Class _______________ antibodies are the first class of antibodies
made by plasma cells because they are so effective.
IgM
Acquired immunity is also known as _______________ immunity because
it is directed at one particular invader at a time.
Specific
Natural killer cells have receptor sites to the ______________ region
of IgG "labels" on foreign cells.
Constant
___________ are soluble proteins formed in humoral response to the
presence of an antigen;
They recognize it, bid to it, and cause its destruction.
Antibodies
Gut associated lymphoid tissue (GALT) in humans is called ________ _________.
Peyer's Patches
Class __________ antibodies are located on the surface of mast cells
or basophils;
The trigger degranulation and histamine release if and when they
encounter their antigen.
IgE
Antibody classes IgG,IgE, and _________ all have two antigen binding sites.
IgD
Cellular immunity is associated with the tissues and is due to the
production of T-___ lymphocytes that are "trained" to react
with foreign invaders.
Cytotoxic
Antibodies are composed of amino acids, so they are_________ molecules.
Protein
________ immunity is not innate, but learned following
"experience" with the antigen by way of the disease or vaccination.
Acquired
_________ _________ are also called epitopes;
They are chemical groupings that stick out from a molecules and that
make it foreign and antigenic;
They are the site of recognition as well as the location of Ag/Ab reactions.
Antigenic Determinants
T lymphocytes secrete cytokines called _____________ to communicate
with themselves or other cells.
Lymphokines
Class ________ antibodies are the second class of antibodies made by
plasma cells, following IgM production.
IgG
An activated T lymphocyte undergoes repeated cell divisions to
produce a ___________ of "competent" cells.
Clone
Class __________ antibodies are the largest in size, with five
connected antibody units providing ten antigen binding sites.
IgM
______ (also called Immunogens) are substances capable of generating
an immune response.
Antigens
Interleuken-I, Interleuken-II, MAF, MIF, CF, TF, and suppressor
factors are all __________.
Chemical signals that cells use to communicate with other cells.
Cytokines
The polypeptide wrapped around the middle of class IgA antibodies
that helps them get to the surface of a mucous membrane and protects
them from enzyme action I called the ________ ________.
Secretory Component
A _________ shot given periodically following immunization functions
in much the same way as re-exposure to a previous disease organism
does, by boosting antibody levels.
Booster
Antigenic determinants are also called ______;
They are chemical groupings that stick out from molecule and that
make it foreign an antigenic;
They are the site of recognition as well as the location of Ag/Ab reactions.
Epitopes
Mast cells and basophils both contain granules of _________;
When released, it initiates inflammation.
Histamine
A ________ is any chemical released by a cell to communicate with
other cells.
Cytokines
Class ________ antibodies are small enough to leave the blood through
the slits in the wall of a capillary ad enter the tissues or crass the placenta.
IgG
The basic antibody molecule contains two _______ polypeptide chains
composed of approximately 440 amino acids each.
Heavy
Tc Lymphocytes have CD3 and CD ____ receptors on their surface.
Eight (8)
A ______ is a foreign molecule like penicillin that is too small to
be a compete antigen by itself;
It can only become antigenic when attached to a carrier molecule of
the body.
However, once immunity develops, the presence of the ______ alone
can trigger the immune response.
Hapten
_________ factor downgrades the humoral immune response in two ways;
It stops any more IL-II release from Th lymphocytes and stops any
more B Lymphocytes from developing into plasma cells.
Suppresor
Class IgE antibodies are nicknamed our "________"
antibodies because they are responsible for hay fever, food allergies,
and hives.
Allergic
A __________ is a cytokine released by monocytes, including macrophages.
Monokine
The _______ is the first cell involved in both
humoral and cellular immunity by processing the antigen.
Macrophage
B Lymphocytes are cells that originate in the ______ _______ _______
and then mature there or in Peyer's patches (GALT) of the intestinal wall.
Red Bone Marrow
A Th Lymphocyte with a premade _________ that matches the antigen
being presented by a macrophage becomes 'excited'
Receptor
A hapten I a foreign molecule like the antibiotic _________ that too
small to be complete antigen by itself;'
It can only become antigenic when attached to a carrier molecule of
the body.
However, once immunity develops, the presence of the hapten alone
can trigger the immune response.
Penicillin
Class ___________ antibodies are the most abundant and the smallest
in size;
They can cross the placenta during the last 6 weeks of pregnancy and
confer to the newborn "short-term" immunity of any diseases
the mother has ever had.
IgG
Activated Th Lymphocytes secrete ________ factor;
This in turn causes B Lymphocytes, Ts and Tc Lymphocytes to undergo
clonal expansion by dividing many times in quick succession to produce
clones of competent cells that recognize the antigen.
Enhancing
__________ immunity is associated with the tissues and is due to the
production of Tc Lymphocytes that are "trained" to react
with foreign invaders.
Cellular
Pollen, spores, dust, pieces of cells, and viruses are all examples
of ________ antigens.
Particulate
Enhancing factor causes B Lymphocytes,Ts and Tc Lymphocytes to
undergo ______ _____ by dividing many times in quick succession to
produce clones of competent cells that recognize the antigen.
Clonal Expansion
__________ markers are self antigens;
All nucleated cells have _______-I on their surface;
B Lymphocytes and macrophages have ________-II on their surface.
MHC
Class IgE antibodies re located on the surface of __________ cells
and basophils;
They trigger degranulation and histamine release if and when they
encounter their antigen.
Mast
During clonal expansion of Tc Lymphocytes, a lymphokine called
__________ Factor "trains" na�ve Tc Lymphocyties directly.
Transfer
Class IgE antibodies are located on the surface of mast cells or _____________.
They trigger degranulation and histamine release if and when they
encounter their antigen.
Basophils
Soluble proteins of blood plasma include albumins, fibrinogens, and
globulins (alpha, beta, and gamma),
Of the globulins, antibodies are in the __________ category.
Gammaglobulins
Complement activating sites are locate on the outsides of the heavy
chains of classes IgG and ____________ antibodies, opposite the double
disulfide bridge.
Igm
In antibody molecules, the top 1/2 of each light chain and the top
1/4 of each heavy chain is different for each antigen;
These regions are called he ____________ regions.
Variable
Class IgA antibodies are nicknamed our "________"
antibodies because they are found in all body secretions, especially mucus.
Secretory
Tc Lymphocytes secrete _________ and granzyme onto their target cell;
__________ enables granzyme to enter the cell where it activates
caspase enzymes;
Th result is apoptosis of the target cell.
Perforin
There are two ways to develop specific resistance against an organism;
Actually having the disease or ___________.(aka immunization).
Vaccinations
____________ can also be called ummunoglobulins or gammaglobulins.
Antibodies
The ____________ response is proof of memory cells;
Re-exposure to an antigen results in high antibody levels in a few
days instead of a few weeks.
Anamnestic
Suppressor factor is a cytokine released by Ts Lymphocytes, so it is
alse called a ________.
Lymphokine
_________ (number) disulfide bridges hold the _________ (number)
polypeptide chains together to form an antibody molecule.
Four (4)
___________ recognition refers to the fact that in both humoral and
cellular immunity, TH Lymphocytes must interact with the antigenic
determinants together
with MHC II antigens on the macrophage surface (like
a "double handshake:).
Associative
Four _______ bridges hold the four polypeptide chains together to
form an antibody molecule.
Disulfide
TH Lymphocytes are involved in developing bother humoral and
__________________ immunity.
Cellular
Class __________ antibodies are the first antibodies made in response
to infection because they are so effective.
IgM
Class __________ antibodies are located on the surface of mast cells
and basophils.
IgE
1) The advantage of light microscopy over electron microscopy is that
_____. 1) _______
A) light microscopy allows one to view dynamic processes in living
cells B) light microscopy provides higher contrast than electron
microscopy C) light microscopy provides for higher resolving
power than electron microscopy
D) light microscopy provides for higher magnification than electron microscopy
A
2) In the fractionation of homogenized cells using centrifugation,
the primary factor that determines whether a specific cellular
component ends up in the supernatant or the pellet is the _____.
A) relative solubility of the component B) size and weight of
the component C) presence or absence of lipids in the component
D) percentage of carbohydrates in the component
B
3) All of the following are part of a prokaryotic cell EXCEPT _____.
A) ribosomes
B) an endoplasmic reticulum
C)a plasma membrane
D)acellwall
B
4) Which structure is common to plant and animal cells?
A) centriole
B) chloroplast
C) mitochondrion
D) central vacuole
C
5) Which of the following is present in a prokaryotic cell? 5)
_______ A) mitochondrion
B) chloroplast
C) ribosome
D) ER
C
6) Which of the following macromolecules leaves the nucleus of a
eukaryotic cell through pores in the nuclear membrane? 6) _______
A) amino acids B) phospholipids C) mRNA D) DNA
C
7) Large numbers of ribosomes are present in cells that specialize in
producing which of the following molecules? 7) _______
A) proteins B) nucleic acids C) lipids D) glycogen
A
8) Which structure is NOT part of the endomembrane system? 8) _______
A) chloroplast B) nuclear envelope C) plasma membrane D) Golgi apparatus
A
9) The liver is involved in detoxification of many poisons and drugs.
Which of the following structures is primarily involved in this
process and, therefore, abundant in liver cells? 9) _______
A) smooth ER B) rough ER C) Golgi apparatus D) nuclear envelope
A
10) What is the most likely pathway taken by a newly synthesized
protein that will be secreted by a cell?
A) ER ? lysosomes ? vesicles that fuse with plasma membrane
B) ER ? Golgi ? nucleus
C) ER ? Golgi ? vesicles that fuse with plasma membrane
D) Golgi ? ER ? lysosome
C
11) Which organelle is the primary site of ATP synthesis in
eukaryotic cells? 11) ______
A) Golgi apparatus B) mitochondrion C) peroxisome D) lysosome
B
12) Motor proteins provide for molecular motion in cells by
interacting with what types of cellular structures? 12) ______
A) components of the cytoskeleton B) cellulose fibers in the
cell wall C) free ribosomes and ribosomes attached to the ER
D) membrane proteins of the inner nuclear envelope
A
13) The extracellular matrix is thought to participate in the
regulation of animal cell behavior by communicating information from
the outside to the inside of the cell via which of the following? 13) ______
A) integrins B) gap junctionsC) DNA and RNA D) the nucleus
A
14) Plasmodesmata in plant cells are most similar in function to
which of the following structures in animal cells? 14) ______
A) extracellular matrix B) desmosomes C) tight junctions D) gap junctions
D
15) Which of these are NOT embedded in the hydrophobic portion of the
lipid bilayer at all?
A) integral proteins B) peripheral proteins C)
transmembrane proteins
D) All of these are embedded in the hydrophobic portion of the lipid bilayer.
B
16) Which of the following is a reasonable explanation for why
unsaturated fatty acids help keep a membrane more fluid at lower
temperatures? 16) ______
A) The double bonds form kinks in the fatty acid tails, preventing
adjacent lipids from packing tightly. B) Unsaturated fatty acids
have a higher cholesterol content and, therefore, more cholesterol in membranes.
C) The double bonds block interaction among the hydrophilic head
groups of the lipids. D) Unsaturated fatty acids are more polar
than saturated fatty acids.
A
17) Which of the following most accurately describes selective
permeability? 17) ______
A) An input of energy is required for transport. B) Only
certain molecules can cross a cell membrane. C) There must be a
concentration gradient for molecules to pass through a membrane.
D) Lipid-soluble molecules pass through a membrane.
B
18) Which of the following would likely move through the lipid
bilayer of a plasma membrane most rapidly?
A) CO2 B) K+ C) glucose D) an amino acid
A
19) Which of the following contain the 9 + 2 arrangement of
microtubules, consisting of nine doublets of microtubules surrounding
a pair of single microtubules?
A) basal bodies and primary (nonmotile) cilia
B) centrioles and basal bodies C) motile cilia and primary
(nonmotile) cilia
D) flagella and motile cilia
D
20) Cilia and flagella bend because of _____. A) a motor
protein called dynein B) the quick inward movements of water by
osmosis. C) conformational changes in ATP that thrust
microtubules laterally
D) a motor protein called radial spokes
A
21) Cells require which of the following to form cilia or flagella?
21) ______
A) tubulin
B) actin C) laminin
D) intermediate filaments
A
22) Which of the following allows water to move much faster across
cell membranes?
A) peripheral proteins
B) the sodium-potassium pump C) ATP
D) aquaporins
D
23) Diffusion _____. 23) ______ A) requires an expenditure of
energy by the cell B) is very rapid over long distances C)
is a passive process in which molecules move from a region of higher
concentration to a region of lower concentration
D) requires integral proteins in the cell membrane
C
24) When a cell is in equilibrium with its environment, which of the
following occurs for substances that can diffuse through the cell? 24) ______
A) There is no movement of substances into and out of the
cell. B) There is directed movement of substances into and out
of the cell.
C) All movement of molecules is directed by active transport.
D) There is random movement of substances into and out of the cell.
D
25) Which of the following is true of osmosis? 25) ______ A) In
osmosis, water moves across a membrane from areas of lower solute
concentration to areas of higher solute concentration. B)
Osmosis is an energy-demanding or "active" process. C)
Osmosis only takes place in red blood cells. D) In osmosis,
solutes move across a membrane from areas of lower water concentration
to areas of higher water concentration.
A
26) Refer t o the figure. Initially, in terms of tonicity, the
solution in side A with respect to the solution in side B is _____.
26) ______
A) saturated B) isotonic C) hypertonic D) hypotonic
B
27) Refer to the figure. After the system reaches equilibrium, what
changes are observed? 27) ______
A) The water level is unchanged. B) The molarity of sucrose is
higher than that of glucose on side A. C) The water level is
higher in side A than in side B.
D) The water level is higher in side B than in side A.
C
28) A patient was involved a serious accident and lost a large
quantity of blood. In an attempt to replenish body fluids, distilled
water�equal to the volume of blood lost�is added to the blood directly
via one of his veins. What will be the most probable result of this
transfusion? 28) ______
A) The patient's red blood cells will burst because the blood has
become hypertonic compared to the cells. B) The patient's red
blood cells will swell and possibly burst because the blood has become
hypotonic compared to the cells. C) The patient's red blood
cells will shrivel up because the blood has become hypertonic compared
to the cells. D) The patient's red blood cells will shrivel up
because the blood has become hypotonic compared to the cells.
B
29) Which of the following membrane activities requires energy from
ATP? 29) ______ A) facilitated diffusion of chloride ions across
the membrane through a chloride channel B) movement of carbon
dioxide out of a paramecium C) movement of glucose molecules
into a bacterial cell from a medium containing a higher concentration
of glucose than inside the cell
D) movement of Na+ ions from a lower concentration in a mammalian
cell to a higher concentration in the extracellular fluid
D
30) Ions diffuse across membranes through specific ion channels down _____.
A) their electrochemical gradients
B) the electrical gradients C) their concentration gradients
D) their chemical gradients
A
31) White blood cells engulf bacteria using _____. 31) ______
A) receptor-mediated exocytosis B) phagocytosis C) osmosis D) pinocytosis
B
32) The difference between pinocytosis and receptor-mediated
endocytosis is that _____. 32) ______ A) pinocytosis is
nonselective in the molecules it brings into the cell, whereas
receptor-mediated endocytosis offers more selectivity. B)
pinocytosis brings only water molecules into the cell, but
receptor-mediated endocytosis brings in other molecules as well.
C) pinocytosis increases the surface area of the plasma membrane,
whereas receptor-mediated endocytosis decreases the
plasma membrane surface area. D) pinocytosis can concentrate
substances from the extracellular fluid, but receptor-mediated
endocytosis cannot.
A
33) A bacterium engulfed by a white blood cell through phagocytosis
will be digested by enzymes contained in _____. 33) ______
A) vacuoles B) secretory vesicles C) lysosomes D) Golgi vesicles
C
34) Which of the following is an example of potential rather than
kinetic energy? 34) ______ A) water rushing over Niagara Falls
B) a molecule of glucose C) a crawling beetle foraging for food
D) light flashes emitted by a firefly
B
35) Which of the following involves a decrease in entropy? 35) ______
A) hydrolysis reactions
B) depolymerization reactions C) reactions that separate monomers
D) condensation reactions
D
36) Which term most precisely describes the cellular process of
breaking down large molecules into smaller ones? 36) ______
A)metabolism
B)anabolism(anabolicpathways)
C) catabolism (catabolic pathways)) dehydration
D) dehydration
C
37) Which of the following is a statement of the first law of thermodynamics?
A) The entropy of the universe is decreasing. B) Energy cannot
be transferred or transformed. C) The entropy of the universe is constant.
D) Energy cannot be created or destroyed.
D
38) Which of the following types of reactions would decrease the
entropy within a cell?
A) digestion B) anabolic reactions C) catabolic reactions D) hydrolysis
B
39) The mathematical expression for the change in free energy of a
system is ?G =?H - T?S. Which of the following is (are) correct? 39) ______
A) ?S is the change in enthalpy, a measure of randomness.B) T
is the temperature in degrees Celsius.C) ?G is the change in
free energy.D) ?H is the change in entropy, the energy available
to do work.
C
40) A system at chemical equilibrium _____. 40) ______ A) has
zero kinetic energy
B) releases energy at a steady rate
C) can do no work
D) consumes energy at a steady rate
C
41) A chemical reaction that has a positive ?G is best described as
_____. 41) ______
A) spontaneous B) enthalpic C) endergonic D) exergonic
C
42) Why is ATP an important molecule in metabolism? 42) ______
A) Its hydrolysis provides an input of free energy for exergonic
reactions. B) It provides energy coupling between exergonic and
endergonic reactions. C) Its terminal phosphate bond has higher
energy than the other two phosphate bonds.
D) Its terminal phosphate group contains a strong covalent bond
that, when hydrolyzed, releases free energy.
B
43) Which of the following is true of enzymes? 43) ______ A)
Enzymes increase the rate of chemical reaction by providing activation
energy to the substrate. B) Enzymes increase the rate of
chemical reaction by lowering activation energy barriers. C)
Enzyme function is increased if the 3- D structure or conformation of
an enzyme is altered. D) Enzyme function is independent of
physical and chemical environmental factors such as pH and temperature.
B
44) Reactants capable of interacting to form products in a chemical
reaction must first overcome a thermodynamic barrier known as the
reaction's _____. 44) ______
A) equilibrium point B) free-energy content C) activation energy D) entropy
C
45) The active site of an enzyme is the region that _____. 45) ______
A) is involved in the catalytic reaction of the enzyme B)
binds allosteric regulators of the enzyme C) binds
noncompetitive inhibitors of the enzyme
D) is inhibited by the presence of a coenzyme or a cofactor
A
46) According to the induced fit hypothesis of enzyme catalysis,
_____. A) the binding of the substrate changes the shape of the
enzyme's active site
B) the active site creates a microenvironment ideal for the
reaction C) some enzymes change their structure when activators
bind to the enzyme
D) the binding of the substrate depends on the shape of the active site
A
47) Increasing the substrate concentration in an enzymatic reaction
could overcome which of the following? 47) ______
A) allosteric inhibition B) the need for a coenzyme C) insufficient
cofactors D) competitive inhibition
D
48) Zinc, an essential trace element for most organisms, is present
in the active site of the enzyme carboxypeptidase. The zinc most
likely functions as _____. 48) ______
A) a coenzyme derived from a vitamin B) an allosteric activator of
the enzyme C) a noncompetitive inhibitor of the enzyme D) a
cofactor necessary for enzyme activity
D
49) A noncompetitive inhibitor decreases the rate of an enzyme
reaction by _____. 49) ______
A) changing the free energy change of the reaction B) changing
the shape of the enzyme's active site C) acting as a coenzyme
for the reaction
D) binding at the active site of the enzyme
B
50) How might a change of one amino acid at a site, distant from the
active site of an enzyme, alter an enzyme's substrate specificity? 50) ______
A) by changing the enzyme's stability B) by changing the
enzyme's pH optimum C) by changing the shape of an enzyme
D) An amino acid change away from the active site cannot alter the
enzyme's substrate specificity.
C
51) In the figure, why does the reaction rate plateau at higher
reactant concentrations?
A) Feedback inhibition by product occurs at high reactant
concentrations. B) Most enzyme molecules are occupied by
substrate at high reactant concentrations.
C) The rate of the reverse reaction increases with reactant concentration.
D) The reaction nears equilibrium at high reactant concentrations.
B
relaxed quiet breathing; tidal volume of 500 mL, respiratory rate of
12-15 breathes/minute
eupnea
temporary cessation of breathing
apnea
labored, gasping breathing; shortness of breath
dyspnea
increased rate and depth of breathing in response to exercise, pain,
or other conditions.
hyperpnea
increased pulmonary ventilation in excess of metabolic demand, leads
to decrease in blood CO2.
hyperventilation
reduced pulmonary ventilation leading to an increase in blood CO2.
hypoventilation
accelerated respiration
tachypnea
deep, rapid breathing induced by acidosis.
Kussmaul respiration
dyspnea that occurs when person is lying down.
Orthopnea
permanent cessation of breathing
respiratory arrest
What Law?
"At the air-water interface, for a given temperature, the
amount of gas that dissolves in water is determined by its solubility
in water and its partial pressure in air, thus O2 and CO2 diffuse down
their own
gradient until partial pressure of each gas in air equals its partial
pressure in water.
Henry's Law
at low oxyhemoglobin levels, the body transports more CO2
The Haldane effect
the body releases more O2 in response to low pH.
The Bohr Effects
PCO2 < 37 mm Hg (CO2 deficiency), most common cause of
alkalosis
Hypocapnia
PCO2 > 43 mm HG (excess CO2), most common cause of acidosis
Hypercapnia
PO2 >60 mm Hg, which will cause an increase in ventilation
Chronic Hypoxemia
With an increased ventilation from Chronic Hypoxemia, this can lead
to... respiration driven more by low PO2 than CO2 or pH, occurs with
emphysema, pneumonia, and being in high altitudes for several days.
Hypoxic Drive
O2 deficiency in tissue, or inability to use O2- usually a
consequence of a respiratory disease. Causes Cyanosis (blueness of skin)
Hypoxia
low arterial PO2 usually due to inadequate pulmonary gas exchange.
Hypoxemic Hypoxia
inadequate circulation of blood- congestive heart failure
Ischemic Hypoxia
anemia> decreased blood O2 carrying capacity
Anemic Hypoxia
metabolic poisons; e.g., cyanide prevent tissues from using O2.
Histotoxic Hypoxia
safe to breathe 100% pure O2 at 1 atm for a few hours, but...
breathed at 2.5 atm or greater generates free radicals & H2O2 that
accumulates in cells, which overwhelm antioxidant defense mechanisms
(Oxidative Stress). Damages intracellular structures and molecules>
then damages nervous tissue> causing seizures, coma, or death.
Oxygen Toxicity
obstruction of airflow and reduced pulmonary ventilation. Major
types: Chronic Bronchitis and Emphysema. Almost always associated with
smoking, but also air pollution, and occupational exposure to airborne irritants.
Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)
severe, persistent inflammation of lower respiratory tract; severe
chronic congestion. Blood flowing through congestion lung areas is
poorly oxygenated> decreases ventilation-perfusion ratio> causes
hypoxemia and cyanosis.
Chronic Bronchitis
alveolar wall breaks down, fewer BIG alveoli> severely
reduced surface area available for gas exchange; lungs also fibrotic,
less elastic- OK inspiration but lungs tend to collapse with exhalation.
Emphysema
protein present in urine
Proteinuria (albuminuria)
blood present in urine
Hematuria
excess urination of more than 2 L/day.
Polyuria
too little urination; less than 500 mL/day
Oliguria
severely too little urination; between 0-100 mL/day (due to: kidney
disease, dehydration, circulatory shock, or enlarged prostate)
Anuria
urine output <400 mL/day, body cannot maintain safe/low
concentrations of waste in plasma, which leads to....
Azotemia
too much water remains in urine... (usually happens with diabetes)
Osmotic Diuresis
glucose in urine
Glucosuria
_____ hypersecretion will lead to impaired water absorption in the
collecting duct.
ADH
any chemical that increases urine volume. (some increase GFR)
Diuretic
________ dilates afferent arteriole and alters effect of ADH.
Caffeine
______ inhibits ADH secretion.
Alcohol
__________ act on the nephron loop- inhibit Na, K, and Cl symport;
impair counter current multiplier reducing medullary osmotic gradient,
causing the collecting duct to not absorb as much water.
Loop Diuretics
volume of blood plasma from which a particular waste is completely
removed in one minute.
Renal Clearance
Clinical GFR is estimated from ________ excretion.
Creatnine
water from aerobic metabolism and dehydration synthesis.
metabolic water
water from food and drink.
Preformed water
unavoidable expired air, cutaneous transpiration, sweat, and fecal moisture
Insensible water loss
plasma volume depletion
Hypovolemia
negative water balance
dehydration
normal osmolarity
isotonic
elevated osmolarity
hypertonic
positive water balance, water intoxication
Hypotonic hydration
reduced osmolarity
hypotonic
blood sodium is too low, causing cellular swelling
Hyponatremia
excess fluid builds up in a particular location.
fluid sequestration
abnormal accumulation of fluid in interstitial spaces, causing
swelling of tissues.
Edema
_________ can cause fluid sequestration; blood will pool in tissues,
less blood in vessles.
hemorrhage
liters of fluid accumulated in pleural cavity, caused by some
lung infections.
Pleural Effusion
Potassium levels >5mEq/L. Inactivates voltage-regulated Sodium
channels, nerve and muscle cells become less excitable.
Hyperkalemia
Plasma Sodium concentration >145 mEq/L. (causes edema, water
retention, and hypertension)
Hypernatremia
Plasma sodium concentration <130 mEq/L. (person loses large
volumes of sweat and urine, but replace it with plain water, results
in excess body water, quickly corrected by excretion of excess water).
Hyponatremia
Potassium levels <3.5mEq/L. (causes: excessive sweating, loss of K
from GI tract, e.g. chronic vomiting, diarrhea, excessive laxative
use; ALDO hypersecretion).
Hypokalemia
Dietary excess of chloride or administration of IV line.
Hyperchloremia
side effect of hyponatremia (low blood sodium), but sometime of
hyperkalemia or acidosis.
Hypochloremia
_______ hypertension: 90% of cases; due to obesity, sedentary
behavior, diet, and nicotine.
Primary Hypertension
_______ hypertension: 10% of cases; secondary to other diseases=
kidney disease, atherosclerosis, hyperthyroidism, and Cushing's.
Secondary Hypertension
any mechanism that resists changes in pH. Converts strong acids or
bases to weak acids or bases.
Buffer
a whole system that controls output of acids, bases, or CO2.
(ex.: Urinary system and Respiratory system.)
Physiological Buffer
substances that binds H+, removing H+ from solution as H+
concentration begin to rise. OR releases H+ into
solution of H+ concentrations begin to fall. Can restore pH FAST,
within milliseconds.
Chemical Buffer
The volume of a gas is directly proportional to its absolute temperature.
Charle's Law
Air present in pleural cavity. causes lung to collaps.
Pneumothorax
partial/all of lung collapse.
Atelectasis