature at which the calculations
are made
b. the gas constant, R
c. the faraday constant, F
d. a term for the permeability of each ion
e. a term for the mobility of each ion in solution
d
The equilibrium potential for an ion is defined as the potential at which:
Select one:
a. the tendency for the ion to move down its concentration
gradient is exactly counterbalanced by its tendency to move down its
electrical gradient
b. there are equal numbers of ions inside and outside the membrane
c. the number of positively charged ions leaving the cell exactly
equals the number of negatively charged ions entering the cell
d. Na+, K+ and Cl- ions are in equilibrium across the membrane
e. the Na+/K+ co-transporter exactly counterbalances the movement
of ions through ion channels in the membrane
a
In the Nernst equation (E = RT/zF ln [ion]out/[ion]in, the value of
�T� represents:
Select one:
a. time
b. tolerance
c. temperature in degrees Fahrenheit
d. temperature in degrees celcius
e. temperature in degrees Kelvin (absolute)
e
The membrane space constant (lambda) is a measure of the distance
over which a change in membrane potential spreads (typically along an
axon or dendrite). What are the major factor(s) determining the space constant?
Select one:
a. fibre length
b. axoplasmic resistance (i.e. internal resistance)
c. membrane resistance
d. axoplasmic resistance (i.e. internal resistance) and membrane resistance
e. the resistance of the extracellular fluid
d
The resistance of a nerve cell soma membrane is inversely
proportional to:
Select one:
a. The total number of ion channels
b. The total number of open ion channels
c. The total number of Na channels
d. The surface area of the membrane irrespective of ion channels
e. The total number of open K channels
b
The time constant (tau) for most neurons falls in the range of:
a. 1-5ms
b. 2-20ms
c. 10�100ms
d. 100-1000ms
e. >1000ms
b
In most neurons, the largest proportion of synaptic inputs are
located on:
a. the nucleus
b. the dendrites
c. the axon
d. the axon terminals
e. the axon hillock
b
Action potentials propagate from their site of initiation by:
a. purely passive, electrotonic conduction
b. passive electrotonic conduction which activates glial cells downstream
c. passive electrotonic conduction which causes adjacent regions
to exceed their threshold and generate a new action potential
d. rapid propulsion of Na+ and K+ ions along the axon
e. electrons in high energy orbitals in the phospholipid bilayer
conduct the action potential towards the nerve terminal
c
Theoretically, the membrane potential of a cell can vary from about
-90mV when K+ channels are fully open (ie: the Potassium Equilibrium
Potential) to about +45mV, when all Na channels are open (ie: the
Sodium Equilibrium Potential). In nerve cells in the brain, what is
normally the major determinant of membrane potential at any particular millisecond?
a. the concentration of sodium ions inside the cell
b. the amount of ATP for the Na+/KA+TPase
c. the concentration of Ca++ ions outside the cell
d. the cell capacitance
e. the ratio of permeabilities to Na+ and K+ ions
e
The falling phase of the action potential is mostly due to:
a. inward Na+ currents
b. inactivation of the inward Na current
c. outward current of K+
d. inactivation of all K+ currents
e. Sodium-dependent Calcium currents
c
The Na/K ATPase is important in nerve cells. Why?
a. Because it determines the resting membrane potential
b. Because it causes action potentials
c. Because it pumps K+ ions out of the cell which would otherwise
be toxic
d. Because it maintains the ionic gradients for Na+ and K+ across
the membrane
e. Because it pumps ions to maintain the osmolarity of the cytosol
d
In a myelinated axon, conduction velocity is roughly proportional to
diameter. How far apart are the nodes of ranvier?
a. in proportion to the diameter of the axon
b. in proportion to the square of the diameter of the axon
c. in proportion to the square root of the diameter of the axon
d. in proportion to the length of the axon
e. in proportion to the surface area of the soma-dendritic region
a
Which of the following does not play a role in transmitter release at
nerve terminals?
a. calcium influx into the terminal
b. fusion of transmitter-containing vesicles with the terminal membrane
c. arrival of an action potential at the terminal
d. presence of extracellular calcium ions at millimolar concentrations
e. myelination of axons to allow saltatory conduction
e
Which of the following would be expected to affect most the voltage
threshold for an action potential in a nerve?
a. the number/density of chloride channels
b. the number/density of calcium channels
c. the number/density of voltage-activated sodium channels
d. the number/density of potassium channels
e. the number of dendrites
c
Squid giant axons are about 350-500�m in diameter, yet they conduct
at only about 25m/s. Why do such large axons conduct relatively slowly?
a. because squids lead such boring lives that they don�t need
fast information
b. because they have large gaps between their Nodes of Ranvier
c. because they live in cold water
d. because they do not have a myelin sheath
e. because they have a high axoplasmic resistance
d
Which of the following does not usually apply to classical neurotransmitters:
a. are transported in vesicles by fast axonal transport for
release at synaptic terminals
b. are responsible for the rapid responses (within milliseconds)
in postsynaptic neurons
c. often can produce both rapid and slower responses in
postsynaptic neurons
d. their release involves the process of exocytosis
e. includes some amino acids
a
Which of the following is not correct for chemical transmission:
a. is faster than electrical transmission.
b. offers more possibilities for modulation of signals than
electrical transmission.
c. is a much more common form of interaction between neurons than
electrical transmission.
d. involves the release of neurotransmitters in response to an
action potential.
e. involves interactions between two neurons at sites known as synapses.
a
Which of the following is not correct for electrical transmission:
Select one:
a. allows an action potential to move unchanged between two neurons
b. requires the presence of gap junctions
c. requires proteins called connexins
d. can occur in either direction between two neurons
e. is involved in some escape reflexes in invertebrates
a
Movement of classical transmitters into synaptic vesicles is directly
produced by:
a. a transport protein that promotes movement down a concentration
gradient from the sites of synthesis in the synaptic terminal
b. diffusion from sites of synthesis in the synaptic terminal
c. active transport via a protein that hydrolyses ATP
d. transport via a sodium antiporter
e. transport via a proton antiporter
e
Which of the following is NOT a common mechanism by which the action
of released transmitter is terminated?
a. uptake of the transmitter into the nerve terminal from which it
had been released
b. uptake of the transmitter into surrounding glial cells
c. irreversible binding of the transmitter to inactive receptors
d. breakdown of the transmitter by extracellular enzymes
e. diffusion and dilution in the synaptic cleft
c
Acetylcholinesterase is not:
a. a target for drugs used in the treatment of Alzheimer�s disease
b. inhibited by nerve gases
c. responsible for generating choline that can be taken up for use
in synthesising acetylcholine
d. able to breakdown ATP
e. present in the synaptic cleft of some (but not all) synapses
d
Which one of the following properties is not shared by classical
neurotransmitters and peptide transmitters:
a. are commonly found with one or more other neurotransmitters in
a single neuron
b. are stored in vesicles prior to release
c. produce a post-synaptic response by binding to plasma membrane receptors
d. are released primarily from active zones in the synaptic terminal
e. require an increase in calcium in the synaptic terminal to
initiate release
d
Which of the following transmitters are removed from the synaptic
cleft predominantly by being broken down?
a. GABA, glutamate and glycine
b. acetylcholine, GABA and Neuropeptide Y
c. GABA, Neuropeptide Y and 5-hydroxytryptamine
d. acetylcholine, ATP and Neuropeptide Y
e. glutamate, acetylcholine and 5-hydroxytryptamine
d
Which of the following is not correct for the ion channel part of a
ligand-gated ion channel (or ionotropic receptor)?
a. is formed from several protein subunits in the receptor
b. always allows movement of ions in only one direction
c. is opened by changes in shape of the receptor in response to
binding of the neurotransmitter
d. has properties that determine which ion (or ions) will flow
when it is open
e. is not usually open for the whole time a transmitter is bound
to the receptor
b
Which of the following statements is incorrect in relation to
neuromuscular junctions?
a. respond to an action potential in the neuron by releasing many
synaptic vesicles
b. generate a large excitatory post-junctional (or postsynaptic)
potential due to movement of K+
c. for a single muscle fibre, interaction occurs with only one
motor neuron
d. always generate an action potential in the muscle fibre in
response to an action potential in the neuron
e. contain nicotinic acetylcholine receptors
b
For nicotinic acetylcholine receptors, which of the following is correct?
a. they are found only at neuromuscular junctions
b. nicotine is an antagonist
c. allow movement of Cl-
d. contains an ion channel that opens when acetylcholine binds
and stays open until the acetylcholine is released
e. are composed of combinations of two or more different types of subunit
e
The ion most commonly involved in generating an inhibitory
postsynaptic potential in response to activation of a ligand-gated ion
channel by a transmitter is:
a. Na+
b. K+
c. Ca2+
d. Cl-
e. HCO3-
d
Which of the following does not apply to both ligand-gated ion
channels and G-protein coupled receptors?
a. are transmembrane proteins in the plasma membrane
b. are activated by some classical transmitters
c. are activated by some peptide transmitters
d. produce changes in cell properties when activated
e. bind neurotransmitters in the extracellular portion of the protein
c
Which of the following is not correct for increases in calcium in the
cytosol of neurons?
a. can result from release of calcium from the endoplasmic reticulum
b. can activate some forms of adenylyl cyclase
c. often leads to increased binding of calcium to calmodulin
d. can activate some protein kinases
e. can result from entry of calcium via sodium-calcium exchangers
e
For G-protein coupled receptors that are activated by a
neurotransmitter, which of the following is not correct?
a. produce responses by activating G-proteins
b. undergo a conformational change following binding of the transmitter
c. are located in the plasma membrane and have seven
transmembrane regions
d. have a selective binding site for the neurotransmitter
e. are made up of three subunits
e
Which of the following is not involved in maintaining a low
concentration of free Ca2+ in the cytosol of neurons?
a. voltage-sensitive calcium channels
b. calcium ATPases (calcium pumps) in the plasma membrane
c. sodium-calcium exchangers
d. calcium ATPases (calcium pumps) in the endoplasmic reticulum
e. calcium-binding proteins
a
In which organ are Pacinian corpuscles, Merkel�s disks, Meissners
corpuscles and Ruffini�s endings found?
a. the gut
b. the bladder
c. the heart
d. skeletal muscle
e. the skin
e
What is the �receptive field� of a sensory neuron?
a. the area over which it can be electrically stimulated
b. the region of the brain which it projects to
c. the region of spinal cord which it projects to
d. the area over which it can be activated by its adequate stimulus
e. the electrical field potential generated when the sensory nerve
fires action potentials
d
Where are the cell bodies of most sensory neurons (except special
senses of vision, audition etc) in the human body located?
a. in the spinal cord
b. in the brainstem
c. in dorsal root ganglia
d. in the cerebral cortex
e. scattered throughout the body
c
Which of the following features are found in spinal sensory neurons
but not in spinal motor neurons
a. their action potentials propagate towards the CNS and are
initiated only at the axon hillock
b. their action potentials normally initiate in the periphery and
they require voltage-activated sodium channels to propagate along the axon
c. they have cell bodies outside the central nervous system and
nerve terminals in the peripheral tissues that they innervate
d. their cell bodies lack dendrites and synaptic inputs and their
action potentials propagate towards the CNS rather than away from it
e. they have cell bodies in the CNS and sensitive nerve terminals
in the tissues that they innervate in the periphery
d
In situ hybridisation can be used to detect gene expression. Which
molecules does it detect in the cell?
a. ribosomal proteins involved in protein production
b. specific messenger RNA
c. specific transfer RNA
d. specific DNA sequences
e. Histone proteins on chromosomes
b
�Retrograde tracing� is a technique used for tracing neural pathways.
Which of the following is true about it?
a. it always uses a fluorescent label to detect traced neurons
b. it requires nerve lesions to apply the tracer
c. it primarily labels nerve cell bodies that send axons to a
particular target
d. it is mostly used to label axons that project to a particular target
e. it cannot be combined with any other techniques
c
cFos is a protein gene product used to identify activated neurons.
Which of the following is false about it?
a. it is an immediate early gene product
b. it accumulates in the nucleus of activated cells
c. it can be detected using specific antibodies
d. its expression is largely turned on by intense synaptic activation
e. it appears within seconds of intense stimulation
e
Anterograde tracing is used to trace neural pathways. Which of the
following is true about it?
a. it always uses a fluorescent label to detect traced neurons
b. it requires nerve lesions to apply the tracer
c. it primarily labels nerve cell bodies that send axons to a
particular target
d. it is mostly used to label axons that project to a particular target
e. it cannot be combined with any other techniques
d
Which of the following is not correct for neocortex?
a. is particularly prominent in the brains of reptiles
b. makes up much of the external surface of the cerebral hemispheres
c. contains multiple layers of neurons
d. has functionally distinct regions
e. is one component of the cerebral cortex
a
The autonomic nervous system:
a. produces voluntary contraction of (skeletal) muscle
b. contains sympathetic and antagonistic nerves
c. is involved in controlling blood pressure
d. is a primary site of memory formation
e. mediates spinal reflexes
c
Cerebrospinal fluid:
a. is equivalent to blood but without the cells
b. is mostly produced by the cerebral cortex
c. is removed via the arachnoid villi
d. flows from the subarachnoid space into the ventricles of the brain
e. surrounds the brain but not the spinal cord
c
Which of the following is not found in the skull?
a. Ventricles
b. Cerebellum
c. Diencephalon
d. Enteric neurons
e. Meninges
d
The neural cells of the central nervous system originate from:
a. the mesoderm
b. the ectoderm
c. the endoderm
d. the notochord
e. the neural crest
b
Neurulation is the process in which:
a. the neural plate is formed
b. the neural tube is formed
c. the spinal cord is formed
d. cells migrate from the neural crest to form the peripheral
nervous system
e. the hindbrain is formed
b
Which of the following is not correct?
a. The dorsal neural tube is patterned by sonic hedgehog secreted
from the notochord
b. The rostrocaudal axis of the neural tube is patterned in stages
c. Development of the hindbrain is dependent on Hox genes
d. The neural plate is induced by signals from the mesoderm
e. Cells in the ectoderm are transformed to neural tissue by
signals from bone morphogenic protein
e
Cells in the peripheral nervous system originate from:
a. the mesoderm
b. the neural crest
c. the notochord
d. the neural tube
e. none of the above
b
What statement is incorrect?
a. Neuronal and glial fates are controlled by local factors
b. Neurotransmission phenotype is controlled by signals from the
target cell
c. Survival of new neurons are regulated by signals from the
target cell
d. Axons are only extended from post-mitotic neurons
e. Astrocytes are derived from mesenchymal cells that invade the
developing nervous system with the blood vessels
e
Fibronectin and laminin are:
a. Molecules that are permissive for axonal growth
b. Growth factors
c. Substances that induce synapse formation
d. Important factors in the process of lateral inhibition
e. None of the above
a
What statement is correct?
a. Neuroepithelial cells give rise to all neuronal and glial
cells in the nervous system
b. Microglial cells are derived from mesenchymal cells
c. Astrocytes are derived from the mesoderm
d. Oligodendrocytes originate from invading blood vessels
e. Neuronal progenitor cells give rise to neurons and all types
of glial cells
b
Which of the following is not correct about cells in the neural tube?
a. Cells undergo proliferation at the pia surface and migrate
towards the ventricular surface
b. Cells migrate out from the germinal layer along radial fibers
c. Cell proliferation is highest at the ventricular surface
d. Later generations of precursor cells migrate out beyond early generations
e. The neural tube does not give raise to cells in the peripheral
nervous system
a
Neuregulin is a molecule that:
a. Activates tyrosine kinase receptors in the pre-synaptic
membrane resulting in increased Ach release
b. Activates erb b kinases in muscle resulting in synthesis of Ach receptors
c. An adhesion molecule that anchors pre and post-synaptic
membranes together
d. A molecule only expressed in central synapses where is induces
glutamaterg neurotransmission
e. A chemoattractor that directs the growth cone to the myotube
b
Neuromuscular junctions differ from central synapses in what aspect:
a. Central synapses lack a basal membrane
b. Central synapses do not include adhesion molecules in the
synaptic cleft
c. The mechanisms underlying transmitter release is different in
central synapses
d. There is no clustering of post-synaptic receptors in central synapses
e. Central synapses do not undergo post natal synapse elimination
a
Elimination of an axons target cell results in:
a. Degeneration of the axon
b. The axon innervates another target
c. Extensive branching of the axon in order to find a new target
d. Nothing, the growth cone will collapse and form a nerve
terminal anyway
e. None of the above
a
What is correct in regard to central synapses?
a. The basal lamina of central synapses stabilises the synaptic cleft
b. Neurons in the CNS often have multiple synapses using
different neurotransmitters
c. Central synapses lack mechanisms for removal of excess neurotransmitter
d. Central synapses are formed in random
e. none of the above
b
Experience-dependent development
a. Continues throughout life
b. Prepares the brain to process information expected for all humans
c. Describes the view that experience leads to a decrease in
number of synapses
d. Is dependent on pre-natal synaptogenesis
e. None of the above
a
What is true about myelination?
a. Begins shortly after conception
b. In the CNS, myelination by Schwann cells increases neural
transduction speed
c. The first part of the nervous system to become myelinated is
the cerebral cortex
d. Is complete at the time of birth
e. Myelination begins prenatally and continues throughout childhood
e
Babinski�s sign replaces the normal plantar reflex in adult patients
with lesions that affect the corticospinal tract (innervating the
lower extremities). In contrast, in the newborn, Babinski�s sign is
normal. This discrepancy can be explained by:
a. the lack of mature upper motor neurons in infants
b. incomplete myelination in the infant
c. multiple innervation of muscle fibres
d. the plantar reflex is a pain reflex and newborns are unable to
feel pain
e. incomplete synaptogenesis
b
In a group of nerve cells that initially innervate a particular
target during development up to 30% of the cells will eventually die -
The mechanisms of cell death involve:
a. necrotic cell death
b. energy dependent processes leading to the elimination of the
cell without causing inflammation
c. a loss of ATP production that will lead to disruption of the
plasma membrane
d. death signals secreted by surrounding glial cells
e. increased retrograde transport of neurotrophins
b
Microencephaly is associated with;
a. Maternal rubella infection
b. Trisomy 21
c. Any disorder that affect neuronal migration and/or proliferation
d. Gestational exposure to alcohol
e. Chicken pox infection
f. All of above
f
Developmental defects in the proencephalon can lead to:
a. Aprosencephaly
b. Spina bifida
c. Lissencephaly
d. Incorrect formation of the spinal cord
e. Severe deformation of the cerebellum
a
Spina bifida results from incomplete closure of the neural tube.
There is a strong association between the development of this
condition and:
a. Folate deficiency during pregnancy
b. Alcohol consumption during pregnancy
c. Lead poisoning
d. Vitamine A deficiency during pregnancy
e. Exposure to organic solvents during pregnancy
a
Failure of neural tube closure can result in:
a. Neuronal migration defects
b. Meningomyelocele
c. Lissencephaly
d. Schizencephaly
e. All of above
b
Intracellular recordings
a. record the potential difference across cell membranes.
b. only record fast action potentials.
c. record the outflow of the central pattern generator in many
neurons simultaneously.
d. record potential of cellular mitochondria.
e. record single channel stochastic opening.
a
The �Slow AHP� in lamprey spinal neurons stands for
a. Slow active hyper-polarization
b. Slow antidromic hypo-polarisation
c. Slow antagonism hyper peak
d. Slow after-hyper-polarization
e. Slow anti hyper-polarity
d
NMDA agonists depolarise the lamprey neurons by;
a. opening barium channels
b. closing calcium channels
c. opening dopamine channels
d. closing slow leak channels
e. opening channels permeable to sodium and calcium ions
e
Which of the following is incorrect. The lamprey:
a. swims in an eel-like manner.
b. is related to the hagfish.
c. is usually parasitic.
d. first appeared quite early in the evolution of chordates.
e. first appeared in evolution about 1 million year ago.
e
EPSPs (excitatory postsynaptic potentials):
a. are recorded in none of the spinal neurons
b. are recorded in four types of spinal neurons following
activation of cortico-spinal neurons
c. are recorded in two types of spinal neurons following activation
of reticulo-spinal neurons
d. are recorded in four types of spinal neurons following
activation of reticulo-spinal neurons
e. are recorded in four types of cortical neurons following
activation of spinal sensory neurons
e
What is the transmitter of the contralateral inhibitory interneuron�s
a. GABA
b. Dopamine
c. Serotonin
d. Glycine
e. Acetylcholine
d
Strychnine is an antagonist of
a. glutamate receptors
b. taurine receptors
c. serotonin receptors
d. glycine receptors
e. dopamine receptors
d
What causes the alternation between right and left side of the animal?
a. reciprocal inhibitory connections between right and left half
of spinal cord
b. reciprocal excitatory connections between right and left half
of spinal cord
c. reciprocal inhibitory connections between ventral and dorsal
spinal cord
d. parallel inhibitory connections between right and left half of
spinal cord
e. inverse inhibitory connections between head and tail of the lamprey
a
In the lamprey, vestibular inputs influence the direction of swimming
preferentially by affecting:
a. contralateral brainstem neurons
b. contralateral cerebellar neurons
c. ipsilateral brainstem neurons
d. ipsilateral cortical neurons
e. skin sensory neurons of both side
b
The swimming of the lamprey can:
a. be simulated by mathematical modelling the locomotor neural circuits
b. be simulated by modelling the cortical neural circuits
c. be simulated by mathematically modelling the muscle inhibition
d. be simulated by modelling the cerebellar neural circuits
e. be simulated by remodelling the previous experiences
a
The sensory neurons called �edge cells� in the lamprey are located
a. Within the spinal cord
b. On the skin
c. On the surface of the spinal cord
d. In the cerebellum
e. In the myotome muscle
c
Visual inputs in the lamprey affect swimming mainly via;
a. Contralateral brainstem neurons
b. Ipsilateral brainstem neurons
c. Sensory neurons of both sides
d. Brain stem neurons of both sides
e. Spinal neurons directly
b
Which of the following has the slowest rate of movement across the
blood-brain barrier?
a. ethanol
b. D-glucose
c. carbon dioxide
d. oxygen
e. glutamate
e
In the mature brain, new neurons:
a. are never produced
b. are produced only when there is disease or injury
c. are normally produced in small numbers in all brain regions
d. are primarily produced to replace neurons lost during ageing
e. are normally produced in only a few locations
e
Which of the following components is the most important contributor
to the properties of the blood-brain barrier?
a. Tight junctions between endothelial cells in blood vessels
b. Pericytes around blood vessels
c. Astroglial end-feet encircling the blood vessels
d. Binding proteins in the blood
e. The presence of transporters for some substances in
endothelial cells in blood vessels
a
Which of the following has the least influence on the ability of a
substance to cross the blood-brain barrier?
a. The lipid solubility of the substance
b. The availability of transporters for the substance in
endothelial cell membranes
c. The polarity of the substance
d. The size of the intercellular spaces between endothelial cells
e. The presence of a charge or charges on the substance
d
Long-term habituation and long-term sensitization both usually require:
a. the use of noxious stimuli in the training protocol
b. alterations in the action potentials generated by sensory
neurons in response to a stimulus
c. long-term phosphorylation
d. a single training session for induction
e. changes in the number of synaptic connections
e
Sensitisation induced by tail shock in Aplysia does not involve which
of the following?
a. Increased strength of some synapses
b. Increased mobilisation of synaptic vesicles to the active zone
c. Increased cyclic AMP production
d. Increased entry of K+ via ion channels
e. Increased neuronal excitability
d
Tail shock can be used in training protocols that induce either
sensitization or classical conditioning in Aplysia. The learning in
each case involves increased neurotransmitter release from the
synaptic terminals of some neurons when they are subsequently
stimulated by a non-noxious stimuli. At these synaptic terminals,
which of the following molecular changes is not required for the
induction of both sensitization and classical conditioning?
a. Increases in cyclic AMP
b. Activation of G-proteins
c. Increases in calcium induced by action potentials
d. Activation of protein kinases
e. Activation of serotonin receptors
c
Short-term memory in Aplysia usually does not involve:
a. changes at multiple synapses
b. modifications of pre-existing proteins
c. the activation of specific subpopulations of memory neurons
d. alterations in synaptic strength
e. changes in neuronal pathways involved in the activity that is
being learnt
c
Long-term potentiation:
a. is only found in hippocampus
b. always exhibits associativity
c. always results in increased excitatory post-synaptic potentials
d. always involves NMDA receptors
e. always requires protein synthesis for induction
c
Which of the following is not correct for long-term potentiation (LTP)?
a. Always requires NMDA receptor activation for induction
b. Can exhibit the property of associativity at some synapses
c. Can exhibit the property of co-operativity at some synapses
d. Requires protein synthesis when it persists for many hours
(late LTP)
e. Can be generated at many synapses in the brain
a
Which of the following is not a name for a type of use-dependent
modification that has been widely observed in neurons?
a. Long-term depression
b. Short-term depression
c. Long-term potentiation
d. Short-term potentiation
e. All of the above
b
Which of the following features are shared by long-term potentiation
in CA1 neurons in the mammalian hippocampus and sensitisation induced
by tail shock in Aplysia?
a. Induction requires activation of axo-axonic synapses
b. Expression involves greater availability of AMPA receptors
c. Expression involves increases in synaptic strength
d. Induction requires activation of G-coupled receptors by serotonin
e. Induction requires glutamate release
c
Which of the following is not correct for implicit memory in humans
or other mammals:
a. can be disrupted by lesions of the hippocampus and perirhinal cortex
b. can develop without the person or animal being aware of the development
c. can accumulate over time
d. includes forms of non-associative learning
e. different forms are associated with different brain region
a
Which of the following is not involved in the induction of long-term
depression in Purkinje cells in the cerebellum:
a. activation of climbing fibres
b. activation of NMDA receptors
c. activation of parallel fibres
d. activation of AMPA receptors
e. activation of metabotropic glutamate receptors
b
Which of the following is not correct for long-term depression:
a. can be induced in multiple brain regions
b. can cause reversal of long-term potentiation
c. can be induced by activation of NMDA receptors
d. can cause an increase in excitatory post-synaptic potentials
e. has been associated with some forms of motor learning
d
Which of the following has not been associated with evidence for
changes in the distribution or number of synaptic connections:
a. novel patterns of finger use in monkeys
b. novel patterns of finger use in humans
c. long-term sensitisation in Aplysia
d. long-term habituation in Aplysia
e. short-term sensitisation in Aplysia
e