Many mammals control their body temperature by sweating. Which
property of water is most directly responsible for the ability of
sweat to lower body temperature?
The absorption of heat by the breaking of hydrogen bonds
The nucleus of a nitrogen atom contains 7 neutrons and 7 protons.
Which of the following is a correct statement concerning nitrogen?
The nitrogen atom has a mass numbr of 14 and an atomic mass of
approximately 14 daltons
A localized group of organisms that belong to the same species is
called a
population
Prokaryotes are classified as belonging to two different domains.
What are the domains?
Bacteria and Archae
Which of the following molecules contains the most polar covalent bond?
h20
Fluorine has an atomic number of 9 and a mass number of 19. How may
electrons are needed to complete the valence shell of a fluorine atom?
1
Why does ice float in liquid water?
Hydrogen bonds stabilize and keep the molecules of ice farther apart
than the water molecules of liquid water
Through time, the lineage that led to modern whales shows a change
from four-limbed land animals to aquatic animals with two limbs that
function as flippers. This change is best explained by
natural selection
Organisms interact with their environments, exchanging matter and
energy. For exapmle, plant chloroplasts conver the energy of sunlight into
chemical energy
Which brand of biology is concerned with the naming and classifying
of organisms?
taxonomy
A slice of pizza has 500 kcal. If we could burn the pizza and use a
the heat to warm a 5-L container of cold water, what would be the
approximate increase in the temperature of the water?
10 C
Knowing just the atomic mass of an element alows inferences about
which of the following?
the number of protons plus neutrons in the element
The partial negative charge in a molecule of water occurs because
the electrons shared between the oxygen and hydrogen atoms spend more
time around the oxygen atom nucleus than around the hydrogen atom nucleus
What coefficients must be placed in the following blanks so that all
atoms are accounted for in the products?
C6 H12 O6 -> _C2H6O+_CO2
2;2
Which of the following statements is false?
Virtually all organisms require the same elements in the same quantities
Hydrophobic substances such as vegatable oil are
nonpolar substances that repel water molecules
What is the maximum number of covalent bonds an elemen with atomic
number 8 can make with hydrogen?
2
Which of the following is a hydrophobic material?
butter
The application of scientific knowledge for some specific purpose
known as
technology
Which of the following best describes the logic of scientific inquiry?
If my hopthesis is correct, I can expect certain test results
A controlled experiment is one that
tests experimental and control groups in parallel
In a single molecule of water, two hydrogen atoms are bonded to a
single oxygen atom by
polar covalent bonds
According to Darwainian theory, which of the following exhibits the
greatest fitness for evolutionary success?
the individuals within a population that have the greatest
reproductive success
What is the hydrogen ion [H+] concentration of a solution of pH 8?
10-8 M
If the pH of a solution is increased from pH 5 to pH 7, it means that the
concentration of OH - is 100 times greater than what it was at pH 5
A dietary calorie equals 1 kilocalorie. which of the following
statements correctly defines 1 kilocalorie?
1,000 calories, or the amount of heat equired to raise the
temperature of 1 kg of water 1 C
Systems biology is mainly an attempt to
understand the behavior of entire biological systems
All the organisms on your campus make up
a community
In what way are elements in the same clumn of the periodic table the same?
they have the same nmber of electrons in theri valence shell
electrons exist only at fixed levels of potential energy. however, if
an atom absorbs sufficient energy, a possible result is that
an electron may move to an electron shell closer to the nucleus
why is each element unique and different from other elements in
chemical properties?
each element has a unique number of protons in its nucleus
one ole (mol) of glucose (molecular mass = 180 daltons) is
both 180 grams of glucose and x 1023 molecules of glucose
Which of the following solutions owuld require the greatest amount of
base to be added to bring the solution to neutral pH?
gastric juice at pH2
Which of the following is an example of qualitative data?
the spider spun its web in a circular motion
nitrogen (N) is much more electronegative than hydrogen (H) which of
he following statements is correct about the atoms in ammonia (NH3)?
each hydrogen atom has apartial positive charge; the nitrogen atom
has a partial negative charge
we can be sure that a mole of table sugar and a mole of vitamin C are
equal in their
number of molecules
the main source of energy for producers in an ecosystem is
light energy
which type of bond must be broken for water to vaporize?
hydrogen bonds
The slight negative charge at one end of one water molecule is
attracted to the slight positive charge of another water molecul. what
is this attraction calle?
a covalent bond
which of the following explains most specificallly the attraction of
water molecules to one another?
hydrogen bond
when applying the process of science, which of these is tested?
a prediction
a solution contains 0.00000001 (10-7) moles of hydroxyl
ions [OH-] per liter. which of the following best describes this solution?
neutral
an atom with atomic number 12 would have what type of chemical
behavior in bonding with other elements
it would form ions with a +2 charge
Why is it important that an experiment include a control group?
without a control group, there is no basis for knowing if a
particular result is due to the variable being tested
which statment is true of all atoms that are anions?
the atom has more electrons than protons
which of the following takes place as an ice cube cools a drink?
kinetic energy in the drink decreases
when two atoms are equally electronegative, they will interact to form
nonpolar covalent bonds
The element present in all organic molecules is
carbon
the complexity and variety of organic molecules is due to
the chemical versatility of carbon atoms
which of the following is true of carbon
it can form both polar and nonpolar bonds
how many electron pairs does carbon share to complete its valence shell
4
a carbon atom is most likely to form what kind of bond(s) with other atoms
covalent
why are hydrocarbons insoluble in waer
the majority of their bonds are nonpolar covalent carbon-to-hydrogen linkages
research idicates that ibuprofen, a drug used to relieve inflammation
and pain, is a mixure of two enantiomers; that is, molecules that
are mirror images of each other
which two functional groups are always found in amino acids
carboxyl and amino groups
why is carbon so important to biology
it can form a variety of carbon skeletons and host functional groups
Which of the following is a false statement concerning amino groups?
amino groups
are nonpolar
which of these classes of biological molecules does not include polymers?
lipids
which of the following is not a polymer?
glucose
how many molecules of water are used to completely hydrolyze a
polymer that is 11 monomers long?
10
what is the difference between an aldose sugar and a ketose sugar?
the position of the carbonyl group
testoterone and estradiol are male and female sex hormones,
respectively, in many vertbrates. in what way(s) do these molecules
differ from each other? testerone and estradoil
have different functional groups attached to the same carbon skeleton
what is the major structural difference between starch and glycogen?
the amount of branching that occurs in the molecule
what does the term insoluble fiber refer to on food packages?
cellulose
a molecule with the chemical formula C6H12O6 is probably a
monosaccharide
lactose, a sugar in milk, is composed of one glucose molecule joined
by a glycosidic linkage to one galactose molecule. how is lactose classified?
as a disaccharide
humans can digest starch but not cellulose because
humans have enzymes that can hydrolyze the a-glcosidic linkages of
starch but not the b-glysosidic linkages of cellulose
how do phospholipids interact with water molecules
the polar heads interact with water; the nonpolar tails do not
which of the following isthe best explanation for why vegatable oil
is a liquid at room temperature while animal fats are solid?
vegatable oile has more double bonds than animals fats
starch and cellulose
are polymers of glucose
what component of amino acid structure varies among different amino acids?
the components of the R-group
you disrupt all hydrogen bonds in a portein. what level of structure
will be preserved?
primary structure
all of the following contain amino acids except
cholesterol
which level of protein structure do the a-helix and the b-pleated
sheet represent?
secondary
the tertiary structure of a protein is the
unique three-dimensional shape of the fully folded polypeptide
what is the term used for a protein molecule that assists in the
proper folding of other proteins?
chaperonin
nucleic acids are polymers made up of which of the following monomers?
nucleotides
which of the following includes all of the pyrimidines found in RNA
and DNA?
cytosine, uracil, and thymine
If a DNA sample were composed at 10% thymine, what would be the
percentage of guanine?
40
the advantage of light micrscopy over electron microscopy is that
light microscopy allows one to view dynamic processes in living cells
all of the following are part of a prokaryotic cell except
an endoplasmic reticulum
in the fractionation of homogenized cells using centrifugation, the
primary factor that determines whether a specific cellular component
ends up in the supernatant or the pellet is the
size and weight of the component
cell size is limited by
surface to volume ratios
prokaryotes are classified as belonging to two different domains.
what are the domains?
bacteria and archae
which structure is common to plant and animal cells?
mitochondrion
in a bacterium, we will find dna in
the nucleoid
which organelle or structure is absent in plant cells
centrosomes
which of the following macrmolecules leaves the nucleus of a
eukaryotic cell through pores in the nuclear membrane
mRNA
large numbers of ribsosomes are present in cells tat specialize in
producing which of the following molecules
proteins
which organelle often takes up much of the volume of a plant cell
vacuole
the liver is involved in detoxification of many posions and drugs.
which of the following structures is primaril involved in this process
and therefore abundant in liver cells
goli appratus
which of the following produces and modifies polysaccharides that
will be secreted
lysosome
which organelle is the primary site of atp synthesis in eukaryotic cells
mitochondrion
asbestos is a material that was once used extensively in
construction. one risk from working in a building that contains
asbestos is the development of asbestosis caused by the inhalation of
asbestos fibers. cells will phagocytize asbestos, but are not able to
degrade it. as a result, asbestos fibers accumulare in
ribosomes
thylakiods, dna, and ribosomes are all compents found in
chloroplasts
which of the following contain the 9+2 arrangement of microtubules,
consisting of nine doublets of microtubules surrouding a pair of
single microtubules
flagella and motile cilia
plasmodesmata in plant cells are most similar in function to which of
the following structures in animal cells
gap junctions
where would you expect to find tight junctions
in the epithelium of an animal's stomach
water molecules are attracted to one another by
hydrogen bonds
According to the fluid mosaic model of cell membranes, phospholipids
they can move lateraly along the plane of the membrane
An animal cell lacking oligosaccharides on the eternal surface of its
plasma membrane would likely be impaired in which function
cell-cell recongiction
which of these are not embedded in the hydrophobic portion of the
lipid bilayer at all?
peripheral proteins
why are lipids and proteins free to move laterally in membranes
there are only weak hydrophobic interactions in the interior of the membrane
Which of the following is a reasonable explanation for why
unsaturated fatty acids help keep any membrane more fluid at lower temperatures?
The double bonds form kinks in the fatty acid tails, forcing adjacent
lipids to be further apart/preventing adjacent lipids from packing tightly
What kinds of molecules pass through a cell membrane most easily?
small and hydrophobic
Which of the following most accurately describes selective permeability?
Only certain cells can cross through the cell membrane
Which of the following allows water to move much faster across cell membranes?
aquaporins
Diffision
is a passive process in which molecules move from a region of higher
concentration to a region of lower concentration
When a cell is in equilibrium with its environment, which of the
following occurs for substances that can diffuse through the cell?
There is random movement of substances into and out of the cell.
Which of the following is true of osmosis?
In osmosis, water moves across a membrane from areas of lower solute
concentration to areas of higher solute concentration.
A patient was involved a serious accident and lost a large quantity
of blood. In an attempt to replenish body fluids, distilled
water�equal to the volume of blood lost�is added to the blood directly
via one of his veins. What will be the most probable result of this transfusion?
The patient's red blood cells will swell and possibly burst because
the blood has become hypotonic compared to the cells.
Which of the following statements correctly describes the normal
tonicity conditions for typical plant and animal cells? The animal
cell is in
an isotonic solution, and the plant cell is in a hypotonic solution
A sodium-potassium pump
move three sodium ions out of a cell and two potassium ions into a
cell while consuming an ATP for each cycle
The sodium-potassium pump is called an electrogenic pump because it
contributes to the membrane potential
The voltage across a membrane is called the
membrane potential
White blood cells engulf bacteria using _____.
phagocytosis
The difference between pinocytosis and receptor-mediated endocytosis
is that
pinocytosis is nonselective in the molecules it brings into the cell,
whereas receptor-mediated endocytosis offers more selectivity.
Which of the following is true of metabolism in its entirety in all organisms?
Metabolism consists of all the energy transformation reactions in an organism.
Which of the following is an example of potential rather than kinetic energy?
a molecule of glucose
Most cells cannot harness heat to perform work because
temperature is usually uniform throughout a cell.
Which term most precisely describes the cellular process of breaking
down large molecules into smaller ones?
catabolism
Which of the following is a statement of the first law of thermodynamics?
Energy cannot be created or destroyed.
The mathematical expression for the change in free energy of a system
is ?G =?H - T?S. Which of the following is (are) correct?
?G is the change in free energy.
Which of the following types of reactions would decrease the entropy
within a cell?
anabolic reactions
A system at chemical equilibrium
can do no work
A chemical reaction that has a positive ?G is correctly described as
endergonic
Why is ATP an important molecule in metabolism?
It provides energy coupling between exergonic and endergonic reactions.
Which of the following is most similar in structure to ATP?
an RNA nucleotide
When chemical, transport, or mechanical work is done by an organism,
what happens to the heat generated?
It is lost to the environment.
Which of the following statements regarding enzymes is true?
Enzymes increase the rate of a reaction by lowering the activation
energy barrier.
Reactants capable of interacting to form products in a chemical
reaction must first overcome a thermodynamic barrier known as the reaction's
activation energy
The active site of an enzyme is the region that
is involved in the catalytic reaction of the enzyme
A noncompetitive inhibitor decreases the rate of an enzyme reaction
by _____.
changing the shape of the enzyme's active site
Substrate-level phosphorylation occurs
in both glycolysis and the citric acid cycle
The molecule that functions as the reducing agent (electron donor) in
a redox or oxidation-reduction reaction
loses electrons and loses potential energy
The oxygen consumed during cellular respiration is involved directly
in which process or event?
accepting electrons at the end of the electron transport chain
In glycolysis, for each molecule of glucose oxidized to pyruvate
two molecules of ATP are used and four molecules of ATP are produced.
Substrate-level phosphorylation accounts for approximately what
percentage of the ATP formed by the reactions of glycolysis?
100%
Starting with citrate, which of the following combinations of
products would result from three acetyl CoA molecules entering the
citric acid cycle (see the accompanying figure)?
3 ATP, 6 CO2, 9 NADH, and 3 FADH2
Which of the following events takes place in the electron transport chain?
the extraction of energy from high-energy electrons remaining from
glycolysis and the citric acid cycle
The electron transport chain
is a series of redox reactions
During aerobic respiration, electrons travel downhill in which sequence?
glucose ? NADH ? electron transport chain ? oxygen
Where are the proteins of the electron transport chain located?
mitochondrial inner membrane
In respiration, beta oxidation involves the
breakdown of fatty acids
Canine phosphofructokinase (PFK) deficiency afflicts Springer
spaniels, affecting an estimated 10% of the breed. Given its critical
role in glycolysis, one implication of the genetic defect resulting in
PFK deficiency in dogs is _____.
an intolerance for exercise
In the absence of oxygen, yeast cells can obtain energy by
fermentation, resulting in the production of
ATP, CO2, and ethanol (ethyl alcohol)
Which of the following occurs in the cytosol of a eukaryotic cell?
glycolysis and fermentation
Which of the following normally occurs regardless of whether or not
oxygen is present?
glycolysis
Approximately how many molecules of ATP are produced from the
complete oxidation of two molecules of glucose (C6H12O6) in aerobic
cellular respiration?
60-64
The state
organizational system of power and authority in society
The state
abstract concept
government legal system police
military prison
The state
regulate social order
individual behavior -> interpersonal conflicts ->
international affairs
The state
regulates
birth control cirriculum choices in public
schools
The state
roles:
determining righ/privledges of various groups
citzenship marruage deciding which actions are
legitmate and which are not protecting citizens
Power
ability to excercise one's will over others
Legititamate power
accepted by the members
Authority
power that people accept because it comes from a source that seems to
be legitimate
Representative democracy
a government where in citizens elect officials to represent their interests
politics
a means of studying a nation's or group's underlying social norms and
values as evidence through its political structure and practices
voter participation
voting rates among lower-educated, lower-paid workers are
lower roughly 50% of the population do not vote
minorities underrepresented
types of authority
traditonal charismatic rational-legal
Traditional authority
power that is legitmized on the basis of long standing customs
monarchy
a single person rules until death or abdicates the throne
believed to be devine rights of a particular family
Charismatic authority
power legitimized on the basis of a leader's exceptional personal qualities
MLK jr., malcom x, mother teresa inspire
followers to make unusual scarificies emerge in a time of
crisis
rational-legal authority
power that is legitimized by rules, regulations, and laws
based on rationale system that allows for this authority
to remain US presidency and congress resides not
in the person, but the office
Forms of Government
monarchy oligarchy dictatorship
democracy
Oligarchy
group of individuals that hold the power by a small, elite group
negative connotations once established it's
harder for middle and lower class citizens to advance their
socioeconomic status
dictatorship
ruled by one single person who has absolute authority over a government
intimidation and brutality
military
powerful/influential institution in almost all societies
largest single US employer (3 million)
privatization of the military
more military functions are paid to private employers
contracting of services with privatization, the military
is more of a business
economy
social institution by which a society's resources (goods and
services) are managed
one of the earliest social structures as society
changes, so does this underlying goals: exchange good and
services allows individuals to meet their needs and wants
equal pay act (1963)
designed to reduce the wage gap between men and women
the great recession
brought on, in part by the predatory lending practices
high/prolonged unemployment extreme reduction in
wealth stagnant wages stocks fell drastically
Distrubition Wealth
the size, income, and wealth of the middle class have been
declining since the 1970s corporate profits have increased
more than 141% and CEO pay has risen by more than 298%
agricultural
improved efficiency in food production - technology created - new jobs
industrial
inventors devised machines - people moved to cities - modernized the world
post industrial
one of the most valuable goods of the modern era is information -
rapid increase in computer use - internet
the first economies arrived when people started raising crops and
domesticating animals
...
primary sector
extracts and produces row materials from the earth
secondary sector
turn raw materials into finished goods
tertiary sector
provides services rather than tangible goods
childcare healthcare
quaternary sector
produces ideas and information
US sector
tertiary
capitalism
an economic system that in which there is private ownership and where
there is an inpetus to produce profit and thereby wealth
focus on benefiting the individual based of the
principles of: market competition private
property pursuit of profit
regulate capitalist market
laws and regulation taxes wage
regulation
socialism
economic system in which there is government ownership in hopes to
share work and wealth equally among the members of society
socialism
benefit entire society everything produced is
considered a social product entitled to a share in any
benefits that come from its sale or use
functionalism
work and the economy are a functional necessity for society
functionalism
the economy is a well-oiled machine that is designed for maximum efficiency
davis-moore thesis
suggests that some social stratification is a social necessity
the more able are "sorted" into prestiqgious
occupations that pay more because they are more valuavle - more
functional for society
conflict
conflict theorists see the class division of labor as the source of
unequal rewards for workers
conflict
some work is more highly valued, both in how it is perceived and how
it is rewarded
symbolic interactionism
theorists analyze what work means to people how interactions in the
workplace form social bonds
symbolic interactionism
focus on the way reality is socially constucted through day-to-day
interaction and society composed of people
career inheritance
a practice where children tend to enter the same or similar
occupations as their families
global economy
all dimensions of economy now cross national boarders
investment production management
economy in one nation now affect the world
globalization
the process of integrating government, cultures, and financial
markets through international trade into a single world market
multinational corporations
receive large share of their revenues from a variety of
nations business across borders concentrate wealth
in the hands of core nations higher powerful with influence
around the world
the immigration and naturalization act (INA)
current immigration policy, annual worldwide limit of 675,000
permanent immigrants - green card- a permanent employment visa - limit
140,000 per year
naturalization process
forms 18 lawful permanent resident (green
card) resided in US at lawful permanent resident for 5
years present at 30 months good moral character
english language knowledge of US
government/history willing and able to take the oath of
allegiance
benefits of globalization
exponentially accelerated progress of development the
creation of international awareness potential for increased
wealth
drawbacks of globalization
force lead to widespread economic damage jobs
are scarce
unemployment rate
the % of those not working but officially defined as looking for work
underemployment
a person who accepts lower paying, lower status job than his or her
education and experience qualifies him or her to perfom
unemployment only count those:
actively looking for work who have not earned income
from a job in the past four weeks those who are ready,
willing, and able to work
working poor
US has a high % of this than many other developed
countries 2009 included 10.4 million Americans
demography
scientific study of population
current state and changed over time in the size,
distribution and composition of human populations
census
a head count of the entire population of a country usually done at
regular intervals
every 10 years undercounts certain populations
(2%) homeless lower SES households required
by the constitution to ensure fair representations gender,
race, ethnicity, age, education, occupation, etc allows
people choose their race 3% choose more than one race
fertility rate
a measure nothing the actual number of children born
crude birthrate
number of live births per 1,000 people per year
mortality rate
a measure of people in a population who die
crude death rate
number derived per 1,000
migration
movement of people in/out of an area
immigration
movement into an area
emmigration
movement out of area
sex ratio (gender ratio)
men to women in a given population
population pyramind
graphic representation that depicts population distrubution according
to age and sex
Baby Boom (1946-1964)
1/3 US population
major impact on the practices, politics, habits,
preferences, and culture of our society
carrying capacity
the amount of people that can live in a given area considering the
amount of avaible resources
maithusian theory
asserting that population is controlled through psotive checks and
preventative checks
a population tends to grow faster people will
starve
cornacopian theory
asserts human ingenuity will rise to the challenge of providing
adequate resources for a growing population
demographic transition theory
describes four stages of population growth
1 stage
birth, death, and infant mortality rates are all high, while life
expectancy is short
stage 2
birthrates are higher while infant mortality and the death rates
drop; life expectancy also increases
stage 3
occurs once a society is thoroughly industrialized; birthrates
decline while life expectancy continues to increase. death rates decrease
stage 4
birth/death rates are decreasing people are healthier and live
longer, and society enters a phase of population stability, overall
population may even decline
urbanization
the study of the social
increased rapidly during the industrial era
urban sociology
the subfield of sociology that studies urbanization
3 prerequisites for the development of a city
good environment with a fresh water and favorable climate
advanced technology, which will produce a food surplus to
support non-farmers strong social organization to ensure
social stability and a stable economy
suburbs
the communities surrounding cities, typically close enough for a
daily commute
exburbs
communities that arise further out than the suburbs and are typically
populated by residents of high socioeconomic status
white flight
the migration of economically secure white people from racially mixed
urban areas toward the suburbs
occuried throughout the twentieth century
gentrification
entry of upper and middle class residents to city areas or
communities that are have been historically less affluent
displaces poor urban under classes by raising costs of
living
3 adverse effects of gentrification
lack of affordability displacement
(indirect.direct) social justice problem
indirect displacement
lack of social network isolation - inability to
purchase items unfamiliar community
climate change
long term shifts in temperature and climate due to human activity
fracking
use recover gas and oil drill into the earth, a high pressure mixture
of water, sand, chemicals into the rock
human ecology
functionalist field of study that looks at on the relationship
between people and their built and natural physical environments
afferent
neurons receive input from a stimulus and relay information toward
the CNS,
efferent
neurons relay messages from the CNS to effector tissues to elicit a response
multipolar
most abundant in body
bipolar
rare; founding some special sensory organs (eye, ear)
unipolar
fused dendrite and axon; found mainly in the PNS
What activates the release of vesicles out of the presynaptic terminal?
ca entering
When one neuron synapses with many other neurons, its considered
divergent pathway
convergent pathway
multiple neuron synapses with one neuron
Communication thru a synapse is considered _________
chemical
axon
part of a neuron where electrical signals travel
What happens during IPSP/EPSP cancellation?
depolarization cancels out hyperpolarization
junction that mediates info transferred between cells
synapes
soma
cell body of neurons
neuron-muscle=
neuromuscularjuntion
Attaches to bones & skin
Skeletal Muscle Tissue
Skeletal Muscle Tissue
Voluntary
Striated
Skeletal Muscle Tissue & Cardiac Muscle Tissue
� Only in the heart
Cardiac Muscle Tissue
Involuntary
Cardiac Muscle Tissue & Smooth Muscle Tissue
In walls of hollow organs
Smooth Muscle Tissue
Smooth Muscle Tissue
Not striated
surrounded by CT
Skeletal muscles:
Skeletal muscles:
� well supplied w/nerves & blood vessels
Each Muscle served by
one artery, one nerve, and one or more veins
Each muscle cell is called a
muscle fiber
Epimysium
Dense regular CT surrounding entire muscle
Perimysium
Fibrous CT surrounding fascicles (groups of muscle fibers)
Perimysium
Fascicles give meat its �grain�
Endomysium
Fine areolar CT surrounding each muscle fiber (cell)
Motor Neurons
Neurons that stimulate skeletal muscle fibers to contract
Blood Supply
� Capillaries deliver oxygen, glucose, FA, etc for ATP
Muscle
100s- 1000s of muscle cells, plus connective tissue wrappings, blood
vessels, and nerve fibers
Fascicle
discrete bundle of muscle cells, segregated from the rest of the
muscle by the connective tissue sheath
muscle fiber
elongated multinucleate cell; it has a banded (striated) appearance
covered externally by the epimysium
muscle
surrounded by a perimysium
fascicle
surrounded by endomysium
muscle fiber
Skeletal Muscle Fiber
Cylindrical cell of 10-100 microns in diameter, up to 30 cm long
Glycosomes
glycogen storage
myoglobin
O2 storage
Skeletal Muscle Fiber Contains
myofibrils, sarcoplasmic reticulum, & T Tubules
Each myofiber is covered by
sarcolemma
Sarcolemma =
plasma membrane of a muscle fiber
Myofibrils
� Densely packed, rodlike elements
� 80% of cell volume
Myofibrils
Myofibrils Exhibit striations:
perfectly aligned repeating series of dark A bands and light I bands
Sarcomere
� Smallest contractile unit (functional unit) of a muscle fiber
� Region of a myofibril btwn two successive Z discs
Sarcomere
Sarcomere
� Composed of thick & thin myofilaments made of contractile proteins
Thick filaments:
run entire length of A band
Thin filaments:
run length of I band and partway into A band
Z disc:
anchors the thin filaments
H zone:
lighter midregion where filaments don�t overlap
M line:
holds adjacent thick filaments together
Excitation - Contraction Coupling:
Mechanism in which an Neuronal Action Potential Causes Skeletal
Muscle Contraction
Muscle Fiber (cell)
long, narrow, multinucleated
T-Tubule =
invagination of sarcolemma deep into cell
Sarcoplasmic Reticulum
storehouse for Ca2+
local depolarization
generation of the end plate potential on the sarcolemma
Action Potential is propagated along
sarcolemma & down T tubule
Thick Filament
many myosin molecules whose heads protrude at opposite ends of the filament
Thin Filament
2 strands of actin subunits twisted into a helix plus 2 types of
regulatory proteins (troponin and tropomyosin)
Myosin can�t interact with actin until
calcium binds to troponin & tropomyosin gets pulled out of way
Action Potential is propagated along
sarcolemma & down T tubule
Calcium binds to troponin and removes
tropomyosin from myosinbinding sites on actin
Relaxed State:
thin & thick filaments overlap slightly
AP Fired:
Calcium binds to troponin & pulls tropomyosin out of way
Contraction:
myosin heads bind to actin, detach, & bind again, propelling thin
filaments toward M line
Motor Unit:
motor neuron & all (4-several hundred) muscle fibers it supplies
Small motor units:
muscles that control fine movements (fingers, eyes)
Large motor units:
weight-bearing muscles (thighs, hips)
Muscle fibers from a motor unit are
spread thruout muscle so that a single motor unit causes weak
contraction of entire muscle
Motor units in muscle usually contract
asynchronously; helps prvn fatigue
Graded contractions are produced by
variations in the number of motor units activated
fine control
ocular muscles
ocular muscles
1 neuron activates 23 fibers
power control
gastrocnemius
gastrocnemius
1 neuron activates 1000 fibers
isotonic/ concentric
same strength
load/ tension causes the muscle to shorten
isotonic/ concentric
isometric
same length
increased load/ tension, muscle does not shorten
isometric
eccentric
lengthening
increased load/ tension but muscle lengthens rather than shortens
eccentric contraction
Muscle Twitch
� Response of muscle to a single, brief threshold stimulus
� Simplest contraction observable in lab
Muscle Twitch
� Strength of muscle�s contraction influenced by:
1. # of fibers stimulated to contract
2. Frequency of stimulation
3. Thickness of each muscle fiber
4. Initial length of muscle fibers when at rest
thick fibers =
more myofibrils, thus more power
Threshold stimulus:
first observable muscle contraction
Increase stimulus strength =
increase muscle contraction
muscle contraction is Controlled by
recruitment
Single stimulus results in
single contractile response--a muscle twitch
If stimuli are given quickly enough,
fused (complete) tetany results
Ca2+ release stimulates
further contraction & temporal wave summation
Response to Change in Stimulus Frequency
� Further increase in stimulus frequency & unfused (incomplete) tetanus
hight stimulus frequencies, no relaxation b/w stimulu
fused (complete) tetanus
stimulus is applied before the muscle relaxes completely
temporal (wave) summation, results in unfused (incomplete) tetanus
ATP is only source used directly for
contractile activities
Available stores of ATP are depleted in
4-6 seconds
� ATP is regenerated by:
#NAME?
ATP stored in muscles is used first
6 seconds
ATP is formed from creatine phosphate and ADP
10 seconds
glycogen stored in muscles is broken down to glucose, which is
oxidized to generate ATP
30- 40 seconds to the end of the exercise
exercise for hours long
ATP is generated by breakdown of several nutrient energy fuels by
aerobic pathway, using oxygen released from myoglobin
is oxygen used in direct phosphorylation
no
products in direct phosphorylation
1 ATP per CP, creatine
duration of energy in direct phosphorylation
15 sec
energy source in direct phosphorylation
CP
direct phosphorylation
coupled reaction of creatine phosphate and ADP
Phosphocreatine:
reserve of high-energy phosphate in muscle
Phosphocreatine/Creatine Phosphate
� Rapid formation of ATP at beginning of muscle contraction
� Acts as bridge to slower multi-enzyme pathways
Phosphocreatine/Creatine Phosphate
At 70% of maximum contractile activity
� Bulging muscles compress blood vessels
� Oxygen delivery impaired
� Pyruvic acid converted into lactic acid
� IF exercise intensity increases beyond 70%
maximal oxygen uptake then glycolysis contributes increased
proportion of total ATP
Glycolysis occurs in
cytosol
anaerobic pathway energy source
glucose
is there oxygen use in anaerobic pathway
no
anaerobic pathway products
2 ATP per glucose, lactic acid
anaerobic pathway energy duration
60 sed
Aerobic Respiration
� Prod of most ATP for muscle contraction occurs at moderate levels
of muscular activity
Aerobic Respiration Occurs in
itochondria
Aerobic Respiration
� 1 glucose = 36 to 38 ATP
Aerobic Respiration energy source
glucose, pyruvic aid, free fatty acids from adipose tissue, amino
acids from protein catabolism
Aerobic Respiration oxygen use?
yes
Aerobic Respiration products
32 ATP per glucose
Aerobic Respiration energy duration
hours
After exercise, rate of oxygen uptake doesn�t return immediately to
pre-exercise levels. Person continues to
breathe heavily.
Oxygen debt to:
� Replace oxygen withdrawn from hemoglobin in blood & myoglobin
in muscle
� Meet extra oxygen demands of tissue warmed by exercise
Oxygen debt to:
Oxygen debt to:
� Supply oxygen needed for metabolism of lactic acid
Fibers can be classified by:
� Maximal velocity of shortening
� Major pathways used to form ATP
Fast Fibers
Have myosin crossbridges that hydrolyze ATP rapidly
Slow Fibers
Have myosin crossbridges that hydrolyze ATP slowly
Oxidative Fibers
Have high capacity for oxidative phosphorylation
Glycolytic Fibers
Have high capacity for glycolysis
Skeletal Muscle Fiber Classification based on speed of
ATP breakdown (at cross bridges) & method of ATP prod
Type I:
Slow twitch, slow oxidative fibers
Type I:
� RED
Type I:
� Small motor units
Very resistant to fatigue but develop less tension
Type I:
Type IIA:
White/RED
Type IIA:
� Fast-oxidative fibers
Develop more tension than Type I; aerobic, but less fatigue resistant
Type IIA:
Type IIA:
� Lg motor units
Type IIB or IIX:
Develop greatest tension but respire anaerobically & fatigue rapidly
Type IIB or IIX:
� White
� Fast-glycolytic fibers
Type IIB or IIX:
slow- twitch
Type I:
Which organ system produces heat for the body?
muscular
Metabolism
is all the chemical reactions that occur in the body
_________ is the breakdown of
molecules
catabolism
_________ is the synthesis of molecules.
anabolism
order of a feedback loop
stimulus, receptor, input, output, response
example of a positive feedback loop
cutting your finger while preparing dinner, which results in platelet clotting
The humerus is ____________ to the carpals
superior
Which quadrant houses the liver?
LUQ
Which organelle is in charge of detoxification?
peroxisomes
mRNA sequence is used to make
proteins
mRNA is transported thru the
nuclear pores to the ribosomes
A woman giving birth is an example of
positive feedback
The ascending colon of the large intestine is found where in the body?
right lumbar region
In which layer of the skin would you find reticular tissue?
dermis
What type of epithelial tissue (ET) is found in the lungs?
simple squamous ET
_____ are receptors for light touch
Meissner�s corpuscles
_____ are receptors for deep touch.
Pacinian corpuscles
__________ is the outer fibers layer of the bone
periosteum
_______________ is the internal
membrane of the bone.
endosteum
Compact bone has _________
osteons
spongy bone has _______
trabeculae
What types of cells are located inside the lacunae of compact bones?
osteocytes
steps of intramembranous ossification
development of ossification center
calcification
formation of trabeculae
development of periosteum
_____________ cells in the Peripheral NS myelinated the axon
Schwann cells
while __________ myelinated
axons in the CNS
oligodendrocytes
Which neurological cell is a key component in the structure of the
blood brain barrier?
astrocytes
_______________ neurons receive input from a stimulus and relay
information toward the CNS
afferent
______________ neurons relay messages from the CNS to effector
tissues to elicit a response.
efferent
bipolar
rare; founding some special sensory organs (eye, ear)
unipolar
fused dendrite and axon; found mainly in the PNS
multipolar
most abundant in body
What activates the release of vesicles out of the presynaptic terminal?
calcium entering
When one neuron synapses with many other neurons, its considered
divergent pathway
Communication thru a synapse is considered _________
chemical
describes a synapse
junction that mediates info transferred between cells
What happens during IPSP/EPSP cancellation?
depolarization cancels out hyperpolarization
In the sodium/potassium ATPase, how many Na+ are forced out of the cell
3
In the sodium/potassium ATPase, how many K+ are forced into the cell?
2
Which drug interrupts AP propagation?
lidocaine
Which of the following contributes to a resting membrane potential?
low Na+ concentration inside the cell; high K+ inside the cell
During hyperpolarization of the AP, the Na+ and K+ gated channels are
in which state?
Na+ closed; K+ closed
What type of antagonist is bungarotoxin (from the krait snake)?
nicotinic receptor
What neurotransmitter, when released in levels lower than usual, is a
culprit for depression?
serotonin
What happens to the excess acetylcholine left in the synaptic cleft
after it has activated its receptor?
AChE breaks down ACh into an acetyl group and a choline
What inhibitor degrades monoamine neurotransmitters in the
presynaptic membrane?
Monoamine Oxidase (MAO)
Cyclic AMP activates what protein within the �cAMP G-Protein Coupled
Receptor system?�
adenylate cyclase
Which region of the brain does not have blood barrier functions?
choroid plexus
Which sensory area is related with the insula?
primary gustatory
transverse fissure separates
cerebrum and cerebellum
association fibers connect with
same hemisphere of the brain
Which lobe is involved with hearing?
temporal
What protects the spinal cord, from superficial to deep?
dura mater; arachnoid mater; pia mater
What is the purpose of ascending pathways?
conducts impulses from proprioceptors
What is more superficial to the spinal cord?
white matter
What is inside of the dorsal root ganglia?
sensory neuron cell bodies
What is the function of the spinal cord?
spinal reflex center & provides two-way communication to and from
the brain
What system is also known as �fight or flight�?
sympathetic NS
a cooperative action of the Sympathetic and Parasympathetic nervous systems?
copulation (sexual intercourse)
Sleep apnea is caused by which of the cranial nerves?
IX, XII
What is meant by the term �dual innervation?�
parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems innervate the
same organ/tissue
In the Sympathetic NS, _________ is released from the preganglionic
neuron axon terminal
acetylcholine
In the Sympathetic NS, ________ is released from the axon terminal of
the postgaglionic neuron.
norepinephrine
In the parasympatic nervous system, the preganglionic axon is
short
Does epinephrine favor alpha receptors or beta receptors?
beta
protects, supports, framework, forms blood cells, stores minerals
skeletal
Which organ system produces heat for the body?
muscular
muscular
manipulation of env., allows locomotion, facial expression, posture, heat
integumentary
external body covering, protects, synthesizes vitD, cutaneous, sweat,
% oil glands, water proof
nervous-
brain, spinal cord, respond to internal/external change, activates
muscles and glands
_________ is the breakdown of molecules
catabolism
_________ is the synthesis of molecules.
anabolism
exocytosis:
in our cells
endocytosis:
out of our cells
Negative Feedback
shivering, blood sugar, homeostasis, blood pressure, increase
insulin, increase glycogen, increase body temperature.
Positive Feedback:
clotting (cut on finger), give birth, non- homeostatic, short- term response
The humerus is ____________ to the carpals
superior
superior
cranial
inferior-
caudal;
nasal is _________ to chin
inferior
ventral
anterior
breastbone is _________ to to spine
anterior
posterior
dorsal
heart is __________ to the breastbone
posterior
RUQ-
liver, gallbladder
RLQ
cecum, appendix
LUQ-
stomach, diaphragm
LLQ
intestines
organelle is in charge of detoxification
peroxisomes
�garbage disposal�& apoptosis
lysosomes
make proteins
ribosomes
microtubules
tubules- in cytoskeleton= maintain structure
public region, urinary bladder
hypogastric region
left lumbar region
large intestine
right iliac region
cecum, appendix
right lumbar region
ascending colon of large intestine
Right Hypochondriac
liver and gallbladder
Epigastric
stomach
Umbilical
small intestine
Left Illiac
colon
hypodermis
adipose tissue
epidermis-
keratinized stratified squamous epithelium
epithelial layer
covering, lining, glandular epithelial
dermis
papillary, reticular
endocrine system
pineal gland, pituitary, thyroid, thymus, skin, fat tissue
simple squamous ET
lungs, heart, blood vessels, lymphatic vessels
pseudostratified columnar ET
trachea, large glands
stratified columnar ET
glands, male urethra
_____ are receptors for light touch
Meissner�s corpuscles
receptors for deep touch.
Pacinian corpuscles
apocrine-
sebum, sweat, fatty substances, proteins, hair regions, and sexual scent
eccrine
sweat glands, connected to pores, exocytosis
__________ is the outer fibers layer of the
periosteum
_______________ is the internal membrane of the bone.
endosteum
During endochondrial ossification,
bone replaces cartilage
Compact bone has _________
osteons
whereas spongy bone has _______
trabeculae
bone destroy, use it or lose it
osteoclasts
osteocytes
mature bone cells w/ bone matrix surrounded by lacunae
osteoblast
bone building/ forming
osteogenic
stem cells in periosteum & endosteum, become osteoblasts
steps of intramembranous ossification
development of ossification center
calcification
formation of trabeculae
development of periosteum
what do intramembranous ossification form
flat bones
Endochondral Ossification:
Bone collar forms around hyaline
(chondrocytes)
Cartilage in center of diaphysis calcifies &
develops cavities
Periosteal bud invades internal cavities; spongy
bone forms
Diaphysis elongates & medullary cavity form;
2nd ossification center appears in epiphyses
Epiphysis ossify; hyaline only in epiphyseal
plates & articular cartilage
_____________ cells in the Peripheral NS myelinated the axon,
Schwann cells
myelinated axons in the CNS.
oligodendrocytes
astrocytes
most abundant, info in brain processing, blood brain barrier
ependymal cells
diff shape, ciliated, separate CNS interstitial fluid from CSF cavity
key component in the structure of the blood brain barrier?
astrocytes
microglia-
small, mirgrate to injured neurons
satellite cells-
surround neuron cell bodies in PNS, only in PNS
White matter contains
myelinated fibers
grey matter is made of
unmyelinated fibers.
___________ neurons receive input from a stimulus and relay
information toward the CNS
afferent
________ neurons relay messages from the CNS to effector
tissues to elicit a response.
efferent
motor
efferent
sensory
afferent
afferent
detect internal & external stimuli
interneuron
neuron b/w afferent & efferent neurons; CNS
When one presynaptic neuron synapses with many postsynaptic
neurons, it�s considered
divergent pathway
convergent pathway-
presynaptic: many neurons synapses with 1 postsynaptic neuron
Communication thru a synapse is considered _________
chemical
on the axon going b/w Nodes of Ranvier
electrical
What best describes a synapse?
junction that mediates info transferred between cells
part of a neuron where electrical signals travel-
axon
cell body of neurons-
Grey Matter
#NAME?
gap between two muscles-
What happens during IPSP/EPSP cancellation?
depolarization cancels out hyperpolarization
action potential fires-
Increased stimulus intensity
depolarization occurs
Excitatory PSP (EPSP)
hyperpolarization occurs
Inhibitory PSP (IPSP)
In the sodium/potassium ATPase, how many Na+ are forced out of the
cell and how many K+ are forced into the cell?
3,2
Which drug interrupts AP propagation?
lidocaine
Mesolimbic Dopamine System
marijuana-
contributes to a resting membrane potential?
low Na+ concentration inside the cell; high K+ inside the
cell
Depolarization
high Na+ concentration inside the cell; low K+ outside the cell
high sodium concentration inside and outside the cell
Repolarization
Hyperpolarization
high K+ concentration inside and outside the cell-
During hyperpolarization of the AP, the Na+ and K+
gated channels are in which state?
Na+ inactive; K+ open
Resting Membrane Potential
Na+ closed; K+ closed
Depolarization
Na+ open; K+ closed-
What type of antagonist is bungarotoxin (from the krait snake)?
nicotinic receptor
nicotinic receptor
excitatory, depolarization, skeletal muscles
muscarinic receptor
Atropine, inhibitory, GPCR, cardiac/ smooth muscles, in glands
when released in levels lower than usual, is a culprit for depression
serotonin
glutamate
memory
pleasure
dopamine
wakefulness, appetite control, learning & memory
histamine-
Acetylcholine is released from vesicles in the presynaptic membrane
and binds to acetylcholine receptors on the post-synaptic membrane.
What happens to the excess acetylcholine left in the synaptic cleft
after it has activated its receptor?
AChE breaks down ACh into an acetyl group and a choline- For
Alzheimers
degrades monoamine neurotransmitters in the
presynaptic membrane
Monoamine Oxidase (MAO)
Acetylcholinesterase
in synaptic cleft on both postsynaptic membrane & immediately
outside membrane
biogenic amines
Monoamine
Cyclic AMP activates what protein within the �cAMP G-Protein Coupled
Receptor system?�
adenylate cyclase
atropine
inhibitory- muscarinic ACh receptor antagonist
Which region of the brain does not have blood barrier functions?
choroid plexus hypothalamus pineal gland
primary olfaction
temporal
primary visual
occipital
temporal
primary auditory
primary gustatory-
insula
The transverse fissure separates
the cerebrum and cerebellum
post central gyrus and pre central gyrus
central sulcus
left and the right hemisphere-
longitudinal; corpus callosum connects
The association fibers connect with
same hemisphere of the brain
frontal
personality/ higher thinking
temporal
hearing
occipital`
visual
parietal
sensory
What protects the spinal cord, from superficial to deep?
dura mater; arachnoid mater; pia mater
What is the purpose of ascending pathways?
conducts impulses from proprioceptors
What is inside of the dorsal root ganglia?
sensory neuron cell bodies
function of the spinal cord
spinal reflex center provides two-way communication to
and from the brain
sympathetic NS
fight or flight
somatic NS-
sensory, Dorsal root ganglia
rest and digest
parasympathetic NS
cooperative action of the Sympathetic and
Parasympathetic nervous systems?
copulation (sexual intercourse)
heart rate regulation-
Parasympathetic, Medulla oblongotta (most caudal)
digestion regulation-
Parasympathetic, Medulla
Medulla oblongotta (most caudal)
respiratory rate regulation
Sleep apnea is caused by which of the cranial nerves?
. IX, XII
dual innervation
parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems innervate the
same organ/tissue
_________ is released from the preganglionic neuron axon terminal
acetylcholine
released from the axon terminal of the postgaglionic neuron.
norepinephrine
epinephrine-
methylating norepinephrine
preganglionic axon
short light myelinated, postganglionic axon is long unmyelinated.
Sympatic:
long light myelinated, postganglionic axon is short unmyelinated
In the adrenal medulla, what percentage of epinephrine and
norepinephrine is released into the blood?
85% and 15%, respectively
Does epinephrine favor alpha receptors or beta receptors?
BETA
Norepinephrine
alpha