which of the following states are true?
a) the right to hypochondriac region contains the majority of the stomach
b) the part of the serous membrane that lines the peritoneal cavity
wall is called visceral peritoneum
c) the elbow is proximal to the shoulder
d) the anatomical position means the body is standing at attention
with the palms facing forward and the thumbs pointing away from the body
The anatomical position means the body is standing at attention with
the palms facing forward and the thumbs pointing away from the body
which of the following is false?
a) embryology concerns the structural changes that occur in an
individual from conception through old age
b) responsiveness or irritability is ability to sense changes
in the environment and then respond to them
c) the epigastric region is superior to the umbilical region
d) without some sort of negative feedback mechanism, it would
be impossible to keep our body chemistry in balance
embryology concerns the structural changes that occur in an
individual from conception through old age
in the diagram at left which of the labeled structures is the hypogastric
The lower abs (D)
the study of large body structures, visible to the naked eye, such as
the heart is call ____ anatomy
Gross
what is the main, general purpose of negative feedback?
to maintain homeostasis
___ is the specific name for the hip region
coxal
a good example of a positive feedback mechanism would be
enhancement of labor contractions by oxytocin
the parietal pleura would represent a serous membrane
lining the thoracic cavity
the spleen is located in which abdominopelvic quadrant
left upper
a vertical section through the body, diving in into anterior and
posterior, is called
front
which body cavity protects the nervous system?
dorsal
the bridge of the nose is ___ to the left eye
medial
in the diagram at left which of the labeled structures is an integral protein
Its a picture from exam 1
a red blood cell placed in pure water would:
swell and burst
which of these is not a function of the plasma membrane?
it prevents potassium ion from leaking out and sodium ions from
crossing into the cell
which type of cell junction acts as anchors an distributes tension
through a cellular sheet and reduces the chance of tearing when it is
subjected to great mechanical stress
desmosomes
what moves cell organelles from one location to another inside a cell?
motor proteins
riboswitches are folded RNAs that act as switches to turn protein
synthesis on or off in response to ____
changes in the environment
which of the following is a function of a plasma membrane protein?
molecular transport through the membrane
cholesterol is used in the cell membrane to:
help make the membrane more stable and less fluid
phospholipids:
are both hydrophilic and hydrophilic in nature
select the most correct statement regarding the glycocalyx
it involves highly specific biological markers on the surface of the cell
which of the following is NOT a function of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum?
protein synthesis in conjunction with ribosomes
which statement is the most correct regarding transcription/translation?
the nucleotide sequence in a tRNA anticodon is an exact copy of the
DNA triplet that coded for it except that uracil is substituted for thymine
which of the following is a concept of the cell theory
A cell os the basic structural and functional unit of living organisms
which of the following is a principle of the fluid mosaic model of
cell membrane structure?
phospholipids form a bilayer that is largely impermeable to
water-soluble molecules
which of the following statements is most correct regarding the
intracellular chemical signals known as "second messengers"?
cyclic AMP and calcium are second messengers
crenation (shrinking) is likely to occur in blood cells immersed in ______
blood cells in a hypertonic solution
some hormones enter cells via:
receptor-mediated endocytosis
if the tRNA had an AGC anticodon, it could attach to a(an) _____ mRNA codon.
UCG
in order to the DNA molecule to get "short and fat" to
become a chromosome, it must first wrap around small molecules called____
histones
other than the nucleus, which organelle has its own DNA?
mitochondria
which of the following is not found in the matrix of cartilage but is
in bone?
blood vessels
which is the following would be of most importance to goblet cells
and other glandular epithelium?
golgi bodies
mammary glands exhibit a glandular type called____
compound alveolar
which statement best describes connectives tissues
usually contains a large amount of matrix
the tissue type that arises from all three embryonic germ layers is:
epithelial tissue
the fiber type that gives connective tissue great tensile strength is:
collagen fiber
inability to absorb digested nutrients and secrete mucus might
indicate a disorder in which tissue?
simple columnar
which of the following is true about epithelia?
endothelium provides a slick surface lining all hollow cardiovascular organs
______ epithelium appears to have two ir three layers of cells, but
all the cells are in contact with the basement membrane
pseudo stratified columnar
multicellular exocrine glands can be classified:
functionally into merocrine, holocene, and apocrine divisions
which is true concerning muscle tissue?
highly cellular and well vascularized
_____ are commonly found wedged between simple columnar epithelial cells
goblet cells
mesenchymal cells are most commonly found in _______ connective tissues
embryonic
_____ tissue forms the framework for the lamina propria of mucous membranes
areolar connective
put the events in proper numbered order according to the sequence of occurrence
1) the skin receives a cut that penetrates into the dermis and
bleeding begins
2) epithelial regeneration is nearly complete
3) granulation tissue is formed
4) blood clotting occurs and stops the blood flow
5) the scar retracts
6) macrophages engulf and cleans away cellular debris
7) fibroblasts elaborate connective tissue fibers to span the break
1-4-3-7-6-5-2
select the most correct statement concerning skin cancer
melanomas are rare but must be removed quickly to prevent them from metastasizing
which of the following statements is true
a) the reason that nail bed appears pink is the presence of a large
number of melanocytes in the underlying dermis
b) the protein found in large amounts in the outermost layer
epidermal cells is collagen
c) regardless of race, all human beings have about the same number
of melanocytes
d) joe just burned himself on a hot pot. a blister forms and the
burn is painful. joe burn would best be described as a third-degress burn
regardless of race, all human beings have about the same number of melanocytes
a needle would pierce the epidermal layers of the forearm in which order?
corner, granulosum, spinosum, basale
which statement correctly explains why hair appears the way it does?
kinky hair has flat, ribbonlike hair shafts
sudoriferous glands vary in distribution over the surface of the
body. which of the following is correct?
ceruminous glands secrete cerumen, which is thought to repel insects
which type of skin cancer appears as a scaly reddened papule and
tends to grow rapidly and metastasize?
squamous cell carcinoma
keratinocytes are the most important of the epidermal cell because:
they produce a fibrous protein that gives the skin its protective properties
despite its apparent durability, the dermis is subject to tearing.
how might a person know that the dermis has been stretched and/or torn?
the appearance of visible, silvery-white scars is an indication of
stretching of the dermis
a dendritic or langerhan cell is a specialized
phagocytic cell
apocrine glands, which begin to function at puberty under hormonal
influence, seem not to be useful in thermoregulation, where would we
find these glands in the human body?
in the axillary and anogenital area
the ____ is a small muscle lacerated in the dermis that causes goose bumps
arrector pili
a summertime golden bronze tan may not be a tan at all; especially if
the skin appears almost metallic bronze, it may be the result of____ disease
addisons disease
______ burns injure the epidermis and the upper regions of the dermis
second degree
yellow bone marrow contains a large percentage of:
fat
in the diagram at left the bone labeled #5 is a
long (exam 2)
a fracture in the shaft of a bone would be a break in the:
diaphysis
the cell responsible for secreting the matrix of bone is the:
osteoblast
which of the following is a bone marking name that indicates a
projection that helps to form joints?
ramus
which of the following statement is false
a) cartilage has a flexible matrix that can accommodate mitosis of chondrocytes
b) closure of the epiphyseal plate stops all bone growth
c) each consecutive bone lamella has collagen fibers that wrap in
alternation directions.
d) the term osteoid refers to the organic part of the matrix of
compact bones
closure of the epiphyseal plate stops all bone growth
bones are covered and lined by a protective tissue called periosteum.
the inner (osteogenic) layer consists primarily of
osteoblasts and osteoclasts
in the diagram at left the area labeled ____ us the area where red
marrow is found
A (exam 2)
the most abundant skeletal carriage type is:
hyaline
the resilience of bone is primarily due to which of the following?
sacrificial bonds in or between collagen molecules
the process of bones increasing in width is known as:
appositional growth
bone are constantly undergoing resorption for various reasons. which
of the following cells accomplishes this process?
osteoclast
vertebrae are considered _____ bones
irregular
the universal loss of mass seen in the skeleton, which begins about
the age of 40
reflects n imbalance in the bone remodeling process
cranial bones develop:
within fibrous membranes
which of the following statement best describes interstitial growth
chondrocytes in the lacunae divide and secrete matrix, allowing the
cartilage to grow from within
in the epiphyseal plate, cartilage grows:
by pushing the epiphysis away from the diaphysis
spongy bones are made up of a framework called:
trabeculae
in some cases the epiphyseal plate of the long bones of children
closes too early. what might be the cause?
elevated levels of sex hormones
it is thought that remodeling or bone growth is in response to the
forces places on it, which of the following hypotheses may explain how
mechanical forces communicate with cells responsible for bone remodeling
electrical signals direct the remodeling process
which fracture would be least likely in a 92 year old?
greenstick
a round or oval hole through a bone that contains blood vessels
and/or nerves is called a _______
foramen
the ethmoid bone is composed of all of the following except the:
inferior nasal concha
only the _____ vertebra does not have a body
atlas
which of the following statements is false?
a) the vertebral column is held in place primarily by the anterior
and posterior longitudinal ligament
b) closure of the epiphyseal plate stops all bone growth
c) in the anatomical position, the lateral forearm bone is the radius
d) body weight is carried primarily by the talus and calcaneus
closure of the epiphyseal plate stops all bone growth
the pituitary gland is housed in the
sella turcica of the sphenoid
the hyoid bone is unique because:
it is the only bone of the body that does not articulate with any
other bone
the major function of the intervertebral discs is to:
absorb stock
thoracic vertebrae differ from the other vertebrae in that they have______
costal facets
which of the following in an abnormal lateral curvature of the
vertebral column often seen in the thoracic region?
scoliosis
which of the following phrases best describes the function of the
vertebral curves?
to provide resilience and flexibility
which part of the vertebral column receives the most stress by
bearing most of the weight of the body?
the lumbar region
thoracic vertebrae T2 through T8 differ from the others in that:
they have superior and inferior demifacets
the short bone that attaches to the third metacarpal is the:
capitate
the bone in direct contact with the first metatarsal (big toe) is the:
medial cuneiform
the skull bone that the foramen magnum passes through is the:
occipital
the superior nasal concha is a part of which bone?
ethmoid
the tibia is in contact with which tarsus?
talus
the heel bone is called the______
calcaneus
the largest foramen in the body is the _____ foramen
obturator foramen
the styloid process of the _______ points to the thumb
radius
only the _______ vertebrae have transverse foramina
cervical
the ______ is the primary bone in the septum of the nose
vomer
an immovable joint found found between skull bones is called a:
suture
articular cartilage found at the ends of the long bone serves to:
provide a smooth surface at the ends of synovial joints
a joint united by dense fibrocartilaginous tissue that permits a
slight degree of movement is a:
symphysis
the gliding motion of the wrist is accomplished because of the _____ joint.
plane
which of the following statement defines synchondroses?
cartilaginous joints where hyaline cartilage unites the ends of bones
menisci refer to:
semilunar cartilage pads
when one is moving a limb away from the median plane of the body
along the frontal plane, it is called:
abduction
the terms inversion and eversion pertain only to:
the feet
the only movement allowed in a pivot joint is:
uniaxial rotation
football players often sustain lateral blows to the extended knee.
which of the ligaments is/are damaged as a result?
medial collateral, medial meniscus, and anterior cruciate
gouty artritis is a painful condition caused by:
excessive blood levels of uric acid deposited as crystals in the soft
tissue joints
which of the following is a true statement?
a) the rotator cuff is responsible for the flexible extensions at
the elbow joint
b) the head of the humerus articulates with the acromion process
c) the greater tubercle of the humerus articulates at the coracoid
process of the scapula
d) the annular ligament surrounds the head of the radius
the annular ligament surrounds the head of the radius
multiaxial joints of the body include:
the hip and shoulder
tendon sheaths:
act as friction-reducing structures
moving your jaw forward, causing an underbite is called _____
protraction
a synchondrosis joint is a _____ structural class of joint
cartilaginous
the joint between the carpal and the first metacarpal is called a
______ joint
saddle
in the diagram at left which of the labeled structures is a Z disc
A (exam 3)
what is the role of tropomyosin in skeletal muscles?
tropomyosin serves as a contraction inhibitor by blocking the myosin
binding sites on the actin molecules
fatigued muscles cells that recover rapidly are the products of:
intense exercise of short duration
myoglobin:
holds a reserve supply of oxygen in muscle cells
an elaborate network of membranes in skeletal muscle cells that
functions in calcium storage is the:
sarcoplasmic reticulum
creatine phosphate functions in the muscle cell by:
storying energy that will be transferred to ADP to resynthesize ATP
as needed
the striations of a skeletal muscle cell are produced, for the most
part by:
the arrangement of myofilaments
during muscle contraction, myosin cross bridges attach to which
active sites?
actin filament
smooth muscles that act like skeletal muscles but are controlled by
autonomic nerves and hormones are _____
multiunit muscles
rigor mortis occurs because:
ATP is required to release the attached actin and myosin molecules
which of the choices below does not describe how excess post exercise
oxygen consumption (oxygen deficit) restores metabolic conditions?
increases the level of lactic acid in the muscle
the site of calcium regulation in the smooth muscle cell is:
calmodulin
the main effect of the warm-up period of athletes, as the muscle
contractions increase in strength, is to:
enhance the availability of calcium and the efficiency of enzyme systems
during vigorous exercise, there may be insufficient oxygen available
to completely break down pyretic acid for energy. as a result, the
pyretic acid is converted to_____
lactic acid
which of the following is true about smooth muscle contraction?
certain smooth cells can actually divide to increase their numbers
smooth muscle is characterized by all of the following except:
there are more thick filaments than thin filaments
the sliding filament model of contraction involves:
acting and myosin sliding past each other and partially overlapping
after nervous stimulation stops, what prevents ACh in the synaptic
cleft from continuing to stimulate contractions?
acetylcholinesterase destroying the ACh
which of the following is most accurate?
muscle tension remains relatively constant during isotonic contraction
theoretically, if a muscle were stretched to the point where thick
and thin filaments no longer overlapped:
no muscle tension could be generated
an individual has just ingested a chemical that binds irreversibly to
the ACH receptors in the sarcolemma. by itself it does not alter
membrane potential, yet prevents normal neurotransmitter binding.
ignoring the effect on any other system, the consequence to skeletal
muscle would be:
no contraction at all by nervous mechanisms, but contraction if
stimulated by an external electrode
which of the following provides the most energy during one-minute
sustained muscle contraction?
anaerobic glycolysis
what are caveolae
deep invaginations in the sarcolemma of smooth muscle
in the diagram at left which of the labeled muscles is the trapezius
b (exam 3)
scissors demonstrate which type of lever?
a first class lever
what is the main factor that determines the power of a muscle?
the total number of muscle cells available for contraction
when the term biceps, triceps, or quadriceps forms part of a muscles
name, you can assume that:
the muscle has two, three, or four origins respectively
the suprahypoid muscle:
are a group of muscles that lie superior to the hyoid bone and help
form the floor of the oral cavity
the extensor carpi radials brevis:
extends and abducts the wrist and is short
which of the following muscles insert by the calcanea tendon?
the gastrocnemius
if a lever operates at a mechanical disadvantage, it mean that the:
load is far from the fulcrum and the effort is applied near the fulcrum
a muscle group that works with and assists the action of a prime
movers is a(n):
synergist
the most powerful muscle in the body is the _____
quadriceps femori
a nursing infant develops a powerful sucking muscle that adults also
use for whistling called the:
buccinator
spasms of this straplike muscle often result in wryneck or torticollis
sternocleidomastoid
in a pennate muscle pattern
muscles look like a feather
which muscle(s) is (are) contracted to exhale forcibly?
internal intercostals and rectus abdominal
what do geniohyoid, hyoglossus, and stylohyoid have in common?
all act on the tongue
if F=load, F= fulcrum, and E= effort, what type of lever system is
described as LEF?
third class lever
which of the following muscles is involved in abduction?
deltoid
which of the following muscles serves as a common intramuscular
injection site, particularly in infants?
the vastus lateralis
the ____ is known as the boxer muscle
serratus anterior
_____ fibers run at right angles to the axis of the muscle
transversus
______ extends the great toe
extensor hallicus longus
a wide receiver for the dallas cowboy pulled a hamstring muscle, what
would the effect be?
would not be able to extend his thigh while running
how can a lever system work at a disadvantage but still be of use to us?
it can move the load over large distance at a rapid rate
what does the central nervous system use to determine the strength of
a stimulus?
frequency of actions potentials
an excitatory neurotransmitter secreted by motor neurons innervating
skeletal muscle is:
acetylcholine
the role of acetylcholinesterase is to
destroy Each a brief period after its release by the axonal endings
saltatory conduction is made possible by:
the myelin sheath
immediately after an action potential has peaked, which cellular
gates opens
potassium
select the correct statement about synapses
the synaptic cleft prevents an impulse from being transmitted
directly from one neuron to another
which of the following will occur when an excitatory postsynaptic
potential (EPSP) is being generated on the dendritic membrane
a single type of channel will open, permitting simultaneous flow of
sodium and potassium
which of the following is true about the movement of ions across
excitable living membranes?
sodium gates in the membrane can open in response to electrical
potential changes
a second nerve impulse cannot be generated until:
all sodium gates are closed
if a motor neuron in the body were stimulated by n electrode placed
about midpoint along the length of the axon:
the impulse would spread bidirectionally
______ law is the relationship between voltage, current, and resistance
ohms
______ potential are short-lived, local changes in membrane potential
that can be either depolarizer or hyperpolarized
graded
when one or more presynaptic neurons fore in rapid order it produces
a much greater depolarization of the postsynaptic membrane than would
result from a single EPSP; this event is called________ summation
temporal
what function is served by the increased axonal diameter at the nodes
of Ranvier?
increased speed of impulse conduction
a neuronal circuit that concentrates or directs a large number of
incoming impulses to a rather small number of neurons is called a(n):
converging circuit
collections of nerve cell bodies outside the central nervous system
are called:
ganglia
the sympathetic and parasympathetic are subdivisions of the:
autonomic nervous system
ependymal cells:
help to circulate the cerebrospinal fluid
____ is an indolamine
serotonin
_______ are found in the CNS and act as the glue that binds axons and
blood vessels to each other.
astrocytes
_______ is a neurotransmitter of the CNS that is used by Purkinje
cells of the CNS
GABA
the suprachiasmatic nucleus is found in the:
hypothalamus
nuclei of cranial nerves V,VI, and VII are found in the:
pons
spinocerebellar tracts:
carry proprioceptive inputs to the cerebellum
the viral centers for the control of heart rates, respiration, and
blood pressure are located in the:
medulla
cell bodies of the sensory neurons of the spinal nerves are located in:
the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal cord
the rough, thick, leathery meningeal layer is the:
dura mater
the cerebrospinal fluid:
is formed mostly by the choroid plexuses
neural tracts that convey life-saving information to the brain
concerning burning pain would be
lateral spinothalamic
an individual accidentally transected the spinal cord between T1 and
L1. this would result in:
paraplegia
an individual who could trace a picture of a bicycle with his or her
finger but could not recognize it as a bicycle is most likely to have
sustained damage to the:
visual association area
brocas area:
is considered a motor speech area
the function of commissures is to connect:
corresponding areas of the two hemispheres
REM sleep is associated with:
temporary skeletal muscle paralysis, except for the extrinsic eye muscle
the corpus striatum plays a special role in:
skill learning
storing information in long-term memory
is facilitated by the release of norepinephrine
important nuclei of the indirect (multi neural) system that receive
impulses from the equilibrium apparatus of the inner ear and help to
maintain balance by varying muscle tone of postural muscles are the:
vestibular nuclei
white matter (myelinated fibers) is found in all of the following
locations, with the exception of the:
cerebral cortex
the _______ includes the thalamus, hypothalamus, and the epithalamus
diencephalon
receptors for hearing are located in the:
cochlea
farsightedness is more properly called:
hyperopia
the oval window is connected directly to which passageway?
scala gestibili
the options found in cone cells are called:
rhodopsins
which of the following is true about gustatory receptors?
complete adaptation occurs in about one to five minutes
photoreceptors:
package visual pigment in membrane-bound discs, which increases the
efficiency of light trapping
a reflex that causes muscle relaxation and lengthening in response to
muscle tension is called a _______:
tendon reflex
dark adaptation:
involves accumulation of rhodopsin
visual inputs to the _____ serve to synchronize biorhythms with
natural light and dark
suprachiasmatic nucleus
as sound levels increase in the spiral organ (of Corti):
outer hair cells stiffen the basilar membrane
the blind spot of the eye is:
where the optic nerve leaves the eye
the cell of the retina in which action potentials are generated are the:
ganglion cells
an essential part of the macula involved in static equilibrium is
(are) the:
otoliths
select the correct statement about equilibrium:
cristae respond to angular acceleration
bitter taste is elicited by____
alkaloids
which receptors adapt most slowly?
nociceptors
problems in balance may follow trauma to which nerve?
vestibulocochlear
feeling a gentle caress on your arm would likely involve all of the
following except:
pacinian corpuscles
the parasympathetic nervous system is characterized by peripheral
ganglia near the:
organs and by short postganglionic fibers
a drug that might be used specifically to reduce heart rate in
cardiac patients could be:
a beta-blocker
where would you not fine a cholinergeric nicotinic receptors?
all parasympathetic target organs
erection of the penis or clitoris
is primarily under parasympathetic
raynaud disease:
is characterized by exaggerated vasoconstriction in the extremities
sympathetic fibers leave the spinal cord in the:
thoracolumbar region, and the postganglionic fibers secrete norepinephrine
the route of major parasympathetic outflow from the head is the:
vagus nerve
which of the following hormones suppresses appetite and increase
energy expenditure?
leptin
the ability of a specific tissue or organ to respond to respond to
the presence of a hormone is dependent on ____.
the presence of the appropriate receptors on the cells of the target
tissue or organ
the neurohypophysis or posterior lobe of the pituitary gland is not a
true endocrine gland because _______.
it is only a hormone storage area that receives hormones from the
hypoythalamus for release
steroid hormones exert their actions by_____.
entering the nucleus of cell and initiating or altering the
expression of a gene
the second-massager mechanism of hormone actions operates by______.
binding to specific receptors and employing the service of G proteins
and cAMP
thyroid hormone (a small iodinated amine) enter target cells in a
manner similar to_______
steroid hormones, because both diffuse easily into target cells
one of the least complicated of the endocrine controls systems
directly responds to changing blood levels of ions and nutrients.
which of the following describes this mechanism?
humoral stimulation
ACTH______
secretion is regulated by a hypothalamic regulatory hormone
a man has been told that he is not synthesizing enough
follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), and for this reason he may be
unable to father a child.choose the correct statement to explain this problem
FSH stimulates sperm production in the testes.
how do glucocorticoids enable the body to deal appropriately with stress?
by increasing blood glucose, fatty acid, and amino acid level and
enhancing blood pressure