A&P Festival 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6 Flashcards

When we take anti-histamines, we are countering the effects of which
type of leukocyte?
A) Basophils
B) Eosinophils
C) Neutrophils
D)lymphocytes

A) Basophils

Which of the following glands is found atop the kidneys?
A) adrenal
B) pituitary
C) parathyroid
D) thyroid

A) adrenal
The paired adrenal glands are pyramid-shaped organs perched atop
the kidneys, where they are enclosed in a fibrous capsule and a
cushion of fat.

What ion is sometimes used as a second messenger of amino acid´┐Żbased hormones?
A) iron
B) calcium
C) chlorine
D) sodium

B) Calcium

How many oxygen molecules can be transported by one hemoglobin molecule?
A) two
B) eight
C) four

C) four

Hormones are long-distance chemical signals that travel in blood or
lymph throughout the body.

TRUE

Positive chemotaxis is a feedback system that signals leukocyte
migration into damaged areas.

TRUE

The majority of whole blood is __________.
A) erythrocytes
B) platelets
C) plasma
D) leukocytes

C) plasma

Where are oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone (ADH) made? Select from
letters A-D.
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D

A

Where is thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) made? Select from
letters A-D.
A
B
C
D

A

What hormone released into the blood (shown by letter D) by the
posterior pituitary inhibits or prevents urine formation?
A) oxytocin
B) thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
C) cortisol
D) ADH

D) ADH

The endocrine gland that is probably malfunctioning if a person has a
high metabolic rate is the parathyroid.

FALSE

The __________ is the fluid portion of the blood.
A) plasma
B)hematocrit
C) buffy coat
D) hemoglobin

A) plasma
Plasma is the fluid portion of blood

Which of the following hormones helps the body avoid dehydration and
water overload?
A) oxytocin
B) Antidiuretic hormone
C) thyroid-stimulating hormone
D) follicle-stimulating hormone

B) antidiuretic hormone
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) prevents wide swings in water
balance, helping the body avoid dehydration and water overload.

Bilirubin is cleared from the body by __________.
A) the kidneys
B) the pancreas
C) the spleen
D) the liver

D) the liver
As RBCs are broken down, their hemoglobin is recycled. Bilirubin
is a yellow pigment that results from the degradation of the heme
groups and is released to the blood. The liver cells pick up the
bilirubin and secrete it in bile. Once bile is secreted into the
intestine, the bilirubin is converted to urobilinogen and is excreted
with the feces.

Which of the following is not a change typically produced by
a hormonal stimulus?
A) activates or deactivates enzymes
B) induces secretory activity
C) alters plasma membrane permeability
D) stimulates production of an action potential

D) stimulates production of an action potential

What is hematocrit a measure of?
A) hematocrit is the percentage of leukocytes and platelets
in a whole blood sample.
B) hematocrit is the percentage of formed elements in a
whole blood sample.
C) Hematocrit is the percentage of plasma in a whole blood sample.
D) Hematocrit is the percentage of erythrocytes in a whole
blood sample.

D) Hematocrit is the percentage of erythrocytes in a whole blood sample.

Where are the hormones oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
stored? Select from letters A-D.
A
B
C
D

C

Which letter represents the adrenal glands? Select from letters A-D.
A
B
C
D

C

Which of the following is NOT an endocrine gland?
A) thyroid
B) adenoid
C) pituitary
D) adrenal

B) adenoid
Pharyngeal tonsils, when enlarged, are commonly called adenoids
and are lymphoid tissue, not endocrine glands.

Which of the following is true about blood plasma?
A) It contains about 20 dissolved components.
B) The main protein component is hemoglobin.
C) It is the same as serum but without the clotting proteins.
D) It is about 90% water.

D) It is about 90% water.

What is the name of the protein found in erythrocytes that allows for
respiratory gas transport?
A) hemoglobin
B) albumin
C) antibodies
D) fibrinogen

A) hemoglobin

Growth hormone solely exerts its influence by targeting other
endocrine glands to produce hormones.

FALSE

The ability of a specific tissue or organ to respond to the presence
of a hormone is dependent on ________.
a) the presence of the appropriate receptors on the cells of
the target tissue or organ
b) the location of the tissue or organ with respect to the
circulatory path
C) nothing- all hormones of the human body are able to
stimulate any and all cell types because hormones are powerful and nonspecific
D) the membrane potential of the cells of the target organ

A) the presence of the appropriate receptors on the cells of the
target tissue or organ

What do the lymphoid stem cells give rise to?
A) granulocytes
B)erythrocytes
C) lymphocytes
D) monocytes

C) lymphocytes

In a centrifuged sample of blood, what makes up the buffy coat?
A) plasma
B) white blood cells and platelets
C) red blood cells
D) platelets only

B) White blood cells and platelets
The buffy coat (the creamy white zone between the yellowish
plasma and the red erythrocytes) consists of white blood cells and
platelets. It constitutes less than 1% of whole blood.

Oxytocin is a strong stimulant of uterine contractions.

TRUE

Iodine is an essential element required for the synthesis of thyroxine.

TRUE

Each hemoglobin molecule can transport two molecules of oxygen.

FALSE

Specifically, what is the production of red blood cells called?
A) erythropoiesis
B) leukopoiesis
C) hemostasis
D) thalassemia

A) erythropoiesis

Oxytocin and ADH are produced in the posterior pituitary.

FALSE

The first step in hemostasis is __________.
A) platelet plug formation
B) fibrin production
C) coagulation
D) vascular spasm

D) vascular spasm
The first step of hemostasis is vascular spasm. In this step,
the damaged vessel constricts to limit blood loss.

Platelets ________.
A) have a life span of about 120 days
B) have multiple nuclei
C) are the precursors of leukocytes
D) stick to the damaged area of a blood vessel and help seal
the break

D) stick to the damaged area of a blood vessel and help seal the break

Oxytocin ________.
A) is an adenohypophyseal secretion
B) release is an example of a positive feedback control mechanism
C) controls milk production
D) exerts its most important effects during menstruation

B) release is an example of a positive feedback control mechanism

Which of the following occurs in situations where more than one
hormone produces the same effects at the target cell and their
combined effects are amplified?
A) antagonism
B) permissiveness
C) synergism
D) summation

C) synergism
Synergism of hormones occurs in situations where one or more
hormones produce the same effect at the target cell and their combined
effects are amplified.

ACTH stimulates the adrenal cortex to release corticosteroid hormones.

TRUE

Which plasma constituent is the main contributor to osmotic pressure?
A) beta globulins
B) fibrinogen
C) albumin
D) alpha globulins

C) albumin
Albumin, produced by the liver, makes up 60% of plasma
proteins and is the main contributor to osmotic pressure.

What is the average normal pH range of blood?
A) 8.35-8.45
B) 7.75-7.85
C) 7.35-7.45
D) 4.65-4.75

C) 7.35-7.45

Which of the following hormones mainly serves to stimulate milk
production by the breasts?
A) prolactin
B) thyroid-stimulating hormone
C) adrenocorticotropic hormone
D) follicle-stimulating hormone

A) prolactin
Prolactin (PL) stimulates the mammary glands of the breasts
to produce milk.

Which of the following is not a type of hormone interaction?
A) antagonism
B) permissiveness
C) feedback
D) synergism

C) feedback

When a person has an acute bacterial infection, such as meningitis or
appendicitis, which type of leukocyte increases in number?
A) eosinophils
B) basophils
C) lymphocytes
D) neutrophils

D) neutrophils

Hypersecretion of what hormone can produce the effects of gigantism
(individual in the center of this image)?
A) thyroid hormones (TH)
B) growth hormone (GH)
C) thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
D) aldosterone

B) growth hormone (GH)

LH is also referred to as a gonadotropin.

FALSE

The stimuli causing endocrine glands to secrete their hormones in
direct response to changing blood levels of certain critical ions and
nutrients are called __________.
A) hormonal stimuli
B) endocrinal stimuli
C) neural stimuli
D) humoral stimuli

D) humoral stimuli
Some endocrine glands secrete their hormones in direct response
to changing blood levels of certain critical ions and nutrients.
These stimuli are called humoral stimuli to distinguish them from
hormonal stimuli, which are also bloodborne chemicals.

In circumstances where the body requires prolonged or increased
levels of a hormone, the DNA of target cells will specify the
synthesis of more receptors on the surface of the cells of the target
organ. This is known as ________.
A) up-regulation
B) sensitivity increase
C) cellular affinity
D) a stressor reaction

A) up-regulation

Which leukocyte functions in phagocytizing bacteria?
A) neutrophil
B) lymphocyte
C) eosinophil
D) basophil

A) neutrophil
Neutrophils phagocytize bacteria.

Direct gene activation involves a second-messenger system.

FALSE

The most abundant leukocytes are __________.
A) lymphocytes
B) basophils
C) neutrophils
D) monocytes

C) neutrophils
Neutrophils are the most numerous of the circulating leukocytes
at 50-70%.

Which of the following is a hormone produced by the posterior pituitary?
A) oxytocin
B) ADH
C) HGH
D) none of these

E) none of these
None of the hormones given is produced by the posterior pituitary.

Which of the following is characteristic of all leukocytes?
A) they have cytoplasmic granules.
B) They are nucleated.
C) They are the most numerous of the formed elements in blood.
D) They are phagocytic.

B) They are nucleated

One of the least complicated of the endocrine control systems
directly responds to changing blood levels of ions and nutrients.
Which of the following describes this mechanism?
A) humoral stimulation
B) protein synthesis
C) carbohydrate oxidation
D) catabolic inhibition

A) humoral stimulation

The term for pain associated with deficient blood delivery to the
heart that may be caused by the transient spasm of coronary arteries
is ________.
A) ischemia
B) myocardial infarct
C) angina pectoris
D) pericarditis

C) angina pectoris

The P wave of a normal electrocardiogram indicates ________.
A) atrial repolarization
B) ventricular depolarization
C) atrial depolarization
D) ventricular repolarization

C) atrial depolarization

What causes normal heart sounds?
A) opening of heart valves
B) pressure of blood in the ventricles
C) cardiac muscle contraction
D) heart valve closure

D) heart valve closure
Heart sounds are caused by heart valve closure.

The role of the coronary arteries is to ___________.
A) direct blood to the aorta
B) direct blood to the pulmonary veins
C) move blood from the atria to the ventricles
D) supply blood to the heart tissue

D) supply blood to the heart tissue
The coronary arteries, as a part of the coronary circulatory
route, supply blood to the heart tissue.

If cardiac muscle is deprived of its normal blood supply, damage
would primarily result from ________.
A) an inadequate supply of lactic acid
B) a decrease in the number of available mitochondria for
energy production
C) decreased delivery of oxygen
D) a lack of nutrients to feed into metabolic pathways

C) decreased delivery of oxygen

The left ventricular wall of the heart is thicker than the right wall
in order to ______.
A) accommodate a greater volume of blood
B) pump blood with greater pressure
C) expand the thoracic cage during diastole
D) pump blood through a smaller valve

B) pump blood with greater pressure

The heart's pacemaker is the __________.
A) atrioventricular node
B) sinoatrial node
C) atrioventricular bundle
D) Purkinje fibers

B)sinoatrial node
The sinoatrial node (SA node), which is in the right atrial
wall, is the heart's pacemaker. The autorhythmic cells of this node
generate the sinus rhythm that determines heart rate.

Select the correct statement about the heart valves.
A) The mitral valve separates the right atrium from the right ventricle
B) Aortic and pulmonary valve control the flow of blood into
the heart.
C) The AV valves are supported by chordae tendineae so that
regurgitation of blood into the atria during ventricular contraction
does not occur.
D) The tricuspid valve divides the left atrium from the left vetricle.

C) The AV valves are supported by chordae tendineae so that
regurgitation of blood into the atria during ventricular contraction
does not occur.

The layers of the hear wall from superficial to deep are: _______.
A) epicardium, endocardium, and myocardium
B) myocardium, endocardium, and epicardium
C) endocardium, muocardium, and epicardium
D) epicardium, myocardium, and endocardium

D) epicardium, myocardium, and endocardium
The epicardium is the superficial layer of the heart wall with
myocardium between the epicardium and the deepest layer of the heart
wall, the endocardium.

Which of the following would increase heart rate?
A) parasympathetic stimulation
B) cold temperature
C) epinephrine
D) low metabolic rate

C) epinephrine
Sympathetic stimulation (i.e., exercise) can lead to the
release of epinephrine and norepinephrine, both of which increase
heart rate.

Which portion of the electrocardiogram represents the depolarization
wave received from the sinoatrial (SA) node through the atria?
A) S-T segment
B) P wave
C) QRS complex
D) T wave

B) P wave

Anastomoses among coronary arterial branches provide collateral
routes for blood delivery to the heart muscle.

TRUE

At what rate does the sinoatrial (SA) node ensure depolarization in
the heart?
A) 50 beats of the heart per minute
B) 30 beats of the heart per minute
C) 75 beats of the heart per minute
D) 40 beats of the heart per minute

C) 75 beats of the heart per minute

The left side of the heart is considered the systemic circuit pump.

TRUE

Consider the following characteristics of the cells found in muscle
tissue. Which feature is shared by both cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle?
A) triads
B) striations
C) branched cells
D) intercalated discs

B) striations

The QRS complex represents __________.
A) ventricular repolarization
B) atrial depolarization
C) ventricular depolarization
D) atrial repolarization

C) ventricular depolarization
The QRS complex shows ventricular depolarization.

Specifically, what part of the intrinsic conduction system stimulates
the atrioventricular (AV) node to conduct impulses to the
atrioventricular bundle?
A) interventricular septum
B) subendocardial conducting network (Purkinje fibers)
C) bundle branches
D) sinoatrial (SA) node

D) sinoatrial (SA) node

Which of the following structures sets the pace of heart contraction?
A) atrioventricular bundle
B) SA node
C) AV node
D) bundle branches

B) SA node
The SA node sets the pace or rate of heart contraction.

Auricles slightly increase blood volume in the ventricles.

FALSE

Which heart chamber sends deoxygenated blood to the lungs?
A) left ventricle
B) right atrium
C) left atrium
D) right ventricle

D) right ventricle
The right ventricle sends the deoxygenated blood to the lungs
via the pulmonary trunk.

Into what vessel does the left ventricle eject blood?
A) superior vena cava
B) aorta
C) pulmonary trunk
D) pulmonary veins

B) aorta

Which of the following is the outermost covering of the heart?
A) epicardium
B) parietal layer
C) visceral layer
D) fibrous pericardium

D) fibrous peridcardium

Into which chamber do the pulmonary veins send blood?
A) left ventricle
B) left atrium
C) right ventricle
D) right atrium

B) left atrium

Which chamber of the heart has the highest probability of being the
site of a myocardial infarction?
A) left atrium
B) right atrium
C) left ventricle
D) right ventricle

C) left ventricle
The left ventricle has to pump blood around the entire body and
overcome the largest pressures (120/80 mm Hg). This is the largest
chamber in the heart and has the most muscle around it compared to the
other chambers.

__________ is the pressure that propels blood to the tissues.
A) Diastolic pressure
B) Mean arterial pressure
C) Pulse pressure
D) Systolic pressure

B) Mean arterial pressure
The mean arterial pressure (MAP) is the pressure that propels
blood to the tissues when aortic pressure fluctuates. Diastolic
pressure plus one-third of the pulse pressure is the formula used to
determine MAP.

The thick-walled arteries close to the heart are called muscular arteries.

FALSE

What blood vessel experiences the steepest drop in blood pressure?
A) capillaries
B) arterioles
C) arteries
D) venules

B) arterioles

An increase in blood viscosity will cause an increase in peripheral resistance.

TRUE

Which of the following is a long-term mechanism for maintaining blood pressure?
A) hormonal control of peripheral resistance
B) baroceptor-initiated reflexes
C) renal regulation
D) chemoreceptor-initiated reflexes

C) renal regulation
Renal mechanisms mediate the long-term control of blood
pressure by counteracting fluctuations in blood pressure by altering
blood volume. For example, if blood pressure is too low, more water
will be reabsorbed to the blood from the kidney, thus increasing
blood volume and blood pressure.

Factors that aid venous return include all except ________.
A) activity of skeletal muscles
B) pressure changes in the thorax
C) venous valves
D) urinary outpuut

D) urinary output

What is the outermost layer of the blood vessel wall for an artery or vein?
A) subendothelial layer
B) tunica media
C) tunica intima
D) tunica externa

D) tunica externa

The aorta is an example of a(n) __________.
A) muscular artery
B) vein
C) arteriole
D) elastic artery

D) elastic artery
Elastic arteries are thick-walled arteries near the heart.
These arteries are the largest in diameter. Elastic arteries act as
pressure reservoirs; they expand and contract as blood is ejected
from the heart.

What type of tissue is found in the walls of the arteries but not in
the walls of capillaries and venules?
A) collagen fibers
B) smooth muscle
C) endothelium
D) elastic tissue

D) elastic tissue
The arteries contain elastic tissue because they receive blood
under great pressure. They are pressure reservoirs, expanding and
recoiling as blood is ejected from the heart. Capillaries are very
thin, consisting of just a tunica intima, functioning as sites of gas
and nutrient exchange between the blood and tissues. Large venules
have one or two layers of smooth muscle cells (a scanty tunica media)
and a thin tunica externa. Veins have all three tunics, but their
walls are always thinner and their lumens larger than those of
corresponding arteries.

Which statement best describes arteries?
A) Only large arteries are lined with endothelium
B) All carry oxygenated blood to the heart.
C) All contain valves to prevent the blackflow of blood.
D) All carry blood away from the heart.

D) All carry blood away from the heart.

What type of vessel has relatively more smooth muscle and less
elastic tissue?
A) muscular artery
B) arteriole
C) capillary
D) elastic artery

A) muscular artery

The arteries that directly feed into the capillary beds are called ________.
A) muscular arteries
B) arterioles
C) venules
D) elastic arteries

B) arterioles

Which of the following is NOT an important source of resistance to
blood flow?
A) vessel length
B) blood viscosity
C) total blood volume
D) vessel diameter

C) total blood volume
Total blood volume is not an important source of resistance to
blood flow. However, blood volume does have a direct effect on blood pressure.

Which of the following will lower blood pressure?
A) aldosterone
B) angiotensin II
C) atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
D) antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

C) ANP
Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) is a hormone released by the
heart. It stimulates the kidney to excrete more sodium and water,
which decreases total blood volume, leading to a reduction in blood pressure.

A precapillary sphincter is a cuff of smooth muscle that regulates
the flow of blood into the capillaries.

TRUE

How would an attack by a mugger affect blood pressure? What is the
physiological basis for your answer?
A) Blood pressure would decrease due to parasympathetic nervous
system stimulation.
B) Blood pressure would increase due to sympathetic nervous
system stimulation.
C) Blood pressure would decrease due to sympathetic nervous
system stimulation.
D) Blood pressure would increase due to parasympathetic nervous
system stimulation.
E) Blood pressure would increase due to vagal nerve stimulation.

B) Blood pressure would increase due to sympathetic nervous system stimulation.

The pulse pressure is ________.
A) systolic pressure divided by diastolic pressure
B) systolic pressure plus diastolic pressure
C) diastolic pressure plus 1/3 (systolic pressure plus diastolic pressure)
D) systolic pressure minus diastolic pressure

D) systolic pressure minus diastolic pressure

The inferior vena cava carries blood __________ the __________ of the heart.
A) to: left atrium
B) to: right atrium
C) away from; left atrium
D) away from; right atrium

B) to; right atrium
The inferior vena cava, a vein, returns blood to the right
atrium of the heart.

Which tunic of an artery is most responsible for maintaining blood
pressure and continuous blood circulation?
A) tunica media
B) tunica externa
C) tunica adventitia
D) tunica intima

A) tunica media

Which of the following is involved in long-term blood pressure regulation?
A) chemoreceptor reflexes
B) renal mechanisms
C) baroreceptors
D) higher brain center

B) renal mechanisms
Long-term control of blood pressure is achieved through direct
and indirect renal (kidney) control mechanisms.

What type of vessel has relatively little smooth muscle or elastin in
the tunica media, a large lumen (average of 5.0 mm in diameter), and
thin walls (average of 0.5 mm)?
A) venule
B) vein
C) arteriole
D) muscular artery

B) vein

What layer can change blood vessel diameter by vasodilation and vasoconstriction?
A) tunica intima
B) vasa vasorum
C) tunica media
D) tunica externa

C) tunica media

Which of the choices below explains why the arterioles are known as
resistance vessels?
A) They distribute blood to various parts of the body.
B) They contain a large quantity of elastic tissue.
C) The contraction and relaxation of the smooth muscle in their
walls can change their diameter.
D) Their prime function is the exchange of nutrients and wastes
between the blood and tissue cells.

C) The contraction and relaxation of the smooth muscle in their walls
can change their diameter.

Which of the following would experience a decreased blood flow during exercise?
A) skeletal muscles
B) brain
C) kidneys
D) skin

C) kidneys
The kidneys and the GI tract (i.e. the stomach and intestines)
would have a decreased blood flow during exercise.

Permitting the exchange of nutrients and gases between the blood and
tissue cells is the primary function of ________.
A)veins
B) arteries
C) capillaries
D) arterioles

C) capillaries

Lymphatic vessels ____________.
A) return tissue fluid to the bloodstream
B) deliver oxygen to tissues
C) collect blood from tissues
D) supply nutrients to tissues

A) return tissue fluid to the bloodstream
Lymphatic vessels have a role in transporting tissue fluid,
leaked proteins, and absorbed fats to the blood. They do not deliver
nutrients nor gases to the tissues; that is the role of blood
vessels.Nutrients are provided to the tissues by the circulatory
system, not the lymphatic system.

Select the correct statement about lymphocytes.
A) B cells produce plasma cells, which secrete antibodies into
the blood.
B) T cells are the only form of lymphocyte found in lymphoid tissue.
C) T cells are the precursors of B cells.
D) The two main types are T cells and macrophages.

A) B cells produce plasma cells, which secrete antibodies into the blood.

About 3 liters of fluid are lost to the tissue spaces every 24 hours
and are returned to the bloodstream as lymph.

TRUE

What is the main function of the lymphatic system?
A) The lymphatic system makes blood cells through a process
known as hematopoiesis.
B) The lymphatic system returns leaked fluid and plasma proteins
that escape from the bloodstream to the blood.
C) The lymphatic system pumps and transports blood throughout
the body.
D) The lymphatic system regulates blood pressure through the
renin-angiotensin-aldosterone mechanism.

B) The lymphatic system returns leaked fluid and plasma proteins that
escape from the bloodstream to the blood.

Once collected, lymph is returned to __________.
A) the kidneys for filtration
B) arterial circulation
C) the liver for detoxification
D) venous circulation

D) venous circulation
From the terminal lymphatic ducts, lymph rejoins venous
circulation via the subclavian veins.

Lymph is most similar to __________.
A) interstitial fluid
B) water
C) blood plasma
D) saliva

A) interstitial fluid
Interstitial fluid and lymph are the same in composition.
Interstitial fluid is renamed lymph as soon as it enters a lymphatic vessel.

The lymphatic capillaries function to absorb the excess
protein-containing interstitial fluid and return it to the bloodstream.

TRUE

Which of the following lymphoid cells secrete antibodies?
A) plasma cells
B) dendritic cells
C) macrophages
D) T lymphocytes

A) plasma cells
Plasma cells are daughter cells of B lymphocytes that are
produced in response to an antigen that provokes an immune response.
Plasma cells produce antibodies to specific antigens.

Lymphatic collecting vessels are most closely associated with __________.
A) bone marrow
B) the heart
C) arterioles
D) capillary beds

D) capillary beds
Lymphatic collecting vessels are most closely associated with
capillary beds. The lymphatic collecting vessels direct lymph to the
lymph nodes.

What type of tissue is commonly found in all lymphoid organs and
tissues (except the thymus)?
A) areolar connective tissue
B) elastic cartilage connective tissue
C) elastic connective tissue
D) reticular connective tissue

D) reticular connective tissue

Which of the following is not a part of the lymphatic system?
A) lymph
B) erythrocytes
C) lymph nodes
D) lymphatic vessels

B) erythrocytes

Which of the following is not a function of the lymphatic system?
A) draining excess interstitial fluid
B) transporting respiratory gases
C) carrying out immune responses
D) transporting dietary fats

B) transporting respiratory gases

Select the correct statement about lymph transport
A) Lymph transport is only necessary when illness causes tissue swelling.
B) Lymph transport depends on the movement of adjacent tissues,
such as skeletal muscles.
C) Under normal conditions, lymph vessels are very high-pressure conduits.
D) Lymph transport is faster than that occurring in veins.

B) Lymph transport depends on the movement of adjacent tissues, such
as skeletal muscles.

The __________ is (are) the most likely to become infected.
A) palatine tonsils
B) lingual tonsil
C) tubal tonsil
D) pharyngeal tonsil

A) palatine tonsils
The main role of the tonsils is to gather and remove pathogens
entering through the pharynx. Of the various tonsil types, the
palatine tonsils, are the ones that typically become infected.

The filtration of lymph and immune system activation are the two
basic functions of the __________.
A) tonsils
B) spleen
C) lymph nodes
D) Peyer's patches

C) lymph nodes

Lymph capillary permeability is due to minivalves and protein filaments.

TRUE

When the lymphatic structures of a limb are blocked due to tumors,
the result is ________.
A) shrinkage of tissues distal in the limb to the blockage due
to inadequate delivery of lymph
B) abnormally high lymph drainage from the distal region
C) increased pressure in the lymphatics proximal in the limb to
the blockage
D) severe localized edema distal to the blockage of that limb

D) severe localized edema distal to the blockage of that limb.

What is the role of the B lymphocytes (B cells) in lymphoid tissue?
A) phagocytize foreign substances
B) produce plasma cells that secrete antibodies
C) manage the immune response
D) capture antigens and bring them back to the lymph nodes

B) produce plasma cells that secrete antibodies

Which of the following is NOT a lymphoid tissue/organ?
A) tonsils
B) Peyer's patches
C) bone marrow
D) spleen

C) bone marrow
Bone marrow is not lymphoid tissue. Yellow marrow is fat forming
tissue and red marrow contains blood forming tissue.

Chyle is delivered to the blood via the lymphatic system.

TRUE

Peyer's patches are located __________.
A) in the spleen
B) in the wall of the small intestine
C) in the wall of the colon
D) in the liver

B) in the wall of the small intestine
Peyer's patches, or aggregated lymphoid nodules, are located in
the wall of the distal portion of the small intestine

Large clusters of lymph nodes occur in all of the following locations
except the ________.
A) inguinal region
B) cervical region
C) axillary region
D) lower extremities

D) lower extremities

What is the role of interferon in defense against disease?
A) to kill the bacteria
B) protects cells that have not yet been infected by viruses
C) activates the inflammatory process
D) activates the complement mechanism

B) protects cells that have not yet been infected by viruses

Which mechanism of antibody action results in cell lysis?
A) agglutination
B) complement fixation and activation
C) precipitation
D) neutralization

B) complement fixation and activation

Which of the following is a role of interferons (IFNs)?
A) IFNs help the body combat viral infections.
B) IFNs stimulate the release of histamine.
C) IFNs stimulate antibody production in response to a bacterial infection.
D) IFNs activate helper T cells by presenting antigens

A) IFNs help the body combat viral infections.
Interferons (IFNs) are a group of proteins that have antiviral
effects. IFNs activate macrophages and mobilize natural killer cells
(NK cells) as well. They also have an anticancer role.

The respiratory burst produced by some macrophages releases free radicals.

TRUE

Which defense mechanism results in redness, heat, pain, and swelling?
A) cell-mediated immunity
B) inflammation
C) antibody production
D) phagocytosis

B) inflammation
The cardinal signs of an inflammatory reaction are redness and
heat (due to increased blood flow to the area), pain (due to
increased blood flow and chemical mediators), and swelling (due to
leakage of blood plasma into the injured area).

Which of the following is a part of the second line of defense
against microorganisms?
A) keratin
B) cilia
C) phagocytes
D) gastric juice

C) phagocytes

Why are children given vaccinations?
A) to see whether the immune system is capable of defense against disease
B) to develop memory cells against various diseases
C) to activate the cell-mediated defense against pathogens
D) to develop a disease in a mild state rather than have it later
on in a more serious state

B) to develop memory cells against various diseases
Active humoral immunity is acquired in two ways. It is (1)
naturally acquired via an active viral or bacterial infection and (2)
artificially acquired via vaccines. Vaccines "prime" the
immune response by providing a first meeting with the antigen without
an infection occurring. As a result, memory cells are developed
against the disease without having to get the disease.

Which of the following is characteristic of complete antigens?
A) contain many repeating chemical units
B) reactivity with an antibody
C) small molecules
D) inhibit production of antibodies

B) reactivity with an antibody

Which of the following is (are) NOT a part of the innate immune defenses?
A) natural killer (NK) cells
B) T cells
C) inflammation
D) fever

B) T cells
T cells are lymphocytes that are involved in the adaptive (also
called specific) immune response.

Fever is seldom beneficial because it speeds up the cellular
metabolic rate and will not allow antigen-antibody reactions to occur.

FALSE

Which of the following statements does NOT describe the adaptive
immune response?
A) It has memory.
B) It is specific.
C) It occurs immediately after the body is challenged by foreign material.
D) It is systemic.

C) It occurs immediately after the body is challenged by foreign material.
It does not occur immediately upon the body's exposure to the
foreign material. It takes time for the body to mount an adaptive
immune response, particularly longer upon a first exposure to the
foreign material.

Select the correct statement about antigens.
A) One antigen may have many different antigenic determinants and
may therefore cause the formation of more than one antibody.
B) The largest type of antigen is called a hapten.
C) "Self-antigens" is another name for incomplete antigens.
D) Only small antigens exhibit reactivity.

A) One antigen may have many different antigenic determinants and may
therefore cause the formation of more than one antibody.

Virus infected cells secrete complement to "warn" other
cells of the presence of virus.

FALSE

The process whereby neutrophils and other white blood cells are
attracted to an inflammatory site is called ________.
A) chemotaxis
B) diapedesis
C) phagocytosis
D) margination

A) chemotaxis

Innate immune system defenses include_______.
A) plasma cells
B) T cells
C) B cells
D) phagocytosis

D) phagocytosis

B lymphocytes develop immunocompetence in the ________.
A) spleen
B) lymph nodes
C) thymus
D) bone marrow

D) bone marrow

Which mechanism occurs when antibodies block specific sites on
viruses or bacterial exotoxins?
A) complement fixation and activation
B) agglutination
C) neutralization
D) precipitation

C) neutralization

Cancer cells and virus-infected body cells can be killed before
activation of adaptive immunity by ________.
A) pinocytosis
B) T lymphocytes
C) natural killer cells
D) B lymphocytes

C) natural killer cells

Which of the following is not characteristic of the adaptive
immune system?
A) It is systemic.
B) It is antigen-specific.
C) It has memory.
D) It is specific for a given organ.

D) It is specific for a given organ.

What mobilizes the adaptive defenses and provokes an immune response?
A) pyrogens
B) MHC proteins
C) interferons
D) antigens

D) antigens
Antigens (anything the body recognizes as foreign) are substances
that can mobilize the adaptive defenses and provoke an immune
response. Antigens are the ultimate targets of all adaptive immune responses.

Substances capable of triggering the adaptive immune system and
provoking an immune response are called antigens.

TRUE

__________ immunity protects a baby who is fed breast milk.
A) Natural passive
B) Artificial passive
C) Artificial active
D) Natural active

A) Natural passive
Natural immunity is achieved through natural, non-manmade means.
Natural passive immunity occurs when an individual gets antibodies
from another source--they are not self-made. In the case of a nursing
infant, the process is natural and the baby is protected by antibodies
received from the mother.

What are B and T cells called that have not yet been exposed to an antigen?
A) immunocompetent
B) self-tolerant
C) naive
D) clone

C) naive

T cells achieve self-tolerance in the _________.
A) tonsils
B) thymus
C) lymph node
D) bone marrow

B) thymus
T cells learn and are screened for self-tolerance in the thymus

Small molecules that bind with self-proteins to produce antigenic
substances are called ________.
A) haptens
B) antibodies
C) reagins
D) ions

A) haptens

Although lung cancer is difficult to cure, it is highly preventable.

TRUE

Which of the following initiates inspiration?
A) diencephalon
B) pontine respiratory centers
C) ventral respiratory group (VRG)
D) dorsal respiratory group (DRG)

C) ventral respiratory group (VRG)

Which of the following is not an event necessary to supply
the body with O2 and dispose of CO2?
A) blood pH adjustment
B) external repiration
C) internal respiration
D) pulmonary ventilation

A) blood pH adjustment

Dalton's law of partial pressures states that when a gas is in
contact with a liquid, that gas will dissolve in the liquid in
proportion to its partial pressure.

FALSE

Dalton's law states that the total pressure exerted by a mixture of
gases is the sum of the pressures exerted independently by each gas in
the mixture.

TRUE

Which of the following structures would be the LEAST vulnerable to
damage caused by oxygen toxicity?
A) brain
B) spleen
C) muscles
D) costal cartilages

D) costal cartilages
Cartilage is normally avascular and receives oxygen by diffusion
from surrounding capillaries.

During pneumonia, the lungs become
"waterlogged"; this means that within the
alveoli there is an abnormal accumulation of ______.
A) blood
B) blood plasma
C) interstitial fluid
D) water

C) interstitial fluid
Pneumonia is an infection within the lung tissue often accompanied
by inflammation. In response to inflammation, the increased
permeability of the respiratory membrane results in increased
formation of interstitial fluid that enters the alveoli.

Hypoxia can be caused by ______.
A) hyposecretion of erythropoitin
B) having a fever
C) slightly elevated level of lactic acid in the blood
D) All of the listed responses are correct.

A) hyposecretion of erythropoietin
Hypoxia occurs when a tissue or organ has an insufficient supply of
oxygen. Erythropoietin is a hormone that stimulates the maturation of
red blood cells in the bone marrow

The __________ is also known as the "guardian of the airways."
A) glottis
B) larynx
C) epiglottis
D) vestibular folds

C) epiglottis

Smoking diminishes ciliary action and eventually destroys the cilia.

TRUE

Which of the choices below is not a factor that promotes
oxygen binding to and dissociation from hemoglobin?
A) partial pressure of carbon dioxide
B) number of red blood cells
C) temperature
D) partial pressure of oxygen

B) number of red blood cells

Which of the following pressures rises and falls with the phases of
breathing, but eventually equalizes with the atmospheric pressure?
A) atmospheric pressure
B) transpulmonary pressure
C) intrapulmonary pressure
D) intrapleural pressure

C) intrapulmonary pressure

Changes in arterial pH can modify respiration rate and rhythm even
when carbon dioxide and oxygen levels are normal.

TRUE

How is the bulk of carbon dioxide carried in blood?
A) as carbonic acid in the plasma
B) chemically combined with the amino acids of hemoglobin as
carbaminohemoglobin in the red blood cells
C) as the bicarbonate ion in the plasma after first entering the
red blood cells
D) chemically combined with the heme portion of hemoglobin

C) as the bicarbonate ion in the plasma after first entering the red
blood cells

Which of the following stimuli is the most powerful
respiratory stimulant to increase respiration?
A) a rise in body temperature
B) an increase in blood pH
C) rising carbon dioxide levels
D) arterial pH

C) rising carbon dioxide levels

Surfactant helps to prevent the alveoli from collapsing by ________.
1) warming the air before it enters
2)interfering with the cohesiveness of water molecules, thereby
reducing the surface tension of alveolar fluid
3) humidifying the air before it enters
4) protecting the surface of alveoli from dehydration and other
environmental variations

B) interfering with the cohesiveness of water molecules, thereby
reducing the surface tension of alveolar fluid.

Oxygenated hemoglobin releases oxygen more readily when the pH is
more basic.

FALSE

In babies born prematurely, pulmonary surfactant may not be present
in adequate amounts ______.
A) in the conducting zone structures of the lungs
B) due to insufficient exocytosis in the type II alveolar cells
C) to permit adequate surface tension in the alveoli
D) because the presence of collapsed alveoli prevents surfactant production

B) due to insufficient exocytosis in the type II alveolar cells
Type II alveolar cells make surfactant. Without surfactant, the
surface tension created by the water vapor within the alveoli would
cause them to collapse.

The erythrocyte count increases after a while when an individual goes
from a low to a high altitude because the ________.
A) basal metabolic rate is higher at high altitudes
B) temperature is lower at higher altitudes
C) concentration of oxygen and/or total atmospheric pressure is
lower at high altitudes
D) concentration of oxygen and/or total atmospheric pressure is
higher at higher altitudes

C) concentration of oxygen and/or total atmospheric pressure is lower
at high altitudes

What is ventilation-perfusion coupling?
A) matching the amount of gas reaching the alveoli to
pO2 and pCO2 values in the blood
B) matching the amount of blood flow through the body to the amount
of oxygen in the air sacs
C) matching the amount of oxygen exchanged for carbon dioxide in
the alveoli to the exchange at the tissue level
D) matching the amount of gas reaching the alveoli to the blood
flow in pulmonary capillaries

D) matching the amount of gas reaching the alveoli to the blood flow
in pulmonary capillaries

For gas exchange to be efficient, the respiratory membrane must be ________.
A) 0.5 to 1 micrometer thick
B) at least 3 micrometers thick
C) between 5 and 6 micrometers thick
D) The thickness of the respiratory membrane is not important in the
efficiency of gas exchange.

A) 0.5 to 1 micrometer thick

Which of the following statements is incorrect?
A) During fetal life, lungs are filled with fluid.
B) Respiratory rate is lowest in newborn infants
C) The chest wall becomes more rigid with age.
D) Descent of the diaphragm results in abdominal breathing.

B) Respiratory rate is lowest in newborn infants.

Which of the following maintains the patency (openness) of the trachea?
A) C-shaped cartilage rings
B) surface tension of water
C) pseudostratified ciliated epithelium
D) surfactant production

A) C-shaped cartilage rings

What part of the larynx covers the laryngeal inlet during swallowing
to keep food out of the lower respiratory passages?
A) thyroid cartilage
B) glottis
C) vocal folds
D) epiglottis

D) epiglottis

What is the tidal volume of an average adult male?
A) 500 ml
B) 3100ml
C) 1200 ml
D) 4800 ml

A) 500 ml

Which center is located in the pons?
A) pontine respirator group (PRG)
B) pacemaker neuron center
C) inspiratory center
D) expiratory center

A) pontine respirator group (PRG)

Which of the choices below is not a role of the pleura?
A) aids in blood flow to and from the heart because the heart sits
between the lungs
B) helps limit the spread of local infections
C) helps divide the thoracic cavity into three chambers
D) allows the lungs to inflate and deflate without friction

A) aids in blood flow to and from the heart because the heart sits
between the lungs

Complete the following statement using the choices below. Air moves
out of the lungs when the pressure inside the lungs is
A) greater than the pressure in the atmosphere.
B) greater than the intra-alveolar pressure.
C) less than the pressure in the atmosphere.
D) equal to the pressure in the atmosphere.

A) greater than the pressure in the atmosphere.

The paired lungs occupy all of the thoracic cavity.

FALSE

The structures within the respiratory system's conducting zone
include the trachea and the paranasal sinuses.

TRUE

In the plasma, the quantity of oxygen in solution is ________.
A) about equal to the oxygen combined with hemoglobin
B) only about 1.5% of the oxygen carried in blood
C) greater than the oxygen combined with hemoglobin
D) not present except where it is combined with carrier molecules

B) only about 1.5% of the oxygen carried in blood

Which of the following pressures must remain negative to prevent lung collapse?
A) intrapleural pressure
B) atmospheric pressure
C) intrapulmonary pressure
D) transpulmoonary pressure

A) intrapleural pressure

What type of epithelial tissue forms the walls of the alveoli?
A) pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium
B) stratified squamous epithelium
C) simple squamous epithelium
D) simple cuboidal epithelium

C) simple squamous epithelium

Oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged in the lungs and through all
cell membranes by ________.
A) osmosis
B) filtration
C) diffusion
D) active transport

C) diffusion

Increased temperature results in decreased O2 unloading
from hemoglobin.

FALSE

The functions of the nasal conchae are to enhance the air turbulence
in the cavity and to increase the mucosal surface area exposed to the air.

TRUE

Why is a patient with tuberculosis often noncompliant with treatment?
A) TB infection causes damage to the nervous system, resulting in
changes in personality and judgment.
B) Due to the time length of treatment, the patient may stop taking
the medication when they start to feel better.
C) Due to the psychological side effects of the antibiotic used, the
patient may stop taking the medication when they start to feel better.
D) Due to the physiological side effects of the antibiotic used, the
patient may stop taking the medication when they start to feel better.

B) Due to the time length of treatment, the patient may stop taking
the medication when they start to feel better.

The statement, "in a mixture of gases, the total pressure is the
sum of the individual partial pressures of gases in the mixture"
paraphrases ________.
A) Charles' law
B) Henry's law
C) Boyle's law
D) Dalton's law

D) Dalton's law

Intrapulmonary pressure is the ________.
A) difference between atmospheric pressure and respiratory pressure
B) pressure within the pleural cavity
C) pressure within the alveoli of the lungs
D) negative pressure in the intrapleural space

C) pressure within the alveoli of the lungs

With the Bohr effect, more oxygen is released because a(n) ________.
A) increase in pH (alkalosis) weakens the hemoglobin-oxygen bond
B) decrease in pH (acidosis) strengthens the hemoglobin-oxygen bond
C) decrease in pH (acidosis) weakens the hemoglobin-oxygen bond
D) increase in pH (alkalosis) strengthens the hemoglobin-oxygen bond

C) decrease in pH (acidosis) wakens the hemoglobin-oxygen bond

Which of the choices below determines the direction of respiratory
gas movement?
A) partial pressure gradient
B) molecular weight and size of the gas molecule
C) the temperature
D) solubility in water

A) partial pressure gradient

Which of the following qualifies as a fully saturated hemoglobin molecule?
A) hemoglobin is transporting four oxygen molecules
B) hemoglobin is transporting one oxygen molecule
C) hemoglobin is transporting three oxygen molecules
D) hemoglobin is transporting two oxygen molecules

A) hemoglobin is transporting four oxygen molecules

Possible causes of hypoxia include ________.
A) getting very cold
B) taking several rapid deep breaths
C) too little oxygen in the atmosphere
D) obstruction of the esophagus

C) too little oxygen in the atmosphere

Respiratory control centers are located in the ________.
A) upper spinal cord and medulla
B) midbrain and medulla
C) medulla and pons
D) pons and midbrain

C) medulla and pons

The lungs are perfused by two circulations: the pulmonary and the
bronchial. The pulmonary circulation is for oxygenation of blood. The
bronchial circulation supplies blood to the lung structures (tissue).

TRUE

The local matching of blood flow with ventilation is ________.
A) the Bohr effect
B) the Haldane effect
C) chloride shifting
D) ventilation-perfusion coupling

D) ventilation-perfusion coupling

The walls of the alveoli are composed of two types of cells, type I
and type II. The function of type II is to ________.
A) protect the lungs from bacterial invasion
B) trap dust and other debris
C) secrete surfactant
D) replace mucus in the alveoli

C) secrete surfactant

Which of the following modifies and smoothes the respiratory pattern?
A) pontine respiratory centers
B) diencephalon
C) ventral respiratory group (VRG)
D) dorsal respiratory group (DRG)

A) pontine respiratory centers