Finaal Exam Flashcards

which of the following states are true?
a) the right to hypochondriac region contains the majority of the stomach
b) the part of the serous membrane that lines the peritoneal cavity
wall is called visceral peritoneum
c) the elbow is proximal to the shoulder
d) the anatomical position means the body is standing at attention
with the palms facing forward and the thumbs pointing away from the body

The anatomical position means the body is standing at attention with
the palms facing forward and the thumbs pointing away from the body

which of the following is false?
a) embryology concerns the structural changes that occur in an
individual from conception through old age
b) responsiveness or irritability is ability to sense changes
in the environment and then respond to them
c) the epigastric region is superior to the umbilical region
d) without some sort of negative feedback mechanism, it would
be impossible to keep our body chemistry in balance

embryology concerns the structural changes that occur in an
individual from conception through old age

in the diagram at left which of the labeled structures is the hypogastric

The lower abs (D)

the study of large body structures, visible to the naked eye, such as
the heart is call ____ anatomy


what is the main, general purpose of negative feedback?

to maintain homeostasis

___ is the specific name for the hip region


a good example of a positive feedback mechanism would be

enhancement of labor contractions by oxytocin

the parietal pleura would represent a serous membrane

lining the thoracic cavity

the spleen is located in which abdominopelvic quadrant

left upper

a vertical section through the body, diving in into anterior and
posterior, is called


which body cavity protects the nervous system?


the bridge of the nose is ___ to the left eye


in the diagram at left which of the labeled structures is an integral protein

Its a picture from exam 1

a red blood cell placed in pure water would:

swell and burst

which of these is not a function of the plasma membrane?

it prevents potassium ion from leaking out and sodium ions from
crossing into the cell

which type of cell junction acts as anchors an distributes tension
through a cellular sheet and reduces the chance of tearing when it is
subjected to great mechanical stress


what moves cell organelles from one location to another inside a cell?

motor proteins

riboswitches are folded RNAs that act as switches to turn protein
synthesis on or off in response to ____

changes in the environment

which of the following is a function of a plasma membrane protein?

molecular transport through the membrane

cholesterol is used in the cell membrane to:

help make the membrane more stable and less fluid


are both hydrophilic and hydrophilic in nature

select the most correct statement regarding the glycocalyx

it involves highly specific biological markers on the surface of the cell

which of the following is NOT a function of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum?

protein synthesis in conjunction with ribosomes

which statement is the most correct regarding transcription/translation?

the nucleotide sequence in a tRNA anticodon is an exact copy of the
DNA triplet that coded for it except that uracil is substituted for thymine

which of the following is a concept of the cell theory

A cell os the basic structural and functional unit of living organisms

which of the following is a principle of the fluid mosaic model of
cell membrane structure?

phospholipids form a bilayer that is largely impermeable to
water-soluble molecules

which of the following statements is most correct regarding the
intracellular chemical signals known as "second messengers"?

cyclic AMP and calcium are second messengers

crenation (shrinking) is likely to occur in blood cells immersed in ______

blood cells in a hypertonic solution

some hormones enter cells via:

receptor-mediated endocytosis

if the tRNA had an AGC anticodon, it could attach to a(an) _____ mRNA codon.


in order to the DNA molecule to get "short and fat" to
become a chromosome, it must first wrap around small molecules called____


other than the nucleus, which organelle has its own DNA?


which of the following is not found in the matrix of cartilage but is
in bone?

blood vessels

which is the following would be of most importance to goblet cells
and other glandular epithelium?

golgi bodies

mammary glands exhibit a glandular type called____

compound alveolar

which statement best describes connectives tissues

usually contains a large amount of matrix

the tissue type that arises from all three embryonic germ layers is:

epithelial tissue

the fiber type that gives connective tissue great tensile strength is:

collagen fiber

inability to absorb digested nutrients and secrete mucus might
indicate a disorder in which tissue?

simple columnar

which of the following is true about epithelia?

endothelium provides a slick surface lining all hollow cardiovascular organs

______ epithelium appears to have two ir three layers of cells, but
all the cells are in contact with the basement membrane

pseudo stratified columnar

multicellular exocrine glands can be classified:

functionally into merocrine, holocene, and apocrine divisions

which is true concerning muscle tissue?

highly cellular and well vascularized

_____ are commonly found wedged between simple columnar epithelial cells

goblet cells

mesenchymal cells are most commonly found in _______ connective tissues


_____ tissue forms the framework for the lamina propria of mucous membranes

areolar connective

put the events in proper numbered order according to the sequence of occurrence
1) the skin receives a cut that penetrates into the dermis and
bleeding begins
2) epithelial regeneration is nearly complete
3) granulation tissue is formed
4) blood clotting occurs and stops the blood flow
5) the scar retracts
6) macrophages engulf and cleans away cellular debris
7) fibroblasts elaborate connective tissue fibers to span the break


select the most correct statement concerning skin cancer

melanomas are rare but must be removed quickly to prevent them from metastasizing

which of the following statements is true
a) the reason that nail bed appears pink is the presence of a large
number of melanocytes in the underlying dermis
b) the protein found in large amounts in the outermost layer
epidermal cells is collagen
c) regardless of race, all human beings have about the same number
of melanocytes
d) joe just burned himself on a hot pot. a blister forms and the
burn is painful. joe burn would best be described as a third-degress burn

regardless of race, all human beings have about the same number of melanocytes

a needle would pierce the epidermal layers of the forearm in which order?

corner, granulosum, spinosum, basale

which statement correctly explains why hair appears the way it does?

kinky hair has flat, ribbonlike hair shafts

sudoriferous glands vary in distribution over the surface of the
body. which of the following is correct?

ceruminous glands secrete cerumen, which is thought to repel insects

which type of skin cancer appears as a scaly reddened papule and
tends to grow rapidly and metastasize?

squamous cell carcinoma

keratinocytes are the most important of the epidermal cell because:

they produce a fibrous protein that gives the skin its protective properties

despite its apparent durability, the dermis is subject to tearing.
how might a person know that the dermis has been stretched and/or torn?

the appearance of visible, silvery-white scars is an indication of
stretching of the dermis

a dendritic or langerhan cell is a specialized

phagocytic cell

apocrine glands, which begin to function at puberty under hormonal
influence, seem not to be useful in thermoregulation, where would we
find these glands in the human body?

in the axillary and anogenital area

the ____ is a small muscle lacerated in the dermis that causes goose bumps

arrector pili

a summertime golden bronze tan may not be a tan at all; especially if
the skin appears almost metallic bronze, it may be the result of____ disease

addisons disease

______ burns injure the epidermis and the upper regions of the dermis

second degree

yellow bone marrow contains a large percentage of:


in the diagram at left the bone labeled #5 is a

long (exam 2)

a fracture in the shaft of a bone would be a break in the:


the cell responsible for secreting the matrix of bone is the:


which of the following is a bone marking name that indicates a
projection that helps to form joints?


which of the following statement is false
a) cartilage has a flexible matrix that can accommodate mitosis of chondrocytes
b) closure of the epiphyseal plate stops all bone growth
c) each consecutive bone lamella has collagen fibers that wrap in
alternation directions.
d) the term osteoid refers to the organic part of the matrix of
compact bones

closure of the epiphyseal plate stops all bone growth

bones are covered and lined by a protective tissue called periosteum.
the inner (osteogenic) layer consists primarily of

osteoblasts and osteoclasts

in the diagram at left the area labeled ____ us the area where red
marrow is found

A (exam 2)

the most abundant skeletal carriage type is:


the resilience of bone is primarily due to which of the following?

sacrificial bonds in or between collagen molecules

the process of bones increasing in width is known as:

appositional growth

bone are constantly undergoing resorption for various reasons. which
of the following cells accomplishes this process?


vertebrae are considered _____ bones


the universal loss of mass seen in the skeleton, which begins about
the age of 40

reflects n imbalance in the bone remodeling process

cranial bones develop:

within fibrous membranes

which of the following statement best describes interstitial growth

chondrocytes in the lacunae divide and secrete matrix, allowing the
cartilage to grow from within

in the epiphyseal plate, cartilage grows:

by pushing the epiphysis away from the diaphysis

spongy bones are made up of a framework called:


in some cases the epiphyseal plate of the long bones of children
closes too early. what might be the cause?

elevated levels of sex hormones

it is thought that remodeling or bone growth is in response to the
forces places on it, which of the following hypotheses may explain how
mechanical forces communicate with cells responsible for bone remodeling

electrical signals direct the remodeling process

which fracture would be least likely in a 92 year old?


a round or oval hole through a bone that contains blood vessels
and/or nerves is called a _______


the ethmoid bone is composed of all of the following except the:

inferior nasal concha

only the _____ vertebra does not have a body


which of the following statements is false?
a) the vertebral column is held in place primarily by the anterior
and posterior longitudinal ligament
b) closure of the epiphyseal plate stops all bone growth
c) in the anatomical position, the lateral forearm bone is the radius
d) body weight is carried primarily by the talus and calcaneus

closure of the epiphyseal plate stops all bone growth

the pituitary gland is housed in the

sella turcica of the sphenoid

the hyoid bone is unique because:

it is the only bone of the body that does not articulate with any
other bone

the major function of the intervertebral discs is to:

absorb stock

thoracic vertebrae differ from the other vertebrae in that they have______

costal facets

which of the following in an abnormal lateral curvature of the
vertebral column often seen in the thoracic region?


which of the following phrases best describes the function of the
vertebral curves?

to provide resilience and flexibility

which part of the vertebral column receives the most stress by
bearing most of the weight of the body?

the lumbar region

thoracic vertebrae T2 through T8 differ from the others in that:

they have superior and inferior demifacets

the short bone that attaches to the third metacarpal is the:


the bone in direct contact with the first metatarsal (big toe) is the:

medial cuneiform

the skull bone that the foramen magnum passes through is the:


the superior nasal concha is a part of which bone?


the tibia is in contact with which tarsus?


the heel bone is called the______


the largest foramen in the body is the _____ foramen

obturator foramen

the styloid process of the _______ points to the thumb


only the _______ vertebrae have transverse foramina


the ______ is the primary bone in the septum of the nose


an immovable joint found found between skull bones is called a:


articular cartilage found at the ends of the long bone serves to:

provide a smooth surface at the ends of synovial joints

a joint united by dense fibrocartilaginous tissue that permits a
slight degree of movement is a:


the gliding motion of the wrist is accomplished because of the _____ joint.


which of the following statement defines synchondroses?

cartilaginous joints where hyaline cartilage unites the ends of bones

menisci refer to:

semilunar cartilage pads

when one is moving a limb away from the median plane of the body
along the frontal plane, it is called:


the terms inversion and eversion pertain only to:

the feet

the only movement allowed in a pivot joint is:

uniaxial rotation

football players often sustain lateral blows to the extended knee.
which of the ligaments is/are damaged as a result?

medial collateral, medial meniscus, and anterior cruciate

gouty artritis is a painful condition caused by:

excessive blood levels of uric acid deposited as crystals in the soft
tissue joints

which of the following is a true statement?
a) the rotator cuff is responsible for the flexible extensions at
the elbow joint
b) the head of the humerus articulates with the acromion process
c) the greater tubercle of the humerus articulates at the coracoid
process of the scapula
d) the annular ligament surrounds the head of the radius

the annular ligament surrounds the head of the radius

multiaxial joints of the body include:

the hip and shoulder

tendon sheaths:

act as friction-reducing structures

moving your jaw forward, causing an underbite is called _____


a synchondrosis joint is a _____ structural class of joint


the joint between the carpal and the first metacarpal is called a
______ joint


in the diagram at left which of the labeled structures is a Z disc

A (exam 3)

what is the role of tropomyosin in skeletal muscles?

tropomyosin serves as a contraction inhibitor by blocking the myosin
binding sites on the actin molecules

fatigued muscles cells that recover rapidly are the products of:

intense exercise of short duration


holds a reserve supply of oxygen in muscle cells

an elaborate network of membranes in skeletal muscle cells that
functions in calcium storage is the:

sarcoplasmic reticulum

creatine phosphate functions in the muscle cell by:

storying energy that will be transferred to ADP to resynthesize ATP
as needed

the striations of a skeletal muscle cell are produced, for the most
part by:

the arrangement of myofilaments

during muscle contraction, myosin cross bridges attach to which
active sites?

actin filament

smooth muscles that act like skeletal muscles but are controlled by
autonomic nerves and hormones are _____

multiunit muscles

rigor mortis occurs because:

ATP is required to release the attached actin and myosin molecules

which of the choices below does not describe how excess post exercise
oxygen consumption (oxygen deficit) restores metabolic conditions?

increases the level of lactic acid in the muscle

the site of calcium regulation in the smooth muscle cell is:


the main effect of the warm-up period of athletes, as the muscle
contractions increase in strength, is to:

enhance the availability of calcium and the efficiency of enzyme systems

during vigorous exercise, there may be insufficient oxygen available
to completely break down pyretic acid for energy. as a result, the
pyretic acid is converted to_____

lactic acid

which of the following is true about smooth muscle contraction?

certain smooth cells can actually divide to increase their numbers

smooth muscle is characterized by all of the following except:

there are more thick filaments than thin filaments

the sliding filament model of contraction involves:

acting and myosin sliding past each other and partially overlapping

after nervous stimulation stops, what prevents ACh in the synaptic
cleft from continuing to stimulate contractions?

acetylcholinesterase destroying the ACh

which of the following is most accurate?

muscle tension remains relatively constant during isotonic contraction

theoretically, if a muscle were stretched to the point where thick
and thin filaments no longer overlapped:

no muscle tension could be generated

an individual has just ingested a chemical that binds irreversibly to
the ACH receptors in the sarcolemma. by itself it does not alter
membrane potential, yet prevents normal neurotransmitter binding.
ignoring the effect on any other system, the consequence to skeletal
muscle would be:

no contraction at all by nervous mechanisms, but contraction if
stimulated by an external electrode

which of the following provides the most energy during one-minute
sustained muscle contraction?

anaerobic glycolysis

what are caveolae

deep invaginations in the sarcolemma of smooth muscle

in the diagram at left which of the labeled muscles is the trapezius

b (exam 3)

scissors demonstrate which type of lever?

a first class lever

what is the main factor that determines the power of a muscle?

the total number of muscle cells available for contraction

when the term biceps, triceps, or quadriceps forms part of a muscles
name, you can assume that:

the muscle has two, three, or four origins respectively

the suprahypoid muscle:

are a group of muscles that lie superior to the hyoid bone and help
form the floor of the oral cavity

the extensor carpi radials brevis:

extends and abducts the wrist and is short

which of the following muscles insert by the calcanea tendon?

the gastrocnemius

if a lever operates at a mechanical disadvantage, it mean that the:

load is far from the fulcrum and the effort is applied near the fulcrum

a muscle group that works with and assists the action of a prime
movers is a(n):


the most powerful muscle in the body is the _____

quadriceps femori

a nursing infant develops a powerful sucking muscle that adults also
use for whistling called the:


spasms of this straplike muscle often result in wryneck or torticollis


in a pennate muscle pattern

muscles look like a feather

which muscle(s) is (are) contracted to exhale forcibly?

internal intercostals and rectus abdominal

what do geniohyoid, hyoglossus, and stylohyoid have in common?

all act on the tongue

if F=load, F= fulcrum, and E= effort, what type of lever system is
described as LEF?

third class lever

which of the following muscles is involved in abduction?


which of the following muscles serves as a common intramuscular
injection site, particularly in infants?

the vastus lateralis

the ____ is known as the boxer muscle

serratus anterior

_____ fibers run at right angles to the axis of the muscle


______ extends the great toe

extensor hallicus longus

a wide receiver for the dallas cowboy pulled a hamstring muscle, what
would the effect be?

would not be able to extend his thigh while running

how can a lever system work at a disadvantage but still be of use to us?

it can move the load over large distance at a rapid rate

what does the central nervous system use to determine the strength of
a stimulus?

frequency of actions potentials

an excitatory neurotransmitter secreted by motor neurons innervating
skeletal muscle is:


the role of acetylcholinesterase is to

destroy Each a brief period after its release by the axonal endings

saltatory conduction is made possible by:

the myelin sheath

immediately after an action potential has peaked, which cellular
gates opens


select the correct statement about synapses

the synaptic cleft prevents an impulse from being transmitted
directly from one neuron to another

which of the following will occur when an excitatory postsynaptic
potential (EPSP) is being generated on the dendritic membrane

a single type of channel will open, permitting simultaneous flow of
sodium and potassium

which of the following is true about the movement of ions across
excitable living membranes?

sodium gates in the membrane can open in response to electrical
potential changes

a second nerve impulse cannot be generated until:

all sodium gates are closed

if a motor neuron in the body were stimulated by n electrode placed
about midpoint along the length of the axon:

the impulse would spread bidirectionally

______ law is the relationship between voltage, current, and resistance


______ potential are short-lived, local changes in membrane potential
that can be either depolarizer or hyperpolarized


when one or more presynaptic neurons fore in rapid order it produces
a much greater depolarization of the postsynaptic membrane than would
result from a single EPSP; this event is called________ summation


what function is served by the increased axonal diameter at the nodes
of Ranvier?

increased speed of impulse conduction

a neuronal circuit that concentrates or directs a large number of
incoming impulses to a rather small number of neurons is called a(n):

converging circuit

collections of nerve cell bodies outside the central nervous system
are called:


the sympathetic and parasympathetic are subdivisions of the:

autonomic nervous system

ependymal cells:

help to circulate the cerebrospinal fluid

____ is an indolamine


_______ are found in the CNS and act as the glue that binds axons and
blood vessels to each other.


_______ is a neurotransmitter of the CNS that is used by Purkinje
cells of the CNS


the suprachiasmatic nucleus is found in the:


nuclei of cranial nerves V,VI, and VII are found in the:


spinocerebellar tracts:

carry proprioceptive inputs to the cerebellum

the viral centers for the control of heart rates, respiration, and
blood pressure are located in the:


cell bodies of the sensory neurons of the spinal nerves are located in:

the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal cord

the rough, thick, leathery meningeal layer is the:

dura mater

the cerebrospinal fluid:

is formed mostly by the choroid plexuses

neural tracts that convey life-saving information to the brain
concerning burning pain would be

lateral spinothalamic

an individual accidentally transected the spinal cord between T1 and
L1. this would result in:


an individual who could trace a picture of a bicycle with his or her
finger but could not recognize it as a bicycle is most likely to have
sustained damage to the:

visual association area

brocas area:

is considered a motor speech area

the function of commissures is to connect:

corresponding areas of the two hemispheres

REM sleep is associated with:

temporary skeletal muscle paralysis, except for the extrinsic eye muscle

the corpus striatum plays a special role in:

skill learning

storing information in long-term memory

is facilitated by the release of norepinephrine

important nuclei of the indirect (multi neural) system that receive
impulses from the equilibrium apparatus of the inner ear and help to
maintain balance by varying muscle tone of postural muscles are the:

vestibular nuclei

white matter (myelinated fibers) is found in all of the following
locations, with the exception of the:

cerebral cortex

the _______ includes the thalamus, hypothalamus, and the epithalamus


receptors for hearing are located in the:


farsightedness is more properly called:


the oval window is connected directly to which passageway?

scala gestibili

the options found in cone cells are called:


which of the following is true about gustatory receptors?

complete adaptation occurs in about one to five minutes


package visual pigment in membrane-bound discs, which increases the
efficiency of light trapping

a reflex that causes muscle relaxation and lengthening in response to
muscle tension is called a _______:

tendon reflex

dark adaptation:

involves accumulation of rhodopsin

visual inputs to the _____ serve to synchronize biorhythms with
natural light and dark

suprachiasmatic nucleus

as sound levels increase in the spiral organ (of Corti):

outer hair cells stiffen the basilar membrane

the blind spot of the eye is:

where the optic nerve leaves the eye

the cell of the retina in which action potentials are generated are the:

ganglion cells

an essential part of the macula involved in static equilibrium is
(are) the:


select the correct statement about equilibrium:

cristae respond to angular acceleration

bitter taste is elicited by____


which receptors adapt most slowly?


problems in balance may follow trauma to which nerve?


feeling a gentle caress on your arm would likely involve all of the
following except:

pacinian corpuscles

the parasympathetic nervous system is characterized by peripheral
ganglia near the:

organs and by short postganglionic fibers

a drug that might be used specifically to reduce heart rate in
cardiac patients could be:

a beta-blocker

where would you not fine a cholinergeric nicotinic receptors?

all parasympathetic target organs

erection of the penis or clitoris

is primarily under parasympathetic

raynaud disease:

is characterized by exaggerated vasoconstriction in the extremities

sympathetic fibers leave the spinal cord in the:

thoracolumbar region, and the postganglionic fibers secrete norepinephrine

the route of major parasympathetic outflow from the head is the:

vagus nerve

which of the following hormones suppresses appetite and increase
energy expenditure?


the ability of a specific tissue or organ to respond to respond to
the presence of a hormone is dependent on ____.

the presence of the appropriate receptors on the cells of the target
tissue or organ

the neurohypophysis or posterior lobe of the pituitary gland is not a
true endocrine gland because _______.

it is only a hormone storage area that receives hormones from the
hypoythalamus for release

steroid hormones exert their actions by_____.

entering the nucleus of cell and initiating or altering the
expression of a gene

the second-massager mechanism of hormone actions operates by______.

binding to specific receptors and employing the service of G proteins
and cAMP

thyroid hormone (a small iodinated amine) enter target cells in a
manner similar to_______

steroid hormones, because both diffuse easily into target cells

one of the least complicated of the endocrine controls systems
directly responds to changing blood levels of ions and nutrients.
which of the following describes this mechanism?

humoral stimulation


secretion is regulated by a hypothalamic regulatory hormone

a man has been told that he is not synthesizing enough
follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), and for this reason he may be
unable to father a child.choose the correct statement to explain this problem

FSH stimulates sperm production in the testes.

how do glucocorticoids enable the body to deal appropriately with stress?

by increasing blood glucose, fatty acid, and amino acid level and
enhancing blood pressure