CSD 606 - Module 3 and 4 Questions

T/F- Social Validation is a way of evaluating the daily life significance of changes created by diagnostic results.

FALSE
(by treatment not diagnostic results)

T/F- Treatment teams for TBI only include SLP, OT and PT.

FALSE

Information feedback tells the recipient about:
A. Appropriateness of responses
B. Correctness of responses
C. Accuracy of responses
D. All of the above
E. A and C only

D. All of the above

Resource allocation models of cognition assume which of the following?
A. every human has a finite amount of cognitive resources available
B. resources can stretched depending on the objective activity
C. if resources needed for cognitive processes exceed

D. a and c only

T/F- Vocational therapists help the patient regain the strength, balance, and endurance needed for walking.

FALSE (corrective therapists do this)

What are the two accelerations that cause stretching and sharing of brain tissue? (JV)
A. Linear and Superficial
B. Intracerebral and Extracerebral
C. Linear and Angular
D. Average and Instantaneous

C. Linear and Angular

T/F - Recovery from TBI often follows a stair-step pattern in which intervals of little or no change alternate with intervals of rapid improvement.

True

Head trauma can cause all of the following except:
A. Disruption of blood supply to the brain
B. Disrupt autoregulation of blood pressure
C. Sufficient oxygen supply to brain tissues
D. Cerebral vasospasm

C. Sufficient oxygen supply to brain tissues

T/F - Patients with severe brain injuries do not recover as quickly as patients with milder brain injuries.

TRUE

T/F - Memory loss of events just before and after brain injury is common for adults with TBI.

TRUE

People who have experienced a traumatic brain injury have difficulties with:
A. selective attention
B. sustained attention
C. alternating attention
D. all of the above

D. all of the above

True/ False: Secondary consequences (the brain's physiologic response to the trauma or to the failure of other somatic functions) are typically more devastating than primary consequences. (p. 295)

True

True/False: About half (40-60%) of patients admitted to hospitals with traumatic brain injuries are intoxicated when admitted. (p. 289)

True

Which of the following is NOT mentioned by the book as a factor that can lead to an incorrect assessment of severity in the Glasgow Coma Scale:
A. Patients whose eyes are swollen shut by injury
B. Patients who are intubated but who could otherwise speak
C

C. Patients who show no response to stimulation, whether eye opening, verbal or motor response (p.308)

True/False: TBI is the leading cause of death in children and young adults in the US.

True

Executive function incorporates which of the following EXCEPT?
A. Attention
B. Reasoning
C. Visual comprehension
D. Planning

C. Visual comprehension

Described as "a collection of habits which can be applied automatically without having to think about new responses strategies"
A. long-term memory
B. semantic memory
C. procedural memory
D. prospective memory

C. procedural memory

T/F - The most common means of testing immediate retention span is digit span testing.

True

T/F - Patients with impaired executive function may not spontaneously initiate purposeful activity.

True

Which of the following are tests that assess problem solving skills?
A. Raven's Progressive Matrices
B. Multiple Errands Task
C. Tower Tests
D. Six Elements Test

C. Tower Tests

T/F - The probability of experiencing a TBI is higher in young adults and elderly individuals than in the rest of the U.S. population.

True

T/F - Time Pressure Management (TPM) may help patients with brain injuries compensate for mental slowness by attending to strategic, tactical, and operational aspects of daily life tasks such as driving in traffic, participating in conversations, or prepa

True

T/F - Cerebral swelling is not an important secondary consequence of TBI.

False

T/F - Brain injury may allow normally excluded substances, such as proteins and neurotransmitters, to enter brain tissue.

True
(p. 296 final paragraph)

The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS):
A. rates level of consciousness of patients with head injuries
B. reliably predict head-injured patient recoveries if assigned a few hours post injury
C. has scores that are too coarse to capture small but important patient c

D. all of the above

The Stroop Color and Word Test is a popular test for which type of attention?
A. Focused
B. Selective
C. Divided
D. Alternating

B. Selective

T/F - One of the first procedures designed for assessment of executive functioning was the Six Element Test (SET)

True

__________________ is one of the six subtests of the Behavioural Assessment of Dysexecutive Syndrome (BADS):
A. Zoo map
B. Clock drawing
C. Confrontation naming
D. Mazes

A. Zoo map

_________ is characterized by the ability to attend to more than one activity concurrently.
A. Alternating attention
B. Divided attention
C. Phasic alertness
D. Selective attention

B. Divided attention

T/F - Impaired executive function is a common consequence of injury to the frontal lobe.

True

Which of these are patient-related variables that can be indicators of a brain-injured patient's potential response to treatment?
A. The severity and location of a patient's brain injury.
B. A patient's medical and physical status.
C. A patient's motivati

D. All of the above.

T/F - Many brain-injured patients are attuned to subtle forms of feedback conveyed by a clinician's body language, vocal inflection, and timing in delivery of stimuli or feedback.

True

T/F - Clinician's may adjust the difficulty of treatment tasks by manipulating stimulus aspects such as intensity and clarity.

True

Clinicians may promote generalization of treatment effects to a patient's daily life environment by:
A. Targeting behaviors that will be naturally rewarded in the daily life environment
B. Training in several settings in which generalization is desired
C.

E. All of the above

T/F - Decisions about the best combination of impairment level, activity level, and participation level treatment must only be decided by the clinician.

False

A condition where fluid accumulates between the brain and the skull, in the ventricles, or in brain tissues, causing tissues to swell. Page 295
A. Traumatic hydrocephalus
B. Elevated Intracranial Pressure
C. Cerebral Edema
D. Traumatic brain injury

C. Cerebral Edema

T/F - Epidural hematomas are accumulations of blood between the dura mater and the skull.

True

T/F - Coup and Contrecoup injuries are types of linear acceleration injuries (injuries that occur when the head is struck by a force aligned with the center access of the head)

True
(p. 291)

T/F - Taste and smell are primitive senses that may elicit responses from TBI patients when auditory and visual stimuli do not

True
(p. 307)

What causes most penetrating brain injuries?
A. missiles (e.g., bullets, artillery shell fragments)
B. blunt instruments (e.g., clubs, baseball bats)
C. falls in which the head strikes a sharp object
D. automobile accidents

A. missiles (e.g., bullets, artillery shell fragments)

T/F - Cortical brain injuries are more likely to affect higher-level processes than are subcortical injuries.

True
(p.82)

Which of the following encompases executive functioning? (Pg. 94)
A. Attention and problem solving
B. Memory and planning
C. Response flexibility and abstract thinking
D. All of the above

D. All of the above
(p. 94)

Knowledge of the capital of North Carolina is stored in:
A. retrospective memory
B. declarative memory
C. procedural memory
D. prospective memory

B. declarative memory
(p. 88-87)

What denotes attending to more than one activity concurrently?
A. Sustained attention
B. Divided attention
C. Focused attention
D. Alternating attention

B. Divided attention
(p. 83)

T/F - Retention span is the amount of information an individual can store in memory after a single exposure to the information.

True
(p. 89)

T/F - The severity and location of a patient's brain injury are perhaps the most important indicators of his or her potential response to treatment.

True
[p. 160]

T/F - When 60% of a brain-injured patient's responses on a given task are immediate and correct, the difficulty of the task may be increased.

False
(p. 169 - Correct answer: 90%)

____________ can maintain (or eliminate) behaviors that have the purpose only to elicit (or avoid) the feedback.
A. Information feedback
B. Incentive feedback
C. Clinician feedback
D. Negative feedback

B. Incentive feedback
(p. 170)

T/F - Loose training attempts to prevent responses from being tightly bound to specific consequences.

True
(p. 180)

T/F - Social validation is NOT used for evaluating generalization of skills or behaviors acquired in treatment to a person's daily life.

FALSE
(p.181)

People who have experienced a traumatic brain injury have difficulties with
A. selective attention
B. sustained attention
C. alternating attention
D. all of the above

D. all of the above

True/ False: Secondary consequences (the brain's physiologic response to the trauma or to the failure of other somatic functions) are typically more devastating than primary

True

True/False: About half (40-60%) of patients admitted to hospitals with traumatic brain injuries are intoxicated when admitted.

True

Which of the following is NOT mentioned by the book as a factor that can lead to an incorrect assessment of severity in the Glasgow Coma Scale:
A. Patients whose eyes are swollen shut by injury
B. Patients who are intubated but who could otherwise speak
C

C. Patients who show no response to stimulation, whether eye opening, verbal or motor response

True/False: TBI is the leading cause of death in children and young adults in the US.

True

True or False: Executive Function incorporates aspects of attention, memory, planning, reasoning, and problem solving to organize and regulate purposeful behavior

True

Which of the following attentional processes may be affected by brain injury?
A. Focused attention
B. Sustained attention
C. Selective attention
D. Alternating attention
E. All of the above

E. All of the above

True or False: The Stroop test is a test of auditory selective attention

False

Which of the following is a test of alternating attention?
A. Elevator floor counting
B. Map search
C. lottery
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

E. None of the above

True or False: Phasic alertness denotes an individual's momentary, rapidly occurring readiness to respond.

True

True or False: The relative level of impairment approach is perhaps the most common impairment-level approach in which a patient's performance on various tests is analyzed to identify peaks and valleys in the patient's performance profile.

True

True or False: Clinicians usually adjust the difficulty of treatment activities for brain-injured adults so that patients are challenged but not overwhelmed.

True

What type of design describes when two or more behaviors are are measured under baseline conditions and then treated sequentially?
A. Changing criterion design
B. Crossover design
C. Treatment design
D. Evaluation design

B. Crossover design

What type of design describes when a patient's performance is baselined and behaviors are then treated from the easiest level progressing to the most difficult level?
A. Changing criterion design
B. Crossover design
C. Treatment design
D. Evaluation desig

A. Changing criterion design

Which of the following are generalization procedures?
A. Sequential modification
B. Programming common stimuli
C. Loose Training
D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Subarachnoid hematomas are caused by ruptured:
A. carotid arteries
B. pial vessels
C. middle cerebral artery
D. circle of willis

B. pial vessels

True or False: Taste and smell are phylogenetically primitive senses and may elicit responses from patients with severe brain injuries when visual and auditory stimuli do not.

True

During sensory stimulation the patient is repeatedly exposed to:
A. Auditory
B. Visual
C. Tactile
D. Olfactory & Taste Stimuli
E. All of the above

E. All of the above

The most important factor in predicting whether or not a patient will recover from a traumatic brain injury is:
A. Level of Education
B. Severity of Injury
C. Amount of cerebral swelling
D. Age

D. Age

True/False: The most dangerous consequence of regional increases in intracranial pressure is herniation

True

Knowledge of how to perform behavioral routines learned in the past refers to
A. Prospective memory
B. Procedural memory
C. Declarative memory
D. Semantic memory

B. Procedural memory

Reasoning test may focus on:
A. Verbal reasoning
B. Arithmetic in numeric reasoning
C. Logical reasoning
D. Visual spatial reasoning
E. A, B, and D but not C

E. A, B, and D but not C

True or False: Problem-solving calls on thinking ahead, understanding the consequences of actions, considering alternatives, and making choices.

True

True or False: Sustained Attention denotes attention maintained over time (minutes to hours).

True

_____________ memory (also called short term memory or primary memory) is the second stage in most three-stage models of memory.
A. Sensory
B. Immediate
C. Long-Term Memory
D. Cognitive

B. Immediate

Ture or False: Activity/participation approaches to communication (functional approaches) consider communication a social phenomenon and view the purpose of intervention as enhancement of communicative success in everyday life.

True

Which of the following is NOT an important aspect of cues?
A. Cues lead the patient in the direction of a target response
B. Cues are meant to trick the patient
C. Cues give the clinician a dependable way to get back on track of the task
D. Cues help brea

B. Cues are meant to trick the patient

When giving a brain injured patient instructions for a treatment activity, an SLP has to:
A. Use an appropriate speaking rate to deliver instructions
B. Use language that the patient can understand
C. Give instructions that are concise and clear
D. All of

D. All of the above

True or False: The severity of a brain injured person's cognitive defects is apparent immediately after their injury

False

True or False: Resource Allocation models say that a brain injured person has trouble doing cognitive tasks because they do not have enough mental resources to meet the demands of the cognitive tasks that they are asked to do

True

T/F Estimates of quality of life are based on objective ratings made by the clinician.

FALSE

True/false: ASHA's publication of the Quality of Communication Life Scale is a rating scale designed to be used by caregivers of those with significant language impairments.

False

Which of the following is NOT a quality of life domain assessed by the SIP-68?
A. Somatic Autonomy
B. Mobility and Mobility Range
C. Social Behavior
D. Nutrition and Diet
E. Psychic Autonomy and Communication
F. Emotional Stability

D. Nutrition and Diet

True/False: The FCP and CETI are rating scales designed for subjectively estimating daily life communicative performance.

True

Which of the following 2 tests are subjective rating scales?
A. (Functional Communication Profile) FCP and (Communication Effectiveness Index) CETI
B. FCP and (Communication Abilities Daily Living) CADL
C. CADL and CADL-2
D. CETI and CADL

A. FCP and CETI

Which of the following are early signs of dementia?
A. changes in mood
B. apathy and loss of initiative
C. disorientation
D. misplacing things
E. all of the above

E. all of the above

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of early Pick's Disease?
A. Impairment in ADLs
B. Personality change
C. Memory impairment
D. Impulsivity

C. Memory impairment

Dementia syndromes can be divided into three major categories. Select your response.
A. mixed
B. pseudodementia
C. subcortical
D. cortical
E. vascular

A. mixed
C. subcortical
D. cortical

T/F Progressive supranuclear palsy is an example of a Parkinson-plus disease.

True

T/F The problem for persons in early stage dementia is with recalling past experiences and remembering to do things in the present.

TRUE

Which of the following is not a form of dementia?
A. Cortical
B. Mixed
C. Transverse
D. Subcortical

C. Transverse

Managing _____________ is an important aspect of intervention for people in the early stages of dementia.
A. anger
B. memory
C. confusion
D. depression

C. confusion

Persons in the ________ stages of dementia are no longer capable of collaborating in programs to enhance quality of life and to maximize participation in daily life activities
A. early
B. middle
C. late
D. middle and late

C. late

true/false: Granulovacuolar Degeneration is a pathologic process in which small, fluid-filled cavities containing granular debris appear inside nerve cells.

true

True/False: Lewy body dementia is now one of the most common progressive dementias, ranking behind Alzheimer's dementia and vascular dementia in prevalence.

true

The ASHA Functional Assessment of Communication Skills for Adults is a rating scale designed to capture changes in cognitive-communicative abilities in all but which of the following
A. social communication
B. communication of basic needs
C. narrative abi

C. narrative abilities

Which of the following types of assessments have a place in the assessment of the communicative abilities of brain-injured adults?
A. impairment-level assessment
B. activities-level assessment
C. participation-level assessment
D. all of the above

D. all of the above

True/False: The Communicative Activities in Daily Living-Second Edition (CADL-2) is a subjective measure of functional communication.

False

True/False: The Satisfaction with Life Scale (SWLS) is one of the earliest and most widely used generic measures of quality of life.

true

True/False: The current emphasis on functional outcome and funding sources' restrictions on payment should not lead clinicians to abandon standardized tests with documented validity, reliability, and sensitivity.

True

A degenerative disease that affects nuclei in the midbrain and brainstem, but has an unknown cause of the neural degeneration:
A. Dementia
B. Huntington's Disease
C. Parkinson's Disease
D. Alzheimer's Disease

C. Parkinson's Disease

The speech and language of individuals with Alzheimer's Disease in the early stages resembles which type of aphasia?
A. Broca's aphasia
B. anomic aphasia
C. Wernicke's aphasia
D. global aphasia

B. anomic aphasia

______________ is characterized by gradual deterioration of language functions with no
apparent decline in cognitive functions?
A. primary progressive aphasia
B. pseudodementia
C. Wernicke's aphasia
D. hydrocephalus

A. primary progressive aphasia

T/F Persons in the late stages of cortical dementia rarely have motor impairments, and they do not exhibit overt signs of mental decline that point unequivocally to a diagnosis of dementia.

FALSE

Although several causes of Alzheimer's disease have been proposed, there is no known cause of this disease.

TRUE

True/False: The FCP and CETI are subjective rating scales that are completely reliable from test to test and from rater to rater.

FALSE

Which of the following is true of the Quality of Communication Life Scale?
A. Respondents rate statements using a visual analogue scale.
B. This test must be completed by the caregiver.
C. Even individuals with severe language impairments (e.g. global aph

D. Both A & C

The QCL yields information about the effects of cognitive-communication disorders on which of the following aspects of life?
A. social relationships & leisure
B. communication interactions
C. work & education
D. overall quality of life
E. ALL OF THE ABOVE

E. ALL OF THE ABOVE

True/False: Although The Functional Independence Measure (FIM) is the main outcome measure for program evaluation in rehab medicine, it has been criticized for poor reliability in rating levels of independence.

TRUE

____________ is a rating scale designed to capture changes in cognitive-communicative abilities in four domains: social communication, communication of basic needs, daily planning, and reading/writing/number concepts.
A. Communicative Activites of Daily L

B. ASHA Functional Assessment of
Communication Skills (ASHA FACS)

Which of the following are early signs of dementia?
A. Memory failure
B. Lapses in judgement
C. Changes in mood
D. a and b only
E. all of the above

E. all of the above

T/F - Creutz-Jakob Disease is a form of rapidly progressing dementia and neuromuscular disorder that is rarely fatal.

False

Which of the following are types of dementia are subcortical?
A. Parkinson's Disease
B. Huntington's Disease
C. Alzheimer's Disease
D. Both A and B

D. Both A and B
(Alzheimer's Disease is a cortical dementia p. 351)

Alzheimer's dementia accounts for what percentage of all cases of dementia?
A. 64%
B. 91%
C. 22%
D. 50%

D. 50%

Vascular dementia accounts for what percentage of all cases of dementia?
A. 5%-6%
B. 70%-80%
C. 20%-25%
D. 60%-80%

C. 20%-25%

T/F - The CADL differs from the FCP and CETI in that a patient's performance in an interview and in various simulated daily life communication activities are objectively scored rather than subjectively rated.

True
(p. 146)

T/F - The Satisfaction with Life Scale (SWLS) is a long, comprehensive measure of the quality of life.

False
(p. 151)

The ICIDH conceptualized disability as a three-stage linear process:
A. Disability-Handicap-Impairment
B. Impairment-Disability-Handicap
C. Handicap-Impairment-Disability

B. Impairment-Disability-Handicap
(p. 143)

T/F - Measures of functional communication are never designed for program evaluation.

False
(p. 147)

T/F - The Satisfaction with Life Scale (SWLS) is one of the most widely used and generic measures of quality of life.

True
(p. 151)

T/F - Some of the symptoms of dementia may resemble some of the symptoms of Aphasia.

True

Which of the following is a major category of Dementia syndromes?
A. Cortical Dementia
B. Subcortical Dementia
C. Mixed Dementia
D. All of the Above

D. All of the Above

T/F - Some recent reports suggest that caffeine may slow or even prevent the appearance of Alzheimer's disease.

True

Which of the following is caused by changes in the basal ganglia, thalamus, and brain stem?
A. Cortical dementias
B. Subcortical dementias
C. Mixed dementias
D. None of the above

B. Subcortical dementias

T/F - During the late stages of Alzheimer's, the use of grammar is generally correct while the use of content may be meaningless and bizarre.

False
(Some grammar is preserved, but sentence fragments and deviations are common.)

Which of the following is a standardized measure that estimates daily life communicative performance based on performance in simulated everyday situations?
A. Cognitive Linguistic Quick Test (CLQT)
B. Communicative Activities of Daily Living-Second Editio

B. Communicative Activities of Daily Living-Second Edition (CADL-2)

T/F - The ICIDH (International Classification of Impairments, Disabilities, and Handicaps) conceptualized disability as a three-stage linear process.

True

T/F - Quality of life cannot be directly measured, but estimated by subjective judgements

True

Insurance companies have affected treatment by...
A. Only paying for goals and treatments that can be categorized as "functional".
B. Leading physicians to not conduct certain tests that might be beneficial to patients long term treatment, because these t

D. All of the above

The Quality of Communication Life Scale (QCL) yields information about the effects of cognitive-communicative disorders on:
A. Social relationships
B. Communication interactions
C. Overall quality of life
D. All of the above

D. All of the above