1) All of the following are true of hypersensitivity EXCEPT
A) it occurs in the presence of an antigen.
B) it is synonymous with �allergy.�
C) it occurs when an individual is exposed to an allergen for the
first time.
D) it is due to an altered immune response.
E) it requires previous exposure to an antigen.
C
2) The chemical mediators of anaphylaxis are
A) found in basophils and mast cells.
B) antibodies.
C) antigens.
D) antigen-antibody complexes.
E) the proteins of the complement system
A
3) Which of the following may result from systemic anaphylaxis?
A) hay fever
B) asthma
C) shock
D) hives
E) immunodeficiency
C
4) Which antibodies will be in the serum of a person with blood type
B, Rh+?
A) anti-A, anti-B, anti-Rh
B) anti-A, anti-Rh
C) anti-A
D) anti-B, anti-Rh
E) anti-B
C
5) Which of the following types of transplant is least compatible?
A) autograft
B) allograft
C) isograft
D) xenotransplant
E) All of these types of transplant are equally compatible
D
6) When testing donated blood for compatibility you would find a
person with O type blood
A) has O type antigens on their red blood cells.
B) will lack plasma antibodies to A and B type antigens.
C) will lack A and B red blood cell antigens.
D) lacks HLA and MHC antigens.
E) will have anti-O antibodies in their plasma.
C
7) Graft-versus-host disease will most likely be a complication of a(n)
A) skin graft.
B) bone marrow transplant.
C) blood transfusion.
D) Rh incompatibility between mother and fetus.
E) corneal transplant.
B
8) A positive tuberculin skin test is an example of
A) delayed cell-mediated immunity.
B) autoimmunity.
C) acute contact dermatitis.
D) psoriasis.
E) innate immunity.
A
9) A healthy immune system destroys cancer cells with
A) tumor-specific antigens.
B) CTLs.
C) CTLs and activated macrophages.
D) activated macrophages.
E) CD+ T cells.
C
10) The symptoms of an immune complex reaction are due to
A) destruction of the antigen.
B) complement activation.
C) phagocytosis.
D) antibodies against self.
E) cytokines.
B
11) Rheumatoid arthritis is due to deposition of
A) IgG and IgA complexes in joints.
B) IgA antibodies in joints.
C) IgD and IgE complexes in joints.
D) complement in joints.
E) complexes of IgM and IgG and also complement in joints
E
12) Allergic contact dermatitis is due to
A) sensitized T cells.
B) IgG antibodies.
C) IgE antibodies.
D) IgM antibodies.
E) activated macrophages.
A
13) Attachment of HIV to the target cell depends on
A) gp120 combining with the CD4+ receptor.
B) gp120 combining with the chemokine receptor CCR5.
C) gp41 binding to the CD4+ receptor.
D) gp120 binding to the CD4+ plasma membrane.
E) CXCR4 binding to the CD4+ receptor.
A
14) All of the following pertain to serological tests EXCEPT
A) they can detect antibodies but not antigens.
B) they can be used to diagnose various diseases.
C) reactions can be detected by uptake of trypan blue by damaged cells.
D) they are used to test for specific HLAs on lymphocytes.
E) they are used to detect compatible tissues for transplantation
A
15) The process of desensitization to prevent allergies involves the
injection of increasing amounts of
A) IgE.
B) IgG.
C) antihistamine.
D) antigen.
E) RhoGAM.
D
16) Which of the following statements about type I reactions is FALSE?
A) They involve helper T cells.
B) They involve IgE antibodies.
C) The symptoms are due to histamine.
D) Antibodies bind to mast cells and basophils.
E) The symptoms occur soon after exposure to an antigen.
A
17) Which of the following statements about type IV reactions is FALSE?
A) Reactions are primarily due to T cell proliferation.
B) Reactions are not apparent for a day or more.
C) Cytokines initiate tissue damage.
D) Allergic contact dermatitis is an example.
E) Hemolytic disease of the newborn is an example.
E
18) Table 19.1
Which blood transfusions in Table 19.1 are incompatible?
A) 2 and 5
B) 1, 2, and 3
C) 2, 3, and 5
D) 3 and 4
E) 1 and 2
C
19) Hemolytic disease of the newborn can result from an
A) Rh+ mother with an Rh� fetus.
B) Rh� mother with an Rh+ fetus.
C) AB mother with a B fetus.
D) AB mother with an O fetus.
E) Rh� mother and an A fetus.
B
20) Which is true regarding Herceptin therapy?
A) It neutralizes the growth factor EGF.
B) It acts as an immunotoxin to target and kill cancer cells.
C) It is used to treat some breast cancer patients.
D) It is a vaccine to prevent the development of cancer.
E) It is an endotoxin that stimulates TNF by macrophages.
C
21) Which of the following utilizes a combination of monoclonal
antitumor antibody and immunotoxin?
A) immunologic enhancement
B) immunologic surveillance
C) immunotherapy
D) immunosuppression
E) immune complex
Answer: C
C
22) All of the following are reasons why an HIV vaccine has not been
developed EXCEPT
A) there is no known animal model of natural immunity for HIV infection.
B) use of a weakened virus would potentially transmit the infection.
C) small, inexpensive animals which could be used for HIV vaccine
research are not available.
D) vaccines are not effective against viral infections.
E) HIV has a high mutation rate so one vaccination would not be
effective to treat the world-wide pandemic.
D
23) Treatment with certain drugs to reduce transplant rejection can cause
A) immunologic enhancement.
B) immunologic surveillance.
C) immunotherapy.
D) immunosuppression.
E) autoimmunity.
D
24) Which of the following statements about human embryonic stem
cells is TRUE?
A) They are obtained in great numbers from umbilical cords of newborns.
B) They express no MHC II antigens.
C) They are pluripotent.
D) They are typically obtained from the zygote stage of embryonic development.
E) They are pluripotent and typically obtained from the blastocyst
stage of embryonic development.
E
25) In immune complex reaction shown in Figure 19.1, what is the
small, circular/spherical structure labeled �a�?
A) antibody
B) antigen
C) complement
D) neutrophil
E) mast cell
B
26) In immune complex reaction shown in Figure 19.1, what is the end
result of the reaction?
A) IgG is directed against cell membrane antigens.
B) Complement is activated.
C) Neutrophils are attracted and release enzymes.
D) Endothelial cells are damaged.
E) Antibodies destroy neutrophils.
D
27) Worldwide, the primary method of transmission of HIV is
A) heterosexual intercourse.
B) homosexual intercourse.
C) intravenous drug use.
D) blood transfusions.
E) nosocomial.
A
28) HIV spikes attach to CD4+ receptors found on
A) T helper cells.
B) macrophages.
C) dendritic cells.
D) T helper cells and macrophages.
E) T helper cells, macrophages, and dendritic cells.
E
29) Which of the following is the least likely vaccine against HIV?
A) attenuated virus
B) glycoprotein
C) protein core
D) subunit
E) All of these vaccines are equally likely.
A
30) Which of the following is a possible outcome of an HIV infection?
A) Virions may remain latent.
B) There may be persistent yeast infections.
C) Infection may initially be asymptomatic.
D) The disease does not progress to AIDS.
E) All of the answers are correct.
E
32) Chemotherapy to inhibit the progression of HIV infection utilizes
all of the following mechanisms EXCEPT
A) termination of viral DNA.
B) inhibition of viral proteases.
C) blockage of viral attachment.
D) prohibition of viral integration into host cell DNA.
E) destruction of viral ribosomes.
E
33) During the asymptomatic phase I of HIV disease, HIV infection is
diagnosed by
A) detecting viral RNA.
B) detecting antibodies against HIV.
C) counting CD4+ T cells.
D) counting CD8+ T cells.
E) the Western blot test.
A
34) Anaphylaxis is the term for reactions caused when certain
antigens combine with
A) IgE antibodies.
B) macrophages.
C) IgG antibodies.
D) complement.
E) histamine
A
35) All of the following regarding �immune privileged sites� are true EXCEPT
A) they include corneal and brain tissue.
B) they do not have lymphatic vessels.
C) they are rarely rejected.
D) they include any tissue transplanted from a pig.
E) they explain how animals tolerate pregnancies without rejecting
the fetus
D
36) All of the following are considered examples of type I
hypersensitivity EXCEPT
A) asthma.
B) dust allergies.
C) penicillin allergic reactions.
D) pollen allergies.
E) transplant rejections.
E
37) All of the following lead to drug-induced thrombocytopenic
purpura. Which occurs first?
A) Antibodies and complement react with platelets.
B) Antibodies against haptens are formed.
C) Drug binds to platelets.
D) Platelets are destroyed.
E) Purpura occurs on the skin
C
38) Immunodeficiencies are a result of all of the following EXCEPT
A) HIV infection.
B) cyclosporine.
C) DiGeorge syndrome.
D) Hodgkin�s disease.
E) autoimmune diseases.
E
39) Which of the following describes a cytotoxic autoimmune reaction?
A) Antibodies react to cell-surface antigens.
B) Antibodies are not made.
C) Cells are killed.
D) Immune complexes form.
E) Mediate by T cells.
A
40) Symptoms of delayed cell-mediated reactions are due to
A) IgE antibodies.
B) neutrophils.
C) cytokines.
D) IgG antibodies.
E) antigens.
C
41) Desensitization involves injection of
A) antigens.
B) IgG antibodies.
C) IgE antibodies.
D) antihistamine.
E) histamine
A
42) In the serological method for tissue typing, if human cells
expressing HLA-I are mixed with anti-HLA-I, complement, and trypan
blue, what would indicate the cells are HLA-I?
A) Enzyme is released from neutrophils.
B) Cells are damaged by complement.
C) Trypan blue enters the cells.
D) Anti-HLA antibodies bind to HLAs on lymphocytes.
E) None of the answers are correct; the T cells are missing
C
43) In rheumatoid arthritis, IgM, IgG, and complement deposit in
joints. This is an example of
A) cytotoxic autoimmunity.
B) immune complex autoimmunity.
C) cell-mediated autoimmunity.
D) immunosuppression.
E) acquired immunodeficiency.
B
44) The number of T cells drops to below 200 cells/microliter in
which phase of HIV infection?
A) phase 1
B) phase 2
C) phase 3
D) initial phase
E) asymptomatic phase
C
45) HIV can evade host antibodies by
A) remaining an inactive provirus.
B) causing cell-to-cell fusion.
C) remaining an inactive provirus, causing cell to cell fusion, and
virions remaining latent in vacuoles.
D) lowering the CD4+ cell count.
E) virions remaining latent in vacuoles.
C