Which of the following is NOT a fundamental characteristic of all
living things
A) Energy acquisition and use
B) Made of cells
C) Aerobic Fermentation
D) Evolution
E) Replication
C
Prokaryotes are classified as belonging to two different domains.
What are the domains?
A) Bacteria and Archaea
B) Archaea and Monera
C) Bacteria and Protista
D) Eukarya and Monera
E) Bacteria and Eukarya
A
The two theories which form the framework for modern biological
science are
A) Creation and Evolution
B) Gravity and Cell Theory
C) Evolution and Cell Theory
D) Relativity and Cell Theory
C
Artificial Selection describes
A) Changes in populations where humans select which
individuals will produce the most offspring
B) Changes in genetics caused by disease
C) The idea that all cells come from pre-existing cells
D) The idea that energy is neither created nor destroyed
E) The idea the entropy increases in spontaneous reactions
A
A null hypothesis describes A) The experimental outcome
if the hypothesis is true
B) The experimental outcome if there are no controls
C) The experimental outcome if the hypothesis is false
D) The experimental outcome if the result is zero
C
Cells are _____.
A) characteristic of all living things
B) characteristic of eukaryotic but not prokaryotic organisms
C) always arise spontaneously
D) only found in pairs, because single cells cannot exist independently
A
Each element has a distinctive _____.
A) atomic mass
B) number of neutrons
C) number of electrons
D) atomic number, which reflects the number of protons
E) radioactive property
D
The mass number of an element is determined by which of the following?
A) the number of electrons in the element
B) the number of protons plus neutrons in the element
C) the number of neutrons in the element
D) the number of protons in the element
E) the number of protons plus electrons in the element
B
A covalent chemical bond is one in which _____.
A) outer-shell electrons of two atoms are shared so as to
satisfactorily fill their respective orbitals
B) electrons from the same atom, but opposite spins, are paired
C) protons and neutrons are shared by two atoms so as to
satisfy the requirements of both atoms
D) outer-shell electrons of one atom are transferred to fill
the inner electron shell of another atom
E) electrons are removed from one atom and transferred to
another atom so that the two atoms become oppositely charged
A
Nitrogen (N) is more electro negative than hydrogen (H). Which of the
following is a correct statement about the atoms in ammonia (NH3)?
A) Ammonia has an overall positive charge.
B) Each hydrogen atom has a partial positive charge; the
nitrogen atom has a partial negative charge.
C) Ammonia has an overall negative charge.
D) The nitrogen atom has a partial positive charge; each
hydrogen atom has a partial negative charge.
E) There are covalent bonds between the hydrogen atoms and
polar bonds between each hydrogen atom and the nitrogen atom.
B
What is the pH of pure water?
A) 4B) 5C) 6D) 7
D
Water
A) Cannot participate in hydrogen bonding
B) Is non-polar
C) Is a poor solvent
D) Is an excellent solvent
D
Side chains of amino acids _____.
A) are nonpolar if they contain N or S
B) may be polar or nonpolar
C) are all nonpolar
D) are all polar
B
Which one of the following is NOT a component of each monomer used to
make proteins?
A) a phosphorus atom, P
B) a side chain, R
C) an amino functional group, NH2
D) a carboxyl group, COOH
A
What component of amino acid structure varies among different amino acids?
A) the glycerol molecule that forms the backbone of the
amino acid
B) the presence of a central C atom
C) the long carbon-hydrogen tails of the molecule
D) the components of the R-group
D
Which type of interaction forms the ?-helix and the ?-pleated sheet
structures of proteins?
A) ionic bonds
B) hydrogen bonds
C) peptide bonds
D) hydrophobic interactions
E) disulfide bonds
B
The bonding of two amino acid molecules to form a peptide bond is a
condensation reaction and requires the_____.
A) release of a carbon dioxide molecule
B) release of a water molecule
C) addition of a carbon dioxide molecule
D) addition of a water molecule
E) addition of a water molecule and a carbon dioxide molecule
B
Which of the following best shows that that protein structure and
function are correlated?
A) Denatured (unfolded) proteins do not function normally.
B) Protein shape can be fully described by a primary sequence
C)Enzymes can be carbohydrates.
D)Proteins have only one function
A
Nucleic acids are polymers made up of which of the following monomers?
A) nucleotides
B) sugars
C) nitrogenous bases
D) amino acids
A
Which of the following is a difference between RNA and DNA?
A) DNA contains adenine and RNA does not.
B) RNA is single-stranded and DNA is usually triple-stranded.
C) RNA is made from nucleotide monomers and DNA is made from
amino acid monomers.
D) RNA has ribose sugar and DNA has deoxyribose sugar
D
Which of the following descriptions most completely describes the
class of molecules known as nucleotides?
A) a sugar and a purine or pyrimidine and a sulfur
B) a nitrogenous base and a phosphate group and a lipid
C) a phosphate group and an adenine or uracil and a steroid
D) a nitrogenous base, a phosphate group, and a sugar
E) a nitrogenous base and a sugar and a steroid
D
Which of the following best describes DNA's secondary structure?
A) turn-loop-turn
B) double parallel helical strands
C) beta-pleated sheet
D) double antiparallel helical strands
D
Why is it that RNA can catalyze reactions but DNA cannot?
A) The bases of RNA are much more reactive than the bases of DNA.
B) The primary structure of RNA is fundamentally different
than the primary structure of DNA.
C) The phosphate groups of RNA are much more reactive than
the phosphate groups of DNA.
D) The sugar of RNA is much more reactive than the sugar of DNA.
D
Which of the following are purine nitrogenous bases?
A) guanine and adenine
B) cytosine and guanine
C) adenine and thymine
D) uracil and cytosine
E) thymine and uracil
A
The molecule shown in the accompanying figure has 6 carbons, and
therefore is _____.
A) maltose
B) fructose
C) a pentose
D) a phosphate
E) a hexose
E
How do the ? and ? forms of glucose differ?
A) Their linear structures differ in the location of a
hydroxyl group.
B) The ? form can be involved in 1,4- and 1,6-glycosidic
linkages; the ? form can participate only in 1,4linkages.
C) The oxygen atom inside the ring is located in a different position.
D) Their ring structures differ in the location of a
hydroxyl group
D
A glycosidic linkage is analogous to which of the following in proteins?
A) a disulfide bond
B) an amino group
C) a ?-pleated sheet
D) a peptide bond
D
Which polysaccharide is an important component in the structure of
many animals and fungi?
A) cellulose
B) amylose
C) amylopectin
D) chitin
D
The enzyme amylase can break glycosidic linkages between glucose
monomers only if the monomers are the ?form. Which of the following
could amylase break down?
A) starch
B) cellulose
C) starch, cellulose, and chitin
D) chitin
E) starch and chitin only
A
Which of the following is NOT a polymer?
A) cellulose
B) glucose
C) DNA
D) chitin
E) starch
B
A phospholipid is a(n) _____.
A) nonpolar lipid molecule
B) polar lipid molecule that fully repels water
C) polar lipid molecule that fully interacts with water
D) amphipathic molecule consisting of a non-polar lipid
molecule and a polar phosphate
D
Cooking oils (such as safflower oil) are not amphipathic molecules
because they _____.
A) have hydrophobic and hydrophilic regions
B) do not have a polar or charged region
C) do not have a nonpolar region
D) are highly reduced molecules
B
Lipids _____.
A)contain less energy than proteins and carbohydrates
B)are insoluble in water
C)are made by hydrolysis reactions
D)are made from glycerol, fatty acids, and nitrogen
E)contain sulfur polymer
B
Steroids are considered to be lipids because they _____.
A) are hydrophilic compounds
B) are not soluble in water
C) contribute to atherosclerosis
D) are made of fatty acids
E) are essential components of cell membranes
B
Which aspect of phospholipids is most important to the formation of bilayers?
A) Their size is small, relative to fats.
B) Their size is large, relative to cholesterol.
C) Their hydrocarbon tails can consist of fatty acids or
isoprene subunits.
D) They are amphipathic
D
Which of the following is true of osmosis?
A) In osmosis, water moves across a membrane from areas of
lower solute concentration to areas of highersolute concentration.
B) Osmosis is an energy-demanding or "active" process.
C) Osmosis only takes place in red blood cells.
D) In osmosis, solutes move across a membrane from areas of
lower water concentration to areas of higher water concentration.
A
Which of the following is NOT found in a prokaryote?A)a
nucleusB)DNAC)a plasma membraneD)a cell wall
A
Which type of organelle or structure is primarily involved in the
synthesis of oils, phospholipids, and steroids?
A) contractile vacuole
B) mitochondrion
C) lysosome
D) ribosome
E) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
E
Which structure is the site of the synthesis of proteins that may be
exported from the cell?
A) free cytoplasmic ribosomes
B) rough ER
C) lysosomes
D) Golgi vesicles
E) plasmodesmata
B
Which organelle is the primary site of ATP synthesis in eukaryotic cells?
A) Golgi apparatus
B) vacuole
C) peroxisome
D) lysosome
E) mitochondrion
E
Suppose a young boy is always tired and fatigued, suffering from a
metabolic disease. Which of the following organelles is most likely
involved in this disease?
A) Golgi apparatus
B) ribosomes
C) lysosomes
D) mitochondria
D
Which of the following contains hydrolytic enzymes for digestion and
waste processing in the cell?
A) vacuole
B) peroxisome
C) Golgi apparatus
D) mitochondrion
E) lysosome
E
What is the most likely pathway taken by a newly synthesized protein
that will be secreted by a cell?
A) nucleus ->ER->Golgi
B) ER->Golgi->nucleus
C) ER->Golgi->vesicles that fuse with plasma membrane
D) Golgi->ER->lysosome
E) ER->lysosomes->vesicles that fuse with plasma membrane
C
Which of the following is a statement of the first law of thermodynamics?
A) Kinetic energy is stored energy that results from the
specific arrangement of matter.
B) Energy cannot be transferred or transformed.
C) Energy cannot be created or destroyed.
D) The entropy of the universe is constant.
E) The entropy of the universe is decreasing.
C
The mathematical expression for the change in free energy of a system
is ?G=?H-T?S. Which of the following is (are) correct?
A) T is total number of molecules
B)? H is the change in entropy
C)? S is the change in enthalpy
D)? G is the change in free energy
D
A chemical reaction that has a positive ?G (and is non spontaneous),
is best described as _____.
A) enthalpic
B) entropic
C) endergonic
D) exergonic
E) spontaneous
C
Which of the following is true when comparing an uncatalyzed reaction
to the same reaction with a catalyst?
A) The catalyzed reaction will have the same NJG.
B) The catalyzed reaction will be slower.
C) The catalyzed reaction will consume all of the catalyst.
D) The catalyzed reaction will have higher activation energy
A
Consider the HIV enzyme called protease. The amino acid residues at
the active site are highly hydrophobic. Indesigning a drug that acts
as a competitive inhibitor and would bind to the active site and jam
it, researchers should use a molecule that is _____.
A) charged
B) hydrophobic, and similar in size and shape
C) acidic
D) polar
B
Enzymes _____.
A) increase the rate of a reaction by making the reaction
more exergonic
B) change the equilibrium point of the reactions they catalyze
C) increase the rate of a reaction by lowering the
activation energy barrier
D) increase the rate of a reaction by reducing the rate of
reverse reactions
E) make the rate of a reaction independent of substrate concentrations
C
The mechanism in which the end product of a metabolic pathway
inhibits an earlier step in the pathway is most precisely described as _____.
A) drug inhibition
B) reversible inhibition
C) noncooperative inhibition
D) feedback inhibition
E) metabolic inhibition
D
1)When polymerization of a protein is complete, but a protein is
still completely linear, what is the highest level ofstructure in the protein?
A)primary
B)secondary
C)tertiary
D)quaternary
A
2)Altering patterns of gene expression in single celled organisms
like prokaryotes would most likely serve anorganism's survival by _____.
A)organizing gene expression, so that genes are expressed in
a given order
B)allowing an organism to adjust to changes in environmental conditions
C)allowing young organisms to respond differently than more
mature organisms
D)allowing each gene to be expressed an equal number of times
E)allowing environmental changes to alter a prokaryote's genome
B
3)Ribosomes specialize in producing which of the following molecules?
A)cellulose
B)proteins
C)lipids
D)glycogen
E)nucleic acids
B
4)Translation requires _____.
A)mRNA, tRNA, DNA, and rRNA
B)mRNA, DNA, and rRNA
C)mRNA, tRNA, and DNA
D)mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA
D
5)A solution with a pH of 5 has how many more protons in it than a
solution with a pH of 7?
A)5 times
B)100 times
C)10 times
D)1000 times
B
6)Two plants are crossed, resulting in offspring with a 3:1 ratio for
a particular trait. This ratio suggests that _____.
A)the particular trait shows incomplete dominance
B)the parents were true-breeding for contrasting traits
C)the parents were both heterozygous for the particular trait
D)each offspring has the same alleles for each of two
different traits
E)a blending of traits has occurred
C
7)Genetically engineered plants _____.
A)generally do not live
B)are used in research but not yet in commercial agricultural production
C)are banned everywhere in the world
D)include transgenic rice plants that contain genes involved
in ?-carotene synthesis
E)are more difficult to develop than genetically engineered animals
D
8)After mitosis, cytoplasm is divided between two daughter cells by _____.
A)the formation of kinetochores
B)cloning
C)binary fission
D)cytokinesis
D
9)Which of the following is true for all exergonic reactions?
A)A net input of energy from the surroundings is required for
the reactions to proceed.
B)The reactions are rapid.
C)The reaction proceeds with a net loss of free energy.
D)The products have more total energy than the reactants.
E)The reaction goes only in a forward direction: all
reactants will be converted to products, but no products will be
converted to reactants
C
10)Which of the following directly contains information encoding a
single amino acid?
A)the complementarity of DNA and RNA
B)RNA polymerase
C)the three-base sequence of mRNA
D)the base sequence of the rRNA
C
11)The theory of natural selection states
A)animals are larger than plants
B)nature is unpredictable
C)All species are related by a common ancestry and change
over time in response to natural selection
D)All organisms are made of cells
C
12)Which of the following levels of gene expression allows the most
rapid response to environmental change?
A)post-translational control
B)translational control
C)transcriptional control
A
13)Which structure is the site of the synthesis of proteins that may
be exported from the cell?
A)Golgi vesicles
B)rough ER
C)lysosomes
D)free cytoplasmic ribosomes
E)plasmodesmata
B
14)Rudolph the red nosed reindeer had two black nosed parents. How is
this predicted by mendelian genetics?
A)Rudolph's mother did not breast feed him
B)Rudolph's parents were homozygotes for nose color.
C)Red nose is recessive, and Rudolph's parents were
heterozygotes for nose color.
D)Red nose is dominant
E)Rudolph is a heterozygote
C
15)Which of the following is NOT synthesized from a DNA template?
A)tRNA
B)ribosomal RNA
C)messenger RNA
D)amino acids
D
16)Eukaryotic telomeres replicate differently than the rest of the
chromosome. This is a consequence of which of the following?
A)?gaps left at the 5 end of the lagging strand
B)?DNA polymerase that cannot replicate the leading strand
template to its 5 end
C)the "no ends" of a circular chromosome
D)the evolution of telomerase enzyme
E)a lack of a membrane bound nucleus
A
17)In addition to ATP, what are the end products of glycolysis?
A)H2O and RuBP
B)glucose and H2O
C)O2 and glucose
D)O2 and RuBP
E)NADH and pyruvate
E
18)Which of the following does NOT occur during mitosis?
A)replication of the DNA
B)separation of sister chromatids
C)separation of the spindle poles
D)spindle formation
E)condensation of the chromosome
A
19)Which of the following processes is central to the initiation of
bacterial transcription?
A)formation of a DNA primer
B)binding of sigma to the promoter region
C)binding of DNA polymerase to the promoter region
D)formation of a phosphodiester bond in the elongating RNA strand
B
20)Cells are _____.
A)characteristic of eukaryotic but not prokaryotic organisms
B)characteristic of all living organisms
C)only found in pairs, because single cells cannot exist independently
D)characteristic of non-living organisms
B
21)When oxygen is released as a result of photosynthesis, it is a
direct by-product of _____.
A)reducing NADP+
B)the electron transfer system of photosystem II
C)splitting water molecules
D)the electron transfer system of photosystem I
E)chemiosmosis
C
22)Which term most precisely describes the cellular process of
breaking down large molecules into smaller ones?
A)catabolism (catabolic pathways)
B)dehydration
C)metabolism
D)anabolism (anabolic pathways)
A
23)Which metabolic pathway is common to both cellular respiration and fermentation?
A)glycolysis
B)the citric acid cycle
C)oxidative phosphorylation
D)the oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA
E)chemiosmosis
A
24)Which method is utilized by eukaryotes to control their gene
expression that is NOT used in bacteria?
A)transcriptional control
B)control of post translational modification
C)control of both RNA splicing and chromatin remodeling
D)control of translation
E)control of both transcription and translation
C
25)Which organelle is the primary site of ATP synthesis in eukaryotic cells?
A)mitochondrion
B)vacuole
C)peroxisome
D)lysosome
E)Golgi apparatus
A
26)In bacteria, what is the function of DNA polymerase III?
A)to seal together the broken ends of DNA strands
B)to degrade damaged DNA molecules
C)to unwind the DNA helix during replication
D)?to add nucleotides to the 3end of a growing DNA strand
E)to rejoin the two DNA strands (one new and one old) after replication
D
27)If you wanted to prevent a regulatory protein from changing gene
expression, you would have to prevent physical contact between the
protein and _____.
A)ribozymes
B)mRNA
C)ribosomes
D)DNA
D
28)Which of the following best describes DNA's secondary structure?
A)double antiparallel helical strands
B)double parallel helical strands
C)beta-pleated sheet
D)turn-loop-turn
A
29)The mitotic spindle is a microtubular structure that is involved
in _____.
A)triggering the compaction and condensation of chromosomes
B)dissolving the nuclear membrane
C)separation of sister chromatids
D)splitting of the cell (cytokinesis) following mitosis
C
30)For a species with a haploid number of 23 chromosomes, how many
different combinations of chromosomes arepossible for the gametes?
A)about 1000
B)23
C)46
D)about 70
E)about 8.4 million
E
31)The predominant mechanism driving the production of different cell
types in multicellular organisms is the difference in gene _____.
A)replication
B)sequences
C)expression
D)order
C
32)What is the role of DNA ligase in the elongation of the lagging
strand during DNA replication?
A)It unwinds the parental double helix.
B)It joins Okazaki fragments together.
C)It stabilizes the unwound parental DNA.
D)It synthesizes RNA nucleotides to make a primer.
E)It catalyzes the lengthening of telomeres
B
33)Which of the following is NOT a polymer?
A)chitin
B)cellulose
C)glucose
D)starch
E)DNA
C
34)In a nucleosome, the DNA is wrapped around _____.
A)polymerase molecules
B)a thymine dimer
C)histone proteins
D)ribosomes
E)satellite DNA
C
35)How many types of amino acids are found in biological proteins?
A)20
B)23
C)0
D)46
E)70
A
36)Which of the following is NOT an essential characteristic of a
living thing?
A)the ability to acquire and use energy
B)the ability to reproduce
C)the possession of hereditary information
D)being able to infect a host organism
E)being made of membrane bound cells
D
37)Which of the following descriptions best fits the class of
molecules known as nucleotides?
A)a phosphate group and a lipid
B)a nitrogenous base, a phosphate group, and a sugar
C)a nitrogenous base and a lipid
D)a sugar and a peptide
E)a nitrogenous base and a steroid
B
38)Which of the following statements best describes the relationship
between photosynthesis and respiration?
A)ATP molecules are produced in photosynthesis but not in
aerobic respiration.
B)Photosynthesis is catabolic; respiration is anabolic.
C)Respiration runs the same biochemical pathways of photosynthesis
D)Photosynthesis occurs only in animals; respiration occurs
only in plants.
E)Photosynthesis stores energy in complex organic molecules;
respiration releases energy from complexorganic molecules
E
39)What is the difference between a ribonucleotide and a deoxyribonucleotide?
A)Ribonucleotides have a hydroxyl group on the 2 carbon of
their sugar subunit.
B)Ribonucleotides have a hydrogen atom on the 1 carbon of
their sugar subunit.
C)Ribonucleotides contain a phosphate group.
D)Ribonucleotides contain a sugar with five carbon atoms
A
40)Homologous chromosomes _____.
A)carry information for the same traits, but may contain
different alleles for those traits
B)carry the same alleles
C)align on the metaphase plate in meiosis II
D)are identical
A
41)The anticodon of a particular tRNA molecule is _____.
A)changeable, depending on the amino acid that attaches to
the tRNA
B)catalytic, making the tRNA a ribozyme
C)complementary to the corresponding mRNA codon
D)complementary to the corresponding triplet in rRNA
E)the part of tRNA that bonds to a specific amino acid
C
42)The molecule that is oxidized in a redox or oxidation-reduction
reaction _____.
A)gains electrons
B)gains neutrons
C)loses neurons
D)loses electrons
E)neither gains nor loses electrons
D
43)Which bonds are created during the formation of the primary
structure of a protein?
A)peptide bonds
B)hydrogen bonds
C)phosphodiester bonds
D)disulfide bonds
E)peptide bonds, hydrogen bonds, and disulfide bonds
A
44)The partial negative charge at one end of a water molecule is
attracted to the partial positive charge of anotherwater molecule.
What is this attraction called?
A)a van der Waals interaction
B)an ionic bond
C)a hydrophilic bond
D)a covalent bond
E)a hydrogen bond
E
45)Not all intercellular signals require transduction. Which one of
the following signals would be processedwithout transduction?
A)a lipid-soluble signal, because it does not need to bind a
receptor on the cell surface but instead can freelycross the plasma membrane
B)a signal that is weakly bound to a nucleotide
C)a signal that binds to a receptor in the cell membrane
D)a signal that binds to the ECM
A
46)Prokaryotes are classified as belonging to two different domains.
What are the domains?
A)Bacteria and Archaea
B)Bacteria and Eukarya
C)Archaea and Monera
D)Eukarya and Monera
E)Bacteria and Protista
A
47)Small molecules can travel directly from the cytoplasm of one
animal cell to the cytoplasm of an adjacent cell through _____.
A)tight junctions
B)desmosomes
C)intermediate filaments
D)plasmodesmata
E)gap junctions
E
48)Lactose, a sugar in milk, is composed of one glucose molecule
joined by a glycosidic linkage to one galactosemolecule. How is
lactose classified?
A)as a lipid
B)as a hexose
C)as a disaccharide
D)as a pentose
E)as a monosaccharide
C
49)In recombinant DNA methods, the term vector can refer to _____.
A)the "sticky end" of a DNA fragment
B)a DNA probe used to identify a particular gene
C)the enzyme (endonuclease) that cuts DNA into restriction fragments
D)a SNP marker
E)a plasmid used to transfer DNA into a host
E
50)What do the cell walls of plants and the extracellular matrix of
animal cells have in common?
A)They function to protect and support the cell
B)Their proteins are made by free cytoplasmic ribosomes.
C)The do not contain proteins
D)They are not useful to the cell
E)They do not provide structural support to the cell
A
51)In the process of transcription, _____.
A)RNA is synthesized
B)tRNA attaches to ribosomes
C)proteins are synthesized
D)DNA is replicated
A
52)How do cells at the completion of meiosis I compare with cells at
the start of meiosis I? They have _____.
A)half the number of chromosomes
B)one-fourth the number of chromosomes
C)four times the number of chromosomes
D)the same number of chromosomes
E)twice the number of chromosomes
A
53)Which one of the following is NOT a component of each monomer used
to make proteins?
A)an amino functional group, NH2
B)a side chain, R
C)a phosphorus atom, P
D)a carboxyl group, COOH
C
54)Muscle cells differ from nerve cells mainly because they _____.
A)express different genes
B)have unique ribosomes
C)use different genetic codes
D)have different chromosomes
E)contain different genes
A
55)Which of the following statements about NAD+ is true?
A)NAD+ has more chemical energy than NADH.
B)In the absence of NAD+, glycolysis can still function.
C)NAD+ is reduced to NADH during glycolysis, pyruvate
oxidation, and the citric acid cycle.
D)NAD+ can donate electrons for use in oxidative phosphorylation.
E)NAD+ is oxidized by the action of hydrogenases.
C
56)The product of the lacI gene is _____.
A)the repressor
B)?-galactosidase
C)an enzyme
D)a transport protein embedded within the membrane
A
57)Mendel studies seven different traits in the garden pea. What
genetic term is used to describe an observable trait, such as those
studied by Mendel?
A)genotype
B)category
C)haplotype
D)phenotype
E)appearance
D
58)How do the ? and ? forms of glucose differ?
A)One has a sulfur while the other does not
B)They are exactly the same
C)The beta form makes a double helix
D)Their ring structures differ in the location of a hydroxyl group.
D
59)A phospholipid is a _____.
A)polar peptide
B)nonpolar nucleic acid
C)fully hydrophilic cellulose
D)amphipathic lipid and phosphate
D
60)The mathematical expression for the change in free energy of a
system is ?G=?H-T?S. Which of the followingis (are) correct?
A)?H is the change in free energy
B)T is the total free energy
C)?G is the change in free energy.
D)?S is the change in free energy
C
61)All of the following are part of a prokaryotic cell EXCEPT _____
A)a membrane bound nucleus
B)a cell wall
C)ribosomes
D)DNA
E)a plasma membrane
A
62)Where would you most likely find an integral membrane protein?
A)on the outside surface of the cell membrane
B)spanning the cell membrane
C)floating freely in the cytoplasm
D)on the inside surface of the cell membrane
B
63)Nucleic acids are polymers made up of which of the following monomers?
A)sugars
B)nitrogenous bases
C)amino acids
D)nucleotides
D
64)Which of the following is the meaning of the chromosome theory of
inheritance as expressed in the early twentieth century?
A)Mendelian genes are at specific loci on the chromosome and,
in turn, segregate during meiosis.
B)Homologous chromosomes give rise to some genes and
crossover chromosomes to other genes.
C)Natural selection acts on certain chromosome arrays rather
than on genes.
D)Individuals inherit all phenotypes based on blood type
E)No more than a single pair of chromosomes can be found in a
healthy normal cell.
A
65)Which of these best reflects the following relationship:
monosaccharide versus polysaccharide?
A)?-linkage versus ?-linkage
B)glucose versus glycogen
C)glucose versus fructose
D)1,4-glycosidic linkage versus 1,6-glycosidic linkage
B
66)Which of the following could use reverse transcriptase to make DNA?
A)carbohydrates
B)steroids
C)proteins
D)RNA
D
67)Enzymes _____.
A)make the rate of a reaction independent of substrate concentrations
B)increase the rate of a reaction by lowering the activation energy
C)decrease the rate of a reaction by reducing the rate of
reverse reactions
D)decrease the rate of a reaction by making the reaction more exergonic
E)change the equilibrium point of the reactions they catalyze
B
68)How are the light-dependent and light-independent reactions of
photosynthesis related?
A)The products of light-dependent reactions are never used
B)The products of light-independent reactions are used in
light-dependent reactions.
C)The products of light-dependent reactions are used in
light-independent reactions.
D)They are not related.
C
69)Which of the following is true of osmosis?
A)Osmosis is an energy-demanding or "active" process.
B)In osmosis, water never moves
C)In osmosis, water moves across a membrane from areas of
lower solute concentration to areas of highersolute concentration.
D)Osmosis only takes place in red blood cells
C
70)Sister chromatids separate from each other during _____.
A)S phase only
B)G2 phase
C)G zero phase
D)G1 phase
E)meiosis II
E
71)In eukaryotic cells, chromosomes are composed of _____.
A)DNA and phospholipids
B)DNA and RNA
C)DNA only
D)DNA and proteins
D
72)Lipids _____.
A)contain sulfur polymers
B)contain less energy than proteins and carbohydrates
C)are made from glycerol, fatty acids, and nitrogen
D)are insoluble in water
E)are made by dehydration reactions
D
73)A chemical reaction that has a positive ?G is best described as _____.
A)spontaneous
B)entropic
C)enthalpic
D)exergonic
E)endergonic
E
74)A paleontologist has recovered a bit of tissue from the
400-year-old preserved skin of an extinct dodo (a bird).To compare a
specific region of the DNA from the sample with DNA from living birds,
which of the followingwould be most useful for increasing the amount
of dodo DNA available for testing?
A)Southern blotting
B)polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
C)RFLP analysis
D)electroporation
E)gel electrophoresis
B
75)Hormones are chemical substances produced in one organ that are
released into the bloodstream and affect thefunction of a target cell.
For the target cell to respond to a particular hormone, it must _____.
A)modify its plasma membrane to alter the hormone entering
the cytoplasm
B)experience an imbalance that disrupts its normal function
C)have receptors that recognize and bind the hormone molecule
D)be from the same cell type as the organ that produced the hormone
C
76)When the atoms involved in a covalent bond have the same
electronegativity, what type of bond results?
A)a hydrogen bond
B)an ionic bond
C)a nonpolar covalent bond
D)a polar covalent bond
C
77)The statement "DNA -> RNA -> Proteins" _____.
A)is known as central dogma
B)describes the cell theory
C)is the same in all organisms including viruses and prions
D)describes the difference between prokaryotes and eukaryotes
A
78)Which of the following are products of the light dependent
reactions of photosynthesis that are utilized in theCalvin cycle?
A)H2O and glucose
B)ATP and NADPH
C)electrons and H+
D)CO2 and glucoseE)ADP, i, and NADP+
B
79)The leading and the lagging strands differ in that _____.
A)lagging strand is not synthesized
B)the lagging strand is synthesized continuously, whereas the
leading strand is synthesized in short fragments that are ultimately
stitched together
C)??the leading strand is synthesized by adding nucleotides
to the 3end of the growing strand, and thelagging strand is
synthesized by adding nucleotides to the 5end
D)the leading strand is synthesized in the same direction as
the movement of the replication fork, and the lagging strand is
synthesized in the opposite direction
D
80)Refer to the figure above. The mRNA is smaller than the length of
the DNA that codes for it because _____.
A)bases are added to the tail of the primary transcript
B)post-transcriptional processing removes the exons
C)post-transcriptional processing removes the introns
D)the exons of the gene are not transcribed
C
3) If a scientist needs to put new DNA into a bacterium, she must
_____ the bacterium with this DNA.
A) make a cDNA library of
B) ligate
C) make a library of the genes of
D) make a vector of
E) transform
E
4) Which of the following can occur by the process of meiosis but not mitosis?
A) Haploid cells multiply into more haploid cells.
B) Haploid cells fuse to form diploid cells.
C) A diploid cell combines with a haploid cell.
D) Diploid cells form haploid cells.
D
5) Viruses_____.
A) metabolize food and produce their own ATP
B) are made of cells
C) are living and make their own energy
D) use the host cell to copy themselves and make viral proteins
D
6) A G?protein receptor with GTP bound to it _____.
A) is in active
B) is in its active state
C) is located in the extra cellular matrix
D) always binds to DNA
b
8) Somatic cells of roundworms have four individual chromosomes per
cell. How many chromosomes would you expect to find in an unfertilized
ovum (gamete) from a roundworm?
A) eight
B) two
C) a diploid number
D) four
B
9) One example of an innovation from an unexpected source comes from
studies of tumor-like plant growths.What information did the study of
plant tumors provide that was critical for plant genetic engineering?
A) discovery of a plasmid that could be modified to introduce
genes into plants
B) learning that metastasis is critical for tumor progression
C) learning the biosynthetic pathway to citrulline
D) understanding the role of plant hormones in growth promotion
E) knowledge of plant tumor suppressor and proto-oncogenes
A
10) Which of the following characteristics, structures, or
processes are present in viruses?
A) ribosomes
B) nucleus
C) DNA or RNA
D) ER
E) cells
C
11) Two potential mechanisms that eukaryotic cells use
modify chromatin and thereby regulate transcription are
_____.
A) methylation and acetylation
B) DNA plasmids
C) bacterial transformation
D) PCR
E) Sanger sequencing
A
15) Low expression of the gene encoding Human Growth Hormone
(HGH) causes
A) nucleic acid hybridization
B) electroporation
C) good basketball skills
D) pitutary dwarfism
E) genome suppression
D
Use this information to answer the question below: A
researcher found a method she could use to manipulate and quantify
phosphorylation and methylation in embryonic cells in culture.
16) In one set of experiments she succeeded in
increasing acetlylation of histone proteins. Which of the following
results would she most likely see?
A) decreased binding of transcription factors
B) chromatin condensation
C) chromatin decondensation
D) inactivation of histone protein transcription
E) activation of histone tails for enzymatic function
C
17) During which phase of mitosis do the centromes of sister
chromatids split, causing the chromatids to become chromosomes?
A) G phase B) metaphase C) anaphase D) prophase E) cytokinesis
C
18) When cyclin is present it _____.
A) deactivates a Cdk
B) stops the cell cycle
C) activates a Cdk molecule, thereby increasing MPF activity
D) decreases MPF activity
E) is activated by binding to microtubules
C
19) The genes needed for ?-carotene synthesis are not
normally expressed in rice. In the creation of golden rice, how did
researchers ensure that these genes were expressed in this rice?
A) The genes were injected into the nucleus of a each
rice grain
B) Wild-type rice genes were mutated to express the
genes needed for ?-carotene synthesis
C) Agrobacterium cells were filled with carotene, and
then added to the plant
D) The protein-coding sequence of each gene was
inserted into modified Ti plasmids , so that transcription would
occur when this plasmid was introduced into plants via agrobacterium cells.
D
20) When people die from HIV infections, it is usually
because they _____.
A) have too few T cells to adequately fight infection
B) have too many T cells, and this overwhelms their
immune systems
C) have too many HIV particles in their lymphatic
system, which causes it to shut down
D) divert too much energy toward replicating the virus
A
23) What is the first phase of mitosis in animal cells,
during which the chromosomes condense and the centrioles begin to move apart?
A) anaphase
B) prophase
C) prometaphase
D) metaphase
E) telophase
B
24) The receptors for steroid hormones are located inside
the cell instead of on the membrane surface like most other signal
receptors. This is not a problem for lipid soluble steroids because _____.
A) steroids must first bond to a steroid activator,
forming a complex that then binds to the cell surface
B) they can readily diffuse through the lipid bilayer
of the cell membrane since they are lipid soluble
C) the receptors can be readily stimulated to exit and
relocate on the membrane surface
D) steroids do not directly affect cells but instead
alter the chemistry of blood plasma
B
25) The M-phase checkpoint ensures that all chromosomes are
attached to the mitotic spindle. If this does not happen, cells would
most likely be arrested in _____.
A) metaphase
B) Go phase
C) S phase
D) G2 phase
A
29) Protein kinase is an enzyme that _____.
A) serves as a receptor for various signal molecules
B) functions as a second messenger molecule
C) activates or inactivates other proteins by adding a phosphate
group to them
D) produces second messenger molecules
C
30) Which of the following supports the argument that
viruses are nonliving?
A) They lack genetic material.
B) They do not evolve.
C) Their DNA does not encode proteins.
D) They are not made of cells.
E) They have RNA rather than DNA.
D
35) Imagine that you are studying the control of ?-globin
gene expression in red blood cells . If you deleted a
sequence of DNA outside the protein-coding region of
the ?-globin gene and found that this increased the rate
of transcription, the deleted sequence likely functions
as _____.
A) an enhancer
B) a promoter-proximal element
C) a silencer
D) a promoter
E) any of the listed functions
C
36) Which of the following occurs in meiosis but not in mitosis?
A) synapsis of chromosomes and crossing over of chromosomes
B) alignment of chromosomes at the equator
C) chromosome replication
D) production of daughter cells
E) condensation of chromosomes
A
37) How do cells at the completion of meiosis II compare
with cells at the start of meiosis I? They have _____.
A) twice the amount of DNA.
B) half the amount of DNA.
C) one-fourth the amount of DNA.
D) the same amount of DNA.
E) four times the amount of DNA
C
40) Independent assortment of chromosomes occurs during _____.
A) S phase
B) G1 phase
C) mitosis
D) G2 phase
E) meiosis I
E
41) Enhancers are _____.
A) stimulators of translation
B) directly activate kinases
C) contained in the promoter
D) DNA regulatory elements that control gene expression
E) a mechanism of post-translational control that
activates certain proteins
D
45) Sister chromatids separate from each other during _____.
A) S phase only
B) G2 phase
C) meiosis II
D) G1 phase
E) G zero phase
C
48) The product of the p53 gene _____.
A) causes cells to reduce expression of genes involved in DNA synthesis
B) slows down the rate of DNA replication
C) inhibits the cell cycle to allow the cell time to repair damaged DNA
C
49) The microtubule-organizing center found in animal cells
is an identifiable structure present during all phases
of the cell cycle. Specifically, it is known as the _____.
A) centrosome
B) kinetochore
C) microtubulere
D) chromatids
A
50) If a cell has accumulated DNA damage, it is unlikely to _____.
A) activate DNA repair mechanisms
B) pass the G2 checkpoint
C) repair this damage
D) synthesize cyclin-dependent kinases
B
1) What is the term for metabolic pathways that release
stored energy by breaking down complex molecules?
A) catabolic pathways
B) thermodynamic pathways
C) anabolic pathways
D) fermentation pathways
E) bioenergetic pathways
A
2) During cellular respiration, a glucose molecule loses an
electron as the result of an oxidation-reduction reaction,and thereby
becomes _____.
A) hydrolyzed
B) hydrogenated
C) oxidized
D) transmitted
E) reduced
C
4) How many oxygen molecules (O2) are required each time a
molecule of glucose (C6H12O6) is completely
oxidized to carbon dioxide and water via aerobic respiration?
A) 6 B) 1 C) 30 D) 3 E) 12
A
5) Which process in eukaryotic cells will proceed normally
whether oxygen (O2) is present or absent?
A) glycolysis
B) the citric acid cycle
C) electron transport
D) chemiosmosis
E) oxidative phosphorylation
A
7) Energy released by the electron transport chain is used
to pump H+ into which location in eukaryotic cells?
A) mitochondrial intermembrane space
B) cytosol
C) nucleus
D) lysosomes
E) golgi apparatus
A
10) What is the main purpose of light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis?
A) to produce NAD+ for use in respiration
B) to use ATP to make glucose
C) to produce NADPH and ATP for use in the calvin cycle
D) to generate heat
C
11) In a plant cell, where are the ATP synthase complexes located?
A) nuclear membrane
B) thylakoid membrane and inner mitochondrial membrane
C) lysosomes
D) nucleaus
E) plasma membrane
B
12) Where do the enzymatic reactions of the Calvin cycle
take place?
A) cytosol around the nucleus
B) stroma of the chloroplast
C) in the nucleus
D) matrix of the mitochondria
E) subdural space
B
13) What is the primary function of the Calvin cycle?
A) split water and release oxygen
B) use ADP to release carbon dioxide
C) use NAD+ to release carbon dioxide
D) synthesize simple sugars from carbon dioxide
E) transport RuBP out of the chloroplast
D
17) When crossing an organism that is homozygous recessive
for a single trait with a heterozygote, what is the chance of
producing an offspring with the homozygous recessive phenotype?
Drawing a punnett square will help you answer this question!
A) 50%
B) 75%
C) 25%
D) 0%
E) 100%
A
19) When Thomas Hunt Morgan crossed his red-eyed F1
generation flies to each other, the F2 generation included both red-
and white-eyed flies. Remarkably, all the white-eyed flies were male.
What was the explanation for this result?
A) The gene involved is on the X chromosome.
B) Other female-specific factors influence eye color in flies.
C) Other male-specific factors influence eye color in flies.
D) The gene involved is on an autosome, but only in males.
E) The gene involved is on the Y chromosome.
A
21) Which of the following describes the ability of a single
allele to have multiple phenotypic effects (as is the case in Marfan Syndrome)?
A) epistasis
B) incomplete dominance
C) multiple alleles
D) pleiotropy
D
23) In the figure above, which is the template strand?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
A
25) Which of the following help(s) to hold the DNA strands
apart while they are being replicated?
A) DNA polymerase
B) primase
C) ligase
D) single-strand DNA binding proteins
E) nuclease
D
27) In a healthy cell, the rate of DNA repair is equal to
the rate of DNA mutation. When the rate of repair lags behind the rate
of mutation, particularly when mutations occur in genes which regulate
the cell cycle, what is a possible fate of the cell?
A) RNA may be used instead of DNA as inheritance material.
B) The cell will always become healthier.
C) DNA synthesis will continue by a new mechanism.
D) The cell can be transformed to a cancerous cell.
D
28) Because of their linear (non-circular) choromosomes,
telomere shortening is a problem in which types of cells?
A) only eukaryotic cells
B) prokaryotes and eukaryotes
C) only prokaryotic cells
A
32) The HIV virus that causes AIDS is an RNA retrovirus,
meaning it is made of RNA and not DNA. A retrovirus _____.
A) makes proteins directly from RNA
B) a cellular virus that uses ribosomes to reproduce
inside a living cell
C) uses reverse transcriptase to make DNA from RNA
D) uses DNA as a template in the process of translation
C
33) What does it mean when we say the genetic code is redundant?
A) A single codon can specify many types of amino acids.
B) The genetic code is different for different domains of organisms.
C) More than one codon can specify the addition of the
same amino acid.
D) The genetic code is not meaningful
C
34) Which one of the following is true? A codon _____.
A) consists of four nucleotides
B) is the basic unit of the genetic code and contains 3 nucleotides
C) can code for up to four different amino acids
D) extends from one end of a tRNA molecule
B
35) The mutation resulting in sickle-cell disease changes
one base pair of DNA so that a codon now codes for a different amino
acid so it is an example of a _____.
A) nonsense mutation
B) missense mutation
C) silent mutation
D) frameshift mutation
B
38) Ribosomes can attach to prokaryotic messenger RNA _____.
A) before transcription is complete, meaning transcription
and translation can occur simultaneously on a single mRNA
B) only after replication is complete
C) only after post-transcriptional modification of the
protein is complete
D) only after the primary transcript has been released
from RNA polymerase
A
39) There are sixty-one mRNA codons that specify an amino
acid, but only forty-five tRNAs. This is best explained by the fact
that _____.
A) competitive exclusion forces some tRNAs to be destroyed
by nucleases
B) the DNA codes for all sixty-one tRNAs, but some are
then destroyed
C) some tRNAs have anticodons that don't work.
D) the wobble hypothesis, which states that the rules for
base pairing between the third base of a codon and tRNA are flexible
E) many codons are never used, so the tRNAs that recognize
them are dispensable
D
42) Translation directly involves _____.
A) mRNA, tRNA, ribosomes, and DNA
B) mRNA, tRNA, ribosomes
C) tRNA, ribosomes, and DNA
D) mRNA, ribosomes, and DNA
E) mRNA, tRNA, and DNA
B
43) Regulating levels of gene expression serves an
organism's survival by _____.
A) organizing gene expression, so that genes are always
expressed in a given order
B) allowing environmental changes to alter a prokaryote's genome
C) allowing organisms to always express the same genes in
the same quantities
D) allowing each gene to be expressed an equal number of times
E) allowing an organism to adjust to changes in
environmental conditions
E
45) The greatest expression of the lac operon
occurs when lactose levels are _____ and glucose levels are _____.
A) high , low
B) high, high
C) low, low
D) low, high
A
47) The arabinose operon (ara) provides a particularly
interesting example of ___________ in that when arabinose is
present in the environment, the operon is transcribed.
A) negative control
B) reverse transcription
C) positive control
D) positive translation
E) push forward control
C
50) While examining a rock surface, you have discovered an
interesting new organism. Which of the following criteria will allow
you to classify the organism as belonging to Prokary, not Eukarya?
A) The lipids in its plasma membrane consist of glycerol
bonded to straight-chain fatty acids.
B) It is unicellular.
C) It can survive at room temprature
D) The organism does not have nucleus..
E) The organism does not have ribosomes
D